psychiatric therapies and medications Flashcards

1
Q

What is psychoanalysis?

A

individual meets their therapist a few times a week. Can appear to be unstructured and random. It is more dependent than some of the other therapies on the patient-therapist relationship.

The therapist is aiming to help the individual explore and understand their unconscious motivation

• Psyhoanalysis and psychodynamic = interchangeable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define repression

A

pushing away of unacceptable ideas or thoughts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define denial

A

denying external reality of unwanted information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define displacement

A

uncomfortable emotions or thoughts are moved from a bad object to a more acceptable one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define projection

A

unacceptable ideas and thoughts are transferred on to another person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

define regression

A

moving to a lower level of complexity when under stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define reaction formation

A

taking the opposite attitude to oppressed wis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define rationalisation

A

explanation of things in a logical or ethical way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define sublimation

A

creative activities which are motivated and driven from sexual instincts and drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define identification

A

attributes of others are taken on to oneself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the goal of psychodynamic therapies?

A
  • Psychodynamic therapy tends to focus on unconscious processes as they are manifested in a person’s present behaviour.
  • The goals are to raise the patient’s self-awareness and understanding of how events in the past may be influencing current behaviour.
  • In this way the patient is able to explore past unresolved conflict (which is what leads to the current behaviour that is causing them problems or symptoms). Such as dysfunctional relationships and unresolved feelings.
  • In doing so the current problems can be better understood and enable more effective change.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long do psychodynamic therpies last?

A

from around 12 sessions through to 40 sessions.
• Brief psychotherapy is felt to be most appropriately suited to highly motivated individuals of above average intelligence who are psychologically minded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main function of CBT?

A

negative thoughts maintain the negative behaviour and a vicious cycle is established.

The main function of CBT is to break this cycle by getting individuals to recognise how their thoughts and feelings impact on each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens in CBT?

A

common to use dysfunctional thought records to challenge these views.

Individuals are asked to rate their emotions, what they were thinking about at the time and the thoughts that were running through their mind (i.e. negative automatic thoughts).

challenge these automatic thoughts with alternative more positive views and then rate the outcome according to how far the individual now believes the original thoughts.

By continually doing this it has been shown that individuals are able to challenge their thoughts and feel brighter as a result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What behavioural approach is coupled with CBT?

A

• Behavioural techniques encourage an individual to reengage with activities, often referred to in therapeutic terms as ‘behavioural reactivation’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is CBT used to treat?

A

depression, anxiety, stress related disorders and somatoform disorders.
• It has been used in the treatment of schizophrenia in an attempt to help individuals deal with hallucinations and delusions.
• Research suggests that CBT can help patients deal with chronic pain and life altering diagnoses such as HIV infection and cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is trauma focused CBT used?

A

• Trauma focused CBT is a specific treatment used for the management of PTSD.
 This involves an individual focusing on the trauma.
 It is believed that individuals are helped by the repeated exposure to what happened, which allows the mind to habituate to the experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing and how does it work?

A
  • This treatment involves an individual with PTSD focusing on the worst picture of the trauma, coupling that with a thought (e.g. I am out of control, their feelings at the time, and the part of the body where the feeling is felt)
  • While holding these four separate things together, bilateral stimulation (e.g. through asking the patient to follow the fingers of the therapist from side to side or alternating hand tapping), the individual is asked to allow their mind to go where it wants to (e.g. a form of free association).
  • It is not known how eye movement desenitisation and reprocessing works.
  • Supposedly it processes the memories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is relaxation training?

A
  • This is a useful form of therapy for people with stress or anxiety disorders.
  • Here patients are asked to use techniques such as progressive muscle relaxation, where the individual moves through different muscle groups tensing and relaxing them, or guided imagery when at times of stress or anxiety the individuals learns to take themselves off into a situation they find relaxing, such as walking in a meadow or alongside a stream on a warm summer’s day.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is systematic desensitisation ans when is it used??

A

treatment of phobic anxiety disorders, systematic densentisation is often used.

In this an individual is gradually expose to more stress inducing situations on a hierarchy they have developed in conjunction with the therapist regarding their phobia

  • The aim of graded desensitisation programme is to gradually move through the steps, asking individuals to rate their level of anxiety at each step.
  • As the levels of anxiety reduce, the individual is asked to move up to the next level of the hierarchy.
  • This has been shown to be a very effective treatment of phobic disorders if individuals are able to fully engage with it.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Exposure with response prevention and when is it used?

A

particularly used for OCD, the patient is asked to think of a hierarchy of situations that may fuel a particular ritual and expose themselves in a controlled way without engaging in the ritualistic behaviour.

It is anticipated that if the patient can hold off engaging in the ritual for upwards of an hour, the anxiety and drive to do it will eventually habitate and die out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is interpersonal therapy and what is it used to treat?

A

developed to treat individuals with depression but is now also used for the treatment of other conditions such as anorexia nervosa.

  • This theory argues that life events occurring after the formulative years influence psychopathology.
  • The focus is on an interpersonal problem using techniques from different psychotherapies.

deals with four interpersonal problem areas: grief, role dispute, role transition and interpersonal deficits.

  • Problems in a patient’s life are split into one of these four areas and strategies are developed to help the patient to cope with difficulties or to think about them in a different way.
  • As with CBT, homework is often used to enable the patient to experiment and try out these strategies in their day to day lives.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the advantages of group therapies?

A

It allows:
• Universality = shared experiences among clients.
• Altruism = members are able to help each other.
• Instillation of hope = members are able to learn from each other.
• Cohesiveness = belonging, acceptance and validation to the counselling process.
• Corrective recapitulation of primary family experience = members will often unconsciously identify other members of the group as similar to their immediate family.
• Self understanding/interpersonal learning = members may achieve a higher level of self awareness through interactions and observations of others.
• Catharsis = the experience of relief from emotional distress by expressing emotions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does counselling set out to do?

A

• Individuals already have the ability to work through their problems and a counsellor’s role is to facilitate this process by providing conditions of warmth, empathy and unconditional positive regard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the different types of counselling?

A

Problem solving counselling - purely focuses on identifying and formulating problems, setting clear and achievable goals, generating alternatives for coping and then allowing an individual to problem solve as necessary - recommended for mild forms of depression and anxiety.

Other forms use techniques developed separately as therapies (e.g. cognitive behavioural counselling and interpersonally counselling).

Psychodynamic counselling - uses psychodynamic theory. e.g. grief or bereavement counselling, which is widely used to help individuals with the loss of a loved one to help them work through the different stages of grief (denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is family therapy and when/why is it used?

A
  • Families are an environmental factor that can influence the presentation and maintenance of mental health problems.
  • A child mental health assessment should include a brief assessment of family functioning which will identify any need for more detailed exploration.
  • It is one of the most effective therapies available.
  • It is the first line treatment for several disorders of childhood, including eating disorders, anxiety, bereavement, conduct problems, substance misuse, chronic illness and psychosomatic disorders.
  • The approach is focused on collaboration and seeing family therapy intervention as a way of helping families find their own solutions.
  • In practice it remains about helping families find better ways of being or functioning.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give three examples if SSRIs

A

Sertraline, Citalopram, paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are SSRIs used for?

A

NICE says meds for mod to severe (but might consider in mild to mod if not wanting to engage in other treatments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How long do SSRIs take to work?

A

Can be started at therapeutic dose (no need for titration)
Need 2-4 weeks to see benefit
Absent/minimal response after 3-4 weeks consider switching (try different SSRI or move to 2nd line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the common side effects with SSRIs?

A

Better tolerated than TCAs and safe in overdose
Hyponatraemia (can occur with all a/d but these are worst – think in people with poor renal function/summer)
GI bleeds (esp in 65 and over)
Nausea and vomiting (warn pt about this, stops in first couple of weeks though)
Can get increased agitation and anxiety in first couple of weeks so also warn)
Suicidality
Indigestion/diarrhoea/constipation
Loss of libido/erectile dysfunction
Dizziness/dry mouth/blurred vision/sweatiness/headaches
Discontinuation symptoms with paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a serious potential complication with SSRIs?

A
Serotonin syndrome (risk if using 2 different agents at same time (this could be during switching due to long half lives)
If prescribed alongside another a/d (such as TCA/MAOI/St Johns wort/Ecstasy.
(restless, fever, tremor, myoclonus, confusion, fits, arrhythmias)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the classical features of serotonin syndrome?

A

1) Changes to mental state eg. feeling confused, agitated or restless
2) Physical symptoms eg. sweating, diarrhoea, fever, sensitive reflexes, tachycardia, twitching, clumsy, shivering
3) Feeling or being sick or at worst seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do you get in Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome and how do you avoid it?

A
  • Feeling dizzy
  • Not sleeping
  • Stomach cramps
  • Flu-like symptoms
  • Having vivid dreams or a headache, feeling light headed, sick or tired

To avoid discontinuation, try and reduce over course of 4 wks and warns pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give examples of TCAs

A

Imipramine, clomipramine, amitriptyline, nortriptyline

Lofepramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do TCAs work?

A

Block NAd and 5HT

Can’t start straight away at therapeutic dose, have to start low and titrate to a therapeutic dose to reduce SEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What side effects do you get with TCAs?

A

anticholinergic = constipation/urinary retention/dry mouth/blurred vision
Amitriptyline and lofepramine can be sedative
Toxicity in overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Give examples of SNRIs

A

Venlafaxine, Duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

when are SNRIs used?

A

This or Mirtazapine are 2nd line after SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What ere the side effects of SNRIs and contraindications?

A

Discontinuation symptoms with venlafaxine
Hypotension, tachycardia and QTc prolongation
Check BP and ECG – don’t give if CVS problems

40
Q

Give examples of MAOI

A

Phenelzine, tranylcypromine

41
Q

Why are MAOIs rarely used?

A

Rarely used due to dietary restrictions but are v effective

42
Q

What are the side effects of MAOIs?

A

Hypertensive crisis

Also blocks breakdown of tyramine in gut (broken down by MAO) – tyramine in cheese, red wine and bovril

43
Q

Give example of a NaSSa

A

Mirtazapine

44
Q

When are NaSSas used?

A

This or SNRIs are 2nd line after SSRIs

45
Q

What are the side effects of NaSSas?

A

Sedative and weight gain (stimulates the appetite)

46
Q

When is ECT used?

A

Severe, life threatening or treatment-resistant depression, catatonia or severe mania

47
Q

What are the side effects of ECT?

A

Needs to be done under GA and muscle relaxant
SE = headache, nausea, muscle pain
Memory loss common so MMSE needs to be done

48
Q

What investigations need to be done before starting antipsychotics?

A

Investigations to be done before start a/p and for monitoring:
FBC, U&E, LFT, RBS/Hba1c/ prolactin/lipids
Weight, BP and ECG and waist circumference
Monitor monthly for 4-6 months then at least annually thereafter

49
Q

How do you choose an antipsychotic?

A

Very little difference in efficacy on a population basis so trial and error. Choice comes down to SE profile.
Effect will build gradually, but if after 1 week no effect then need to think about adherence and dose optimisation

50
Q

What are the dopamine antagonist side effects of antipsychotics?

A

EPSE, prolactin secretion

51
Q

What are the prolactin related side effects of antipsychotics?

A

often asymptomatic but can be amenorrhea, galactorrhoea, gynaecomastia, impotence, weight gain, osteoporosis

52
Q

What do you get in acute EPSE?

A

parkinsonism (rigidity, tremor), dystonia (spasms, torticollis), akathisia (restlessness)

53
Q

What do you get in chronic EPSE?

A

tardive dyskinesia (choreoathetoid movements)

54
Q

What are the anticholinergic side effects of antipsychotics?

A

dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention

55
Q

What are the anti-adrenergic side effects of antipsychotics?

A

postural hypotension, sexual dysfunction

56
Q

What are the anti-histamine side effects of antipsychotics?

A

sedation, anti-emetic

57
Q

What are your typical antipsychotics?

A

Haloperidol, Chlorpromazine, Loxapine

58
Q

How do typical antipsychotics work?

A

D2 antagonists. Block mesocortical/mesolimbic pathway (a/p effect). Nigrostriatal pathway = EPSE, tubero-infundibular pathway = prolactin secretion

59
Q

What are the negatives of typical antipsychotics?

A

Typicals have more EPSEs.
High risk of neuro side effects such as tardive dyskinesia and other EPSE (Note tardive dyskinesia is permanent)
Changes to the seizure threshold
Prolong QTc

60
Q

What are your atypical antipsychotics?

A

Clozapine, Risperidone, Quetiapine, Olanzapine, Aripiprazole, Paliperidone

61
Q

How do atypical antipsychotics work?

A

These tend to work more on NaD and 5-HT so have less EPSEs. But do have some D2 blockage

62
Q

What side effects do atypical antipsychotics more often give?

A
Higher risk of metabolic side effects:
Weight gain
Dyslipidaemia – risk of DM and CV disease, may need statin
Plasma glucose/diabetes (hyperglycaemia)
QTc prolongation
63
Q

What side effect do you get with olanzapine?

A

weight gain

64
Q

When is clozapine used?

A

Use for treatment resistant schizophrenia, this is defined as used 2 a/ps at therapeutic doses for adequate trials, atleast one of which was an atypical and still not worked.

most efficacious

65
Q

Why does clozapine need increased monitoring?

A
Requires monitoring due to unpleasant side effects:
Agranulocytosis (FBC monitoring)
Myocarditis
Weight gain
Salivation
Seizures
Sedation
66
Q

What are depots and why are they used?

A

These are long acting IM forms. Indicated where either pt prefers or there are concerns about adherence.

Require tolerability of the medication to be established prior to injection either using oral/test dose
Generally given into gluteal muscles, some can be given into deltoid though

67
Q

What do you need to monitor when you use lithium?

A

Needs monitoring 0.4-1.0mmol/L
Also monitor TFTs, Ca2+, ECG, eGFR, Weight
Can’t use in pregnancy

68
Q

What can you use lithium for?

A

mania (treatment and prophylaxis), BAD, recurrent depression, aggressive or self-mutilating behaviour

69
Q

What are the side effects of lithium?

A
Early = dry mouth, metallic taste, fine tremor, nausea, fatigue, polyuria and polydipsia
Late = diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism, arrhythmias, ataxia, dysarthria, weight gain
70
Q

Why should lithium be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Epstein’s anomaly

71
Q

What drugs should you avoid if you take lithium?

A

Avoid drugs which reduce Li excretion = ACEi, NSAIDs, diruectic, esp thiazides

72
Q

What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity?

A

Early = blurred vision, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, coarse tremor, ataxia, dysarthria
Late = confusion, renal failure, delirium, fit, coma, death
(Stop lithium and give fluids!)

73
Q

How does valproate work?

A

blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels and increased brain levels of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

74
Q

What are contraindications/ side-effects of valproate?

A

Major teratogen – don’t use in women of child bearing age! (have to be signed up to a proper pregnancy prevention programme which includes yearly review and having the implant or coil)

CYP enzymatic drugs interactions
Gastric irritation (take with food)
Dose related tremor
Thrombocytopenia
Hair loss with curly regrowth
75
Q

When is carbamazepine used?

A

Nice don’t recommend at 1st line in Rx of mania, use if unresponsive to lithium

76
Q

How does carbamazepine work?

A

sodium channel blocker. It binds preferentially to voltage-gated sodium channels in their inactive conformation, which prevents repetitive and sustained firing of an action potential.

77
Q

What are the risks with carbamazepine?

A

Enzyme inducer – so likely to affect other drugs
Risk of agranulocytosis
Risk hyponatraemia

78
Q

Which antipsychotics can you use in depression in BAD?

A

Quetiapine and olanzapine

79
Q

Why can antipsychotics be useful in mania?

A

These are good in acute mania as they act as a much faster mood stabiliser than lithium or valproate which take a while to get to a steady state

80
Q

How do benzodiazepines work?

A

effect of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) at the GABAA receptor, resulting in sedative, hypnotic (sleep-inducing), anxiolytic (anti-anxiety), anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties

81
Q

When are benzos used?

A

Short term only use, rapid relief anxiolytics

82
Q

What are short acting benzos?

A

Loprazolam
Lormetazepam
Temazepam

<10 hours half life

83
Q

What are long acting benzos?

A
Nitrazepam
Flurazepam
Diazepam
Alprazolam
Clobazam
Chlordiazepoxide

> 15 hours half life

84
Q

What are beta blockers good at controlling in anxiety?

A

palpitations and tremors only

85
Q

When would pregabalin be given in anxiety?

A

Licensed for GAD, indicated for people who are unable to tolerate an a/d

86
Q

What are the risks with pregabalin?

A
Lots of SEs
Dangerous in overdose
Dangerous if people drink at the same time
Risk of addiction
High street value so risk of misuse
Very sedating
87
Q

Which are the best hypnotic drugs to use?

A

Best no meds at all but if using meds, then short acting benzo or Z-drugs (non benzos which includes zopiclone)
Only use PRN, takes about 2-3 weeks to become tolerant. Best thing is to use once or twice a week
Only consider a short course of hypnotic drug if the daytime impairment is severe

88
Q

What is procyclidine used to treat?

A

Used to treat EPSE including parkinsonism, dystonia (but not really for akathisia or tardive dyskinesia)

89
Q

Give examples of anticholinesterase inhibitors

A

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigimine

90
Q

How do AChEIs work?

A

They act by enhancing ACh at cholinergic synapses in the CAN, and in this way may slow progression of the disease.

91
Q

When are AChEis used?

A

First line monotherapy for managing mild to moderate AD - beneficial effects on cognitive, functional and behavioural symptoms of the disease

92
Q

When and how should you start AChEIs?

A

NICE says: use in AD when MMSE score above 12. Specialists should start. Assess after 2-4 months of reaching maintenance dose and continue where they has been improvement or no deterioration in MMSE score. Pts who continue on drug should be reviewed by MMSE score and global, functional and behavioural assessment every 6 months.

93
Q

What should you tell patients who start on AChEIs?

A

Tend to get nausea, loose stools and vomiting when start which tend to wear off in 7-10 days
Can cause bradycardia so do an ECG prior to starting to look for prolonged PR interval and also caution in people on beta blockers
Can make reflux worse, this is not a contraindication but if patient is on a PPI need to think about it
Take with a meal in the morning. Tend to start on 5mg and increase to 10mg after about a month to 6 weeks

94
Q

What is the only NMDA-receptor partial antagonist?

A

Memantine

95
Q

Why would you use memantine?

A

Benefit of augmenting AChEIs with memantine
Moderate dementia if CI to AChEIs
Severe dementia
Can augment AChEIs
Cochrane review indicates can be used in AD, vascular and mixed dementia

96
Q

How does memantine work?

A

The NMDA receptor binds excitatory glutamate in the CNS and has a role in LTP and learning/memory function (so may protect neurons from glutamate mediated excitotoxicity)