psych_239_20150123003517 (2/2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is binging in bulimia?

A

Cramming thousands of calories, normally followed by purging.

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2
Q

When do sufferers of bulimia stop binging?

A

If they vomit or run out of food.

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3
Q

What is purging?

A

When bulimics force themselves to throw up.

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4
Q

Which type of society are eating disorders most common in?

A

Western societies.

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5
Q

What is the systems perspective of eating disorder causes?

A

The family unit and how it contributes to the development of eating disorders.

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6
Q

What does purging represent?

A

An upheaval of negative feelings.

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7
Q

Which neurotransmitter have eating disorders been linked to?

A

Serotonin.

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8
Q

Is there any genetic link for eating disorders?

A

Yes, evidenced in twin studies.

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9
Q

What does hospitalization entail for sufferers of eating disorders?

A

IVs, monitored caloric intake, and general monitoring.

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10
Q

What is the most common approach to treating eating disorders?

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy.

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11
Q

What are 5 other eating disorders that develop in infancy and early childhood?

A

Pica, rumination disorder, feeding disorder of infancy or early childhood, Prader-Willi syndrome, and cyclic-vomiting disorder.

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12
Q

What is pica?

A

Eating weird things that don’t have nutritional value.

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13
Q

What is rumination disorder?

A

Chewing something, spitting it out, and then eating it again.

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14
Q

What is feeding disorder of infancy or early childhood?

A

Not consuming enough food for adequate growth, a rather generic disorder.

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15
Q

What is Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

A chromosome 15 disorder that leads to an insatiable appetite later in life.

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16
Q

What are 6 other eating disorders that can develop in adolescents and adults?

A

Anorexia athletica, muscle dysmorphia (bigorexia), orthexia nervosa, night-eating syndrome, nocturnal sleep-related eating disorder, and gourmand syndrome.

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17
Q

What is anorexia athletica?

A

Exercising too much.

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18
Q

What is muscle dysmorphia?

A

A preoccupation with muscle mass gain, accompanied by a feeling of never having enough muscle mass.

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19
Q

What is orthexia nervosa?

A

Having an unhealthy obsession with eating healthy foods.

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20
Q

What is night-eating syndrome?

A

An eating disorder, characterized by a delayed circadian pattern of food intake.

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21
Q

What is nocturnal sleep-related eating disorder?

A

A disorders characterized by abnormal eating patterns during the night. Can occur during sleepwalking. People with this disorder eat while they are asleep.

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22
Q

What is gourmand syndrome?

A

A rare, benign condition where people develop a new, post-injury passion for gourmet food.

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23
Q

In the video on eating disorder that we watched in class, what was the average length of recovery?

A

7 years.

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24
Q

Are dissociative disorders diagnosed promptly during treatment?

A

No.

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25
Q

When do people most often begin to dissociate?

A

After experiencing a traumatic event.

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26
Q

What is dissociative identity disorder?

A

A disorder in which a person has two or more distinct or alternate personalities.

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27
Q

How aware are the alternate personalities of each other and the host?

A

The host is not often aware of the alters, but the alters are always aware of the host and each other.

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28
Q

What is the range for number of personalities?

A

It can range from 2 - 100.

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29
Q

What are some characteristics that can differ between personalities in dissociative identity disorder?

A

Voice patterns, accents, ages, morals, allergies, gender identities, etc.

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30
Q

What is the prevalence rate for dissociative identity disorder?

A

Extremely rare. 0.5 - 1% of the population have it.

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31
Q

What stage of life is DID thought to start?

A

Childhood.

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32
Q

Who most often reports dissociative identity disorder?

A

A relatively small number of investigators and clinicians who strongly believe in the existence of the disorder.

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33
Q

What does Spanos’ research suggest about dissociative identity disorder?

A

That DID is not a distinct disorder, but a form of role playing where individuals come to construe themselves as having multiple selves, and then begin to act in ways consistent with the disorder.

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34
Q

What is the controversy around Kenneth Bianchi?

A

A police psychiatrist may have suggested that he could role-play a person with multiple personalities.

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35
Q

What is dissociative amnesia?

A

In which a person experiences memory losses in the absence of any identifiable organic cause.

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36
Q

What is local amnesia?

A

Forgetting specific times.

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37
Q

What is specific amnesia?

A

Forgetting specific events.

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38
Q

What is usually retained during dissociative amnesia?

A

General knowledge and skills.

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39
Q

What is malingering?

A

Faking illness so as to obtain benefits.

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40
Q

What is dissociative amnesia with fugue?

A

In which one suddenly flees from one’s life situation, travels to a new location, assumes a new identity, and has amnesia for past personal material.

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41
Q

How do sufferers of fugue states generally get their memories coming back to them?

A

Suddenly and all at once.

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42
Q

After what age do fugue and amnesia become especially rare?

A

After age 50.

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43
Q

What is depersonalization disorder?

A

A disorder characterized by persistent or recurrent episodes of depersonalization.

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44
Q

What is meant by depersonalization?

A

Disconnecting from yourself, detaching from one’s self or body.

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45
Q

What is derealization?

A

Episodes characterized by the sense that one’s surroundings have become strange or unreal, time may seem to be oddly slowed down or sped up.

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46
Q

What percentage of people experience some form of derealization?

A

80 - 90%.

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47
Q

What does the psychodynamic perspective suggest is the cause for dissociative disorders?

A

Repression; our ego becomes overwhelmed as we try to repress our memories.

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48
Q

Why do psychodynamic theorists believe that DID sufferers develop other personalities?

A

In order to systematically forget specific memories.

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49
Q

What did Porter et al. discover in their study on false memories?

A

26% of participants created false memories based on stories fabricated by the researchers.

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50
Q

What is the psychoanalytic treatment approach for dissociative disorders?

A

To uncover early childhood traumas and bring together all the alternate personalities into one.

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51
Q

What are somatoform disorders?

A

Disorders in which people com[lain of physical (somatic) problems although no physical abnormality can be found.

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52
Q

What is factitious disorder?

A

Making up a disorder and then giving yourself symptoms so that you would be recognized as being ill.

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53
Q

What was factitious disorder previously known as?

A

Münchausen Syndrome.

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54
Q

What is Münchausen by proxy?

A

A disorder where you give someone in your care a disease so that you can care for them. Most often mothers making their children sick.

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55
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

Type of somatoform disorder characterized by loss or impairment of physical function in the absence of any organic causes that might account for the changes.

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56
Q

What is La Belle Indifference?

A

A term describing the lack of concern over one’s symptoms. Displayed sometimes by people with conversion disorder but also people with real physical disorders.

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57
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A

A type of somatoform disorder involving recurrent multiple complaints that cannot be explained by any clear physical causes.

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58
Q

What was somatic symptom disorder previously called?

A

Briquet’s disorder.

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59
Q

What is the main difference between conversion disorder and somatic symptom disorder?

A

Conversion disorder involves serious impairments, somatic symptom disorder involves minor complaints.

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60
Q

What is illness anxiety disorder?

A

Fear of any symptoms and what they might represent.

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61
Q

What was illness anxiety disorder previously called?

A

Hypochondriasis.

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62
Q

Do sufferers of illness anxiety disorder fake their symptoms?

A

No, but they fear that symptoms are due to a real illness.

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63
Q

What are primary gains for somatic symptoms and related disorders?

A

The relief from anxiety obtained through the development of a neurotic symptom. Makes you less anxious about a internal conflicts.

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64
Q

What are secondary gains for somatic symptoms and related disorders?

A

Any side benefits associated with neuroses or other disorders, such as sympathy and increased attention.

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65
Q

What does psychoanalysis treatment for somatoform and related disorders involve?

A

Talk therapy; all about uncovering unconscious conflicts that originated in childhood.

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66
Q

What is the behavioural approach to treating somatoform and related disorders?

A

Removing any reinforcement of symptoms by sympathy or attention (secondary gains). It also focuses on the healthy aspects and ignores the symptoms.

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67
Q

What does the cognitive-behavioural approach to treatment for somatoform and related disorders entail?

A

Looking at evidence and working through what could be wrong.

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68
Q

Where is Koro syndrome prevalent and what is it?

A

Prevalent in China and East Asia; it is the fear that their genitals are shrinking or retracting into their body and believe that this will result in death.

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69
Q

Where is Dhat syndrome prevalent and what is it?

A

Prevalent in young men in India; it is the excessive fears over loss of seminal fluid during nocturnal emission.

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70
Q

What is amok? Where is it prevalent?

A

A trancelike state in which a person suddenly becomes highly excited and violently attacks other people or destroys objects. Prevalent in Southeast Asia and Pacific cultures.

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71
Q

What is zar? Where is it prevalent?

A

Describes a spirit possessing people who experience dissociative states during which they engage in unusual behaviour ranging from shouting to banging heads against a wall. Prevalent in North African and Middle Eastern cultures.

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72
Q

Attitudes towards sexual activity are incredibly diverse, and what is ‘normal’ is clearly influenced by ___ factors.

A

Sociocultural.

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73
Q

What are some reasons that sexual behaviour may be labeled as abnormal?

A

-It deviates from the norms of one’s society. -It is self-defeating. -Harms others. -Causes personal distress. -Interferes with one’s ability to function.

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74
Q

What is gender identity?

A

One’s psychological sense of being female or male.

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75
Q

What is gender identity disorder?

A

A disorder in which the individual believes that her or his anatomic gender is inconsistent with his or her psychological sense of being male or female.

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76
Q

What is gender reassignment?

A

The process of transition through medical intervention.

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77
Q

Gender reassignment is more common in ___.

A

Men.

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78
Q

What is the end result of gender reassignment as far as sexual relations go?

A

The person can have sex and experience orgasm, but are sterile (cannot reproduce).

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79
Q

What is the psychodynamic perspective on gender identity disorder?

A

Extremely close mother son relationships and fathers who were absent or detached could cause the child to overidentify with their mother and enmesh, and make them want to be more like them.

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80
Q

What is the learning theory on gender identity disorders?

A

The child does not have a strong male role model available to them.

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81
Q

Paraphilias are more common in ___.

A

Men.

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82
Q

What is exhibitionism?

A

Involves recurrent powerful urges to expose one;s genitals to an unsuspecting stranger in order to surprise, shock, or sexually arouse the victim.

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83
Q

What is fetishism?

A

A person uses an inanimate object or a body part as a focus of sexual interest and as a source of arousal.

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84
Q

___ can play a role in fetishism developing.

A

Imprinting.

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85
Q

What is transvestic fetishism?

A

The chief feature is recurrent, powerful urges and related fantasies involving cross dressing for the purpose of sexual arousal.

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86
Q

What is voyeurism?

A

It is either acting on or being strongly distressed by recurrent powerful sexual urges and related fantasies involving watching unsuspecting people, generally strangers who are undressed, disrobing,or engaging in sexual activity.

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87
Q

Frotteurism is also known as ___.

A

Mashing,

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88
Q

What is frotteurism?

A

The French word frottage refers to the artistic technique of making a drawing by rubbing against a raised object.

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89
Q

What is pedophilia?

A

The chief feature is recurrent, powerful sexual urges and related fantasies involving sexual activity with prepubescent children (typically 13 and younger).

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90
Q

What is a comment that is made about pedophilia?

A

It should be considered a sexual orientation.

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91
Q

What are the 2 pathways to the development of persistent sexual offending agaisnt children?

A
  1. Antisociality. 2. Sexual attraction to prepubescent children (pedophilia).
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92
Q

Concerning pedophilia, men are often more ___, while women are ___.

A

Externalizing, internalizing.

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93
Q

What is sexual masochism?

A

Involves strong recurrent urges and fantasies relating to sexual acts that involve being humiliated, bound, flogged, or made to suffer in other ways.

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94
Q

What is hypoxyphilia a form of?

A

Sexual masochism.

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95
Q

What is hypoxyphila?

A

Cutting off air flow via choking.

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96
Q

What is sexual sadism?

A

Involves recurrent powerful urges and related fantasies of engaging in acts in which the person is sexually aroused by inflicting physical suffering or humiliation on another person.

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97
Q

What is sadomasochism?

A

When the acts are mutual.

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98
Q

What is telephone scatologia?

A

Making obscene phone calls.

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99
Q

What is necrophilia?

A

Sexual urges or fantasies involving sexual contact with corpses.

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100
Q

What is partialism?

A

Sole focus on a part of the body.

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101
Q

What is zoophilia?

A

Sexual urges or fantasies incolcing sexual contact with animals. Beastiality.

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102
Q

What is coprophilia?

A

Sexual arousal associated with feces.

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103
Q

What is klismaphilia?

A

Sexual arousal associated with enemas.

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104
Q

What is urophilia?

A

Sexual arousal associated with urine.

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105
Q

The psychodynamic theory maintains that paraphilias are a result of…

A

A defence against leftover castration anxiety.

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106
Q

The learning theory maintains that paraphilias are a result of…

A

Conditioning (pairing) and observational learning.

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107
Q

What strategy does the Correctional Service Canada’s National Moderate Intensity Sex Offender Program use?

A

CBT.

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108
Q

The CBT maintains that paraphilias are a result of…

A

Guided learning, motivations, group processes, over-learning, and skill development.

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109
Q

How do psychoanalysts treat paraphilias?

A

Bring childhood sexual conflicts into awareness so that they can be resolved in the light of the individual’s adult personality.

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110
Q

How do behaviourists treat paraphilias?

A

Use aversive conditioning techniques to induce a negative emotional reaction to paraphilic stimuli or fantasies.

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111
Q

How does CBT propose that we treat paraphilias?

A

Building social skills, and the development of stress management skills.

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112
Q

How do SSRI’s treat paraphilias?

A

Treat the paraphilias as a factor of anxiety and depression.

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113
Q

What are the 3 types of sexual dysfunction according to the DSM V?

A
  1. Sexual interest/desire disorder. 2. Orgasm disorder. 3. Genito pelvic pain/penetration disorder.
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114
Q

The first 3 categories correspond to the first three phases of…

A

The sexual response cycle.

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115
Q

What are the 3 types of sexual arousal disorders?

A
  1. Female sexual interest/desire disorder. 2. Male erectile disorder. 3. Orgasm disorder.
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116
Q

What is female sexual interest/desire disorder?

A

Difficulty becoming sexually aroused.

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117
Q

What is male erectile disorder?

A

Difficulty in achieving or maintatining erection during sexual activity.

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118
Q

What are orgasm disorders? Give an example of an orgasm disorder.

A

The inability to reach climax. Includes premature ejaculation.

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119
Q

With sexual arousal disorders, there is no ___ reason behind the disorders.

A

Physical.

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120
Q

What are the components of genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder?

A

-Intense fear/anxiety in anticipation of, during, or as a result of vaginal intercourse (psychological). -Actual pain experiencced in pelvis or vulvogenital area during attempted or as a result of vaginal penetration (physical). -Marked tensing or tightening of the lower pelvic inner-abdominal muscles during attempted vaginal penetration.

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121
Q

How is genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder commonly treated?

A

Inserting cylinders, or relaxation training.

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122
Q

What does the biological perspective say about sexual dysfunctions?

A

Deficient testorone production and thyroid over-activity or under-activity are among the many biological conditions that can lead to impaired sexual desire.

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123
Q

What does the psychodynamic perspective say about sexual dysfunctions?

A

Conflicts of the phallic stage.

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124
Q

What does the learning perspective say about sexual dysfunctions?

A

Cognitive perspectives.

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125
Q

Problems in relationships can lead to sexual dysfunction. True or false?

A

True.

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126
Q

What are sociocultural factors that can lead to sexual dysfunction?

A

Performance anxiety and sexual performance being attached to masculinity.

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127
Q

What are some biological treatments of male sexual dysfunction?

A

Viagra, Cialis, Levitra, or SSRI’s.

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128
Q

Sensate-focus techniques are used for sexual interest/desire techniques. What are they?

A

Often used in couples therapy, forbids couples from touching each other. Paradoxical, as patients succeed either way.

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129
Q

What are personality disorders?

A

When particular styles of behaviour become so rigid or maladaptive that they become self-defeating and cause significant personal distress or impair functioning.

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130
Q

What is Ego Syntonic behaviour?

A

Behaviour or feelings that are perceived as natural or compatible parts of the self.

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131
Q

What is Ego Dystonic behaviour?

A

Behaviour or feelings that are perceived to be foreign or alien to one’s self-identity.

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132
Q

Ego ____ is characteristic of personality disorders. Ego ___ is characteristic of mood disorders.

A

Syntonic, dystonic.

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133
Q

What are the three general categories of personality disorders?

A
  1. Odd or eccentric behaviour. 2. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviour. 3. Anxious or fearful behaviour.
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134
Q

What are the three types of personality disorders characterized by odd or eccentric behaviour?

A
  1. Paranoid personality disorder. 2. Schizoid personality disorder. 3. Schizotypal personality disorder.
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135
Q

What is Paranoid Personality Disorder?

A

Type of personality disorder characterized by persistent suspiciousness of the motives of others, but not to the point of holding clear-cut delusions.

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136
Q

What is the prevalence of Paranoid Personality Disorder, and is it more common in men or women?

A

0.5-2%, more common in men.

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137
Q

What is Schizoid Personality Disorder?

A

Type of personality disorder characterized by persistent lack of interest in social relationships, flattened affect, and social withdrawal.

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138
Q

What is a key feature in Schizoid Personality Disorder?

A

Social isolation.

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139
Q

In Schizoid Personality Disorder, how do men and women react differently?

A

Men rarely date or marry, women are more likely to accept romantic advances passively and marry, but seldom initiate relationships or develop strong attachments to their partners.

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140
Q

How do people with schizoid personality disorder differ from normal people when it comes to displaying one’s feelings? Especially among strangers?

A

Schizoids rarely express emotions and are distant and aloof.

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141
Q

How do people with schizoid PD and schizophrenia differ?

A

The emotions of people with schizoid personality disorder are not as shallow or blunted as they are in people with schizophrenia.

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142
Q

What is Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

A

Personality disorder characterized by eccentricities or oddities of thought and behaviour but without clearly psychotic features.

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143
Q

Do people with Schizotypal Personality Disorder want relationships?

A

Yes, but the relationships they want are odd.

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144
Q

How does Schizotypal Personality Disorder differ from schizophrenia?

A

Schizotypal Personality Disorder applies to people who have difficulties forming close relationships and whose behaviour, mannerisms, and thought patterns are peculiar or odd but not disturbed enough to merit a diagnosis of schizophrenia.

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145
Q

Which personality disorder has the closest link to schizophrenia?

A

Schizotypal Personality Disorder.

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146
Q

What are the four types of personality characterized by dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviour?

A
  1. Antisocial personality disorder (psychopathy/sociopathy). 2. Borderline personality disorder. 3. Histrionic personality disorder. 4. Narcissistic personality disorder.
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147
Q

What is Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Type of personality disorder characterized by a chronic pattern of antisocial and irresponsible behaviour and lack of remorse.

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148
Q

What is the difference between psychopaths and sociopaths?

A

Psychopaths are born that way, while sociopaths are a result of their environment. Nature vs. nurture.

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149
Q

What behaviour characterizes antisocial behaviour?

A

Expressing no empathy, difficulty connecting and identifying with others, violating the rights of others, and breaking the law.

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150
Q

What is the prevalence rate for Antisocial Personality Disorder in Canada?

A

1.7-3.7%.

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151
Q

What types of traits are Antisocial Personality Disorder characterized by?

A

Affective and interpersonal traits.

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152
Q

What are some characteristics of people with Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Shallow emotions, selfishness, arrogance, superficial charm, deceitfulness, manipulativeness, irresponsibility, sensation-seeking, and a lack of empathy, anxiety, and remorse, persistent violations of social norms, a socially deviant and nomadic lifestyle, and impulsiveness.

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153
Q

What is Factor 1 for Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Remains stable across your lifetime.

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154
Q

What is Factor 2 for Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

They mature out of it around the age 40.

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155
Q

You must be over the age of __ in Canada to be diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder.

A

18

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156
Q

People between the ages of 8-18 are diagnosed with what disorder instead of Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Conduct Disorder.

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157
Q

Does being diagnosed with Conduct Disorder mean that you will automatically be diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

No.

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158
Q

People under 8 years of age are diagnosed with what disorder instead of Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Oppositional Defiance Disorder.

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159
Q

What is Oppositional Defiance Disorder?

A

A diagnosis for children under the age of 8, who often display the key feature of harming animals and who also tend to be bedwetters.

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160
Q

Not all criminals show signs of psychopathy, and only a minority of people with psychopathic personalities become ___.

A

Criminals.

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161
Q

What is an occupation that many psychopaths do?

A

CEO’s of major companies.

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162
Q

Incarcerated psychopaths are more/less likely to reoffend in a violent or extreme way after they are released.

A

More.

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163
Q

Is there a racial or ethnic link to psychopathy?

A

No.

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164
Q

What are the four psychophysiological and biological factors that are related to Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A
  1. Lack of emotional responsiveness. 2. The craving-for-stimulation model. 3. Lack of restraint or impulsivity. 4. Limbic abnormalities.
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165
Q

How does lack of emotional responsiveness relate to Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Psychopaths are not as reactive to forms of punishment (shock tests).

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166
Q

How does the craving-for-stimulation model relate to Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Can manifest in extreme risk-taking behaviour, maybe in part to compensate for missing emotions.

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167
Q

How does the lack of restraint or impulsivity relate to Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Believed to be because of a defect in the prefrontal cortex.

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168
Q

How do limbic abnormalities relate to Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

There are observed differences in the amygdala and emotions processing centres.

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169
Q

What is Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

Primarily characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in relationships, self-image, and mood and a lack of control over impulses.

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170
Q

People with Borderline Personality Disorder tend to be uncertain about their…

A

Values, goals, loyalties, careers, choices of friends, and perhaps even sexual orientations.

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171
Q

The fear of ___ is a key feature in Borderline Personality Disorder.

A

Abandonment.

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172
Q

People with Borderline Personality Disorder cannot tolerate being ___, and will make desperate efforts to avoid feelings of abandonment.

A

Alone.

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173
Q

1/10 sufferers of Borderline Personality Disorder will…

A

Kill themselves.

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174
Q

Borderline Personality Disorder got its name from the fact that people that are diagnosed with it are on the border between being ___ and ___.

A

Neurotic, psychotic.

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175
Q

What is the main treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

DBT (Dialectic Behaviour Therapy).

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176
Q

What is Dialectic Behaviour Therapy used to treat?

A

Borderline Personality Disorder.

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177
Q

What does Dialectic Behaviour Therapy include?

A

Mindfulness, distress tolerance, emotional tolerance, and acceptance based work.

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178
Q

What is the prevalence rate for Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

2%.

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179
Q

Is Borderline Personality Disorder more common in women or men?

A

More common in women (about 75%).

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180
Q

World War II dictator Adolf Hitler lived and died by the Nazi principle of “death before dishonour,” which is arguably a form of the ___ ___ ___ thinking characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder.

A

All-or-nothing.

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181
Q

What is Histrionic Personality Disorder?

A

Type of personality disorder characterized by excessive need to be the centre of attention and to receive reassurance, praise, and approval from others.

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182
Q

People with Histrionic Personality Disorder often appear overly ___ and ___ in their behaviour.

A

Dramatic, emotional.

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183
Q

What are some characteristics of people with Histrionic Personality Disorder?

A

Flirtatious, seductive, manipulative, lack self esteem and are trying to compensate, overreact, like to be novel (no routine), have difficulty in relationships, they desire change, may want to be models or actresses, strong sense of entitlement.

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184
Q

Histrionic Personality Disorder is more commonly diagnosed in ___.

A

Women.

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185
Q

What is Narcissistic Personality Disorder?

A

A type of personality disorder characterized by the adoptions of an inflated self-image and demands for constant attention and admiration, among other features.

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186
Q

People with Narcissistic Personality Disorder brag about their accomplishments and expect others to…

A

Shower them with praise even if their accomplishments are ordinary.

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187
Q

People with Narcissistic Personality Disorder tend to be ___.

A

Workaholics.

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188
Q

Less than _% of the population is diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

A

1

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189
Q

What are some characteristics of people with Narcissistic Personality Disorder?

A

Lack of empathy for others, one-sided relationships,fantasies about success and power.

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190
Q

What are the three personality disorders characterized by anxious or fearful behaviour?

A
  1. Avoidant personality disorder. 2. Dependent personality disorder. 3. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
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191
Q

What is Avoidant Personality Disorder?

A

A type of personality disorder characterized by avoidance of social relationships due to fears of rejection.

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192
Q

People with Avoidant Personality Disorder are unwilling to enter relationships without…

A

Ardent reassurance or acceptance.

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193
Q

As a result of their needing ardent reassurance or acceptance from their relationships, people with Avoidant Personality Disorder often…

A

Do not have close relationships with people outside of their family.

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194
Q

People with Avoidant Personality Disorder tend to avoid…

A

Group occupational or recreational activities.

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195
Q

What is the prevalence rate of Avoidant Personality Disorder?

A

0.5-1%.

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196
Q

In Avoidant Personality Disorder, there is a fear of ___ embarrassment, and it is also tied to ___ anxiety.

A

Public, social.

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197
Q

What is Dependent Personality Disorder?

A

A type of personality disorder characterized by difficulties making independent decisions and by overly dependent behaviour.

198
Q

In Dependent Personality Disorder, there is an excessive need to be taken care of by ___.

A

Others.

199
Q

Dependent Personality Disorder is more common in which gender, and in what forms?

A

Women. Can fear abandonment, tolerate husbands who openly cheat on them, abuse them, or gamble away family resources.

200
Q

What are some things that are linked to Dependent Personality Disorder?

A

Depression, bipolar, social phobias, hypertension, gastrointestinal problems, cancer.

201
Q

What is Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder?

A

A type of personality disorder characterized by rigid ways of relating to others, perfectionist tendencies, lack of spontaneity, and excessive attention to details.

202
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is diagnosed in _% of the population.

A

1

203
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is twice as common in ___ as in ___.

A

Men, women.

204
Q

People with ___ ___ personality disorder would say “A place for everything, and everything in its place.”

A

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.

205
Q

People with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder have excessive need for ___ in their environment.

A

Orderliness.

206
Q

What are some problems with classification of personality disorders?

A

-Undermining reliability and validity. -Problems distinguishing Axis I from Axis II disorders. -Overlap among disorders. -Difficulty in distinguishing between variations of normal and abnormal behaviour. -Sexist biases.

207
Q

Who are three people that contributed to the psychodynamic perspectives on personality disorders?

A
  1. Hans Kohut. 2. Otto Kernberg. 3. Margaret Mahler.
208
Q

What did Hans Kohut say about personality disorders in the psychodynamic perspective?

A

Self-psychology.

209
Q

What is self-psychology?

A

Descries processes that normally lead to the achievement of a cohesive sense of self or in narcissistic personality a grandiose sense of self.

210
Q

What did Otto Kernberg say about personality disorders in the psychodynamic perspective?

A

Splitting.

211
Q

What is splitting?

A

A term used to describe the inability of sane persons (especially those with borderline personalities) to reconcile the positive and negative aspects of themselves and others into a cohesive integration, resulting in sudden and radical shifts between strongly positive and strongly negative feelings.

212
Q

What did Margaret Mahler say about personality disorders in the psychodynamic perspective?

A

Symbiotic and separation-individuation.

213
Q

What is symbiotic (concerning personality disorders)?

A

Used to describe the state of openness that normally exists between a mother and infant which the infants identity is fused with the mothers.

214
Q

What does the learning perspective say about personality disorders?

A

Tend to focus on the acquisitions of behaviour than on the notion of enduring personality traits. Use maladaptive behaviour instead of personality traits.

215
Q

What does the family perspective say about personality disorders?

A

There is a link between histories of physical and sexual abuse or neglect in childhood to the development of personality disorders.

216
Q

What does the cognitive-behavioural perspective say about personality disorders?

A

Problem-solving therapy focuses on helping people develop more effective problem solving skills.

217
Q

What does the biological perspective say about personality disorders?

A

There are genetic factors for antisocial, schizotypal, and borderline disorders. Twin studies show a link between monozygotic twins.

218
Q

What is Gray’s Reinforcement Sensitivity Theory?

A

???

219
Q

What do sociological views say about personality disorders?

A

Low family income, teenage-parent family, lone parent family, low parental education, and family dysfunction are associated with vulnerability to one or more behaviour problems in young children.

220
Q

How do psychodynamic perspectives say personality disorders should be treated?

A

Become more aware of the root of the self-defeating behaviour pattern and learn more adaptive ways of relating to others.

221
Q

How do the behaviour approaches say personality disorders should be treated?

A

Change behaviour rather than personality. Hope that by changing how they act, they can change who they are.

222
Q

How do biological approaches say personality disorders should be treated?

A

Drug therapy does not work, but symptoms may be masked.

223
Q

What are the 3 factors in Canadian Treatment Services?

A
  1. Psychotherapy should focus on reducing the extremeness of traits and bring them into client awareness. 2. Given historical perspective so the patient can see how his or her behaviour is shaped by the past. 3. Involves change.
224
Q

What are acute episodes of schizophrenia characterized by? (5)

A

Delusions, hallucinations, illogical thinking, incoherent speech, and bizarre behaviour.

225
Q

During episodes of schizophrenia, how do sufferers act?

A

They may still be unable to think clearly and lack proper emotional responses.

226
Q

What did Emil Kraeplin call schizophrenia?

A

Dementia praecox; to be out (dementis) of one’s mind (praecox).

227
Q

What was Kraeplin’s idea of dementia praecox?

A

There was something wrong with the body; it presented in childhood; it spiralled downwards.

228
Q

Who brought the term “schizophrenia”?

A

Eugen Bleuler

229
Q

What were Bleuler’s 4 A’s for schizophrenia symptoms?

A

Associations, affect, ambivalence, and autism.

230
Q

What were the problems with Bleuler’s association?

A

Relationships among thoughts become disturbed, disrupted, and tangential.

231
Q

What were the problems with Bleuler’s affect?

A

Emotional responses become flattened or inappropriate.

232
Q

What were the problems with Bleuler’s ambivalence?

A

Holding conflicting feelings towards others.

233
Q

What were the problems with Bleuler’s autism?

A

Withdrawal into a private fantasy world that is not bound by logic.

234
Q

What did Kurt Schneider believe about schizophrenia?

A

That there were first-rank and second-rank symptoms.

235
Q

What are first-rank symptoms?

A

They must be experienced in order to diagnose schizophrenia, mainly included delusions and hallucinations.

236
Q

What are second-rank-symptoms?

A

Symptoms associated with schizophrenia that also occur in other psychological conditions. E.g., disturbances of mood and confused thinking.

237
Q

What is the main issue with first and second rank symptoms?

A

The potential for misdiagnosis occurs.

238
Q

What percentage of the adult Canadian population does schizophrenia affect?

A

1%

239
Q

Which gender is more often affected by schizophrenia?

A

Both are affected equally, but men develop the disorder earlier.

240
Q

What is an indicator of the likely severity of schizophrenia?

A

How early it develops.

241
Q

Where does schizophrenia place on the list of causes of disability worldwide?

A

5th.

242
Q

What percentage of schizophrenics attempt suicide?

A

40-60%

243
Q

What percentage of schizophrenics die because of suicide?

A

10%

244
Q

How much more likely are schizophrenics to die from suicide compared to the rest of the population?

A

15-25 times more likely.

245
Q

What are the 3 phases of schizophrenia?

A

Prodromal, acute, and residual.

246
Q

What is the prodromal phase characterized by?

A

Waning interest in social activities and increasing difficulty meeting the responsibilities of everyday living. The person deteriorates, but is not actively delusional.

247
Q

What is the acute phase characterized by?

A

Active delusions and/or hallucinations. Presence of positive symptoms.

248
Q

What is the residual phase characterized by?

A

Behaviour returns to the level similar in function prior to the first acute phase.

249
Q

What are the 6 categories of major features of schizophrenia?

A

Disturbances of thought and speech, disturbances in form of thought, attentional deficiencies, perceptual disturbances, emotional disturbances, and other.

250
Q

Disturbances of thought and speech are characterized by what?

A

Delusions.

251
Q

What are the types of delusions experienced by schizophrenics?

A

Delusions of persecution, reference, being controlled, grandeur, thought broadcasting, thought insertion, and thought withdrawal.

252
Q

What are delusions of persecution?

A

Thinking that people are out to get them.

253
Q

What are delusions of reference?

A

Thinking that people are talking about them.

254
Q

What are delusions of being controlled?

A

Believing one’s thoughts, feelings, or actions are being controlled by external forces (agents or devils).

255
Q

What are delusions of grandeur?

A

Believing oneself to be more important than they really are. E.g., believing oneself to be Jesus on a special mission, or having a grand but illogical plan to save the world.

256
Q

What is thought broadcasting?

A

A delusion that one’s thoughts about being transmitted to the external world so that people can hear them.

257
Q

What is thought insertion?

A

A delusion that one’s thoughts have been planted into one’s mind by an external source.

258
Q

What is thought withdrawal?

A

A delusion that one’s thoughts have been removed from one’s mind.

259
Q

What are 6 disturbances in the form of thought?

A

Thought disorder, neologisms, perservation, clanging, blocking, and poverty of speech.

260
Q

What is thought disorder?

A

The breakdown in the organization, syntax, processing, and control of thoughts.

261
Q

What are neologisms?

A

Words made up by the speaker that have little or no meaning to others.

262
Q

What is perservation?

A

Inappropriate but persistent repetition of the same words or train of thought.

263
Q

What is clanging?

A

Stringing together words or sounds on the basis of rhyming.

264
Q

What is blocking?

A

Involuntary, abrupt interruption of speech or thought.

265
Q

What is poverty of speech?

A

Not speaking much, and what is spoken makes no sense.

266
Q

What is an example of an attentional deficiency?

A

Hyper-vigilance: acute sensitivity to extraneous senses, especially during the early stages of the disorder.

267
Q

What are common perceptual disturbances?

A

Auditory hallucinations, self talk, tactile hallucinations, olfactory hallucinations, and command hallucinations.

268
Q

What percentage of cases present with auditory hallucinations?

A

60%

269
Q

What are command hallucinations? What percentage of cases present with them?

A

Beliefs that you must do something, often hurting someone. 80% have them.

270
Q

What is the theory of the causes of hallucinations?

A

Especially sensitive dopamine receptors.

271
Q

What is an example of an emotional disturbance?

A

Flat affect: low levels of arousal.

272
Q

What are some other types of impairment?

A

Stupor: a state of relative or complete unconsciousness in which the person is not generally aware of the environment.

273
Q

What is the categorical model of schizophrenia?

A

There are two types of schizophrenia: type I and type II.

274
Q

What is type I schizophrenia?

A

The presence of positive symptoms; abnormal behaviour such as hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder, disorganized speech, inappropriate affect, etc.

275
Q

What is type II schizophrenia?

A

The presence of negative symptoms; absence of normal behaviour. Social skills deficit, social withdrawal, flat affect, poverty of speech or thought, psychomotor retardation, failure to experience pleasure.

276
Q

Are the two types of schizophrenia mutually exclusive?

A

No, the may both present in a diagnosis.

277
Q

What is the psychodynamic perspective on schizophrenia?

A

The person is regressing to an early period in the oral stage due to stressors.

278
Q

What is Harry Stack Sullivan’s psychodynamic theory of schizophrenia?

A

Anxious and hostile interactions between parent and child lead the child to take refuge in a private fantasy world.

279
Q

What is the learning perspective (Ulmann and Krasner) on schizophrenia?

A

If children grow up in a non-reinforcing environment, they never learn to respond appropriately to social stimuli.

280
Q

Why do learning theorists believe people present with sever schizophrenic symptoms?

A

They model after the more severe schizophrenics because they are getting the most attention.

281
Q

What is the biological perspective on schizophrenia?

A

Viral infections, brain abnormalities, genetic, and biochemical factors contribute.

282
Q

What is the dopamine theory of schizophrenia?

A

They do not produce more dopamine, but rather have a greater than normal amount of receptors that are more sensitive.

283
Q

What drugs are used to treat schizophrenia based on the dopamine theory?

A

Neuroleptic drugs that block dopamine receptors.

284
Q

What is the viral infection theory of schizophrenia?

A

The theory that schizophrenia is a slow-acting virus that attacks the developing brain of a fetus or newborn child.

285
Q

What areas of the brain are indicated to affect schizophrenia?

A

The hippocampus and the amygdala.

286
Q

What is the family theory of schizophrenia?

A

That schizophrenogenic mothers, contradictory or mixed messages, communication deviance, expressed negative emotions, or stress from the family contribute to schizophrenic behaviour.

287
Q

What are schizophrenogenic mothers?

A

Cold, aloof, but also overprotective and domineering mothers.

288
Q

What is the biological approach to treatment?

A

The use of antipsychotics.

289
Q

What is an example of an antipsychotic drug used to treat schizophrenia?

A

Phenothiazines such as Haloperidol.

290
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

A movement disorder characterized by involuntary movements of the face, mouth, neck, trunk, or extremities.

291
Q

What is the psychoanalytic approach to treatment? How effective is it?

A

Personal therapy is used, it is not well suited to treatment.

292
Q

What percentage of schizophrenics will go off their drugs? What percentage will relapse?

A

90% go off drugs; 40% relapse.

293
Q

What is the learning-based approach to treatment?

A

Selective reinforcement, token economies, and social skills training.

294
Q

What is psychosocial rehabilitation?

A

Self-help groups and community programs run by nonprofessionals.

295
Q

What are family intervention programs?

A

Programs that educate family members on the practical aspects of daily living with someone schizophrenic.

296
Q

What do early intervention programs yield? (7)

A

Reduced disruption of activities, disruption of relationships, likelihood of hospitalization, disability and relapses, risk of suicide, improved capacity to maintain self-identity, and faster and more complete recoveries.

297
Q

What is anosognosia?

A

Not knowing that you are sick; believing yourself to be normal and everyone else to be abnormal.

298
Q

Why are psychological problems experienced by children and young people especially poignant?

A

Children have relatively little ability to cope.

299
Q

The consideration of normal and abnormal must account for ___ issues, as well as factors such as ethnicity, age, and gender.

A

Developmental.

300
Q

What is Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

Characterized by pervasive deficits in the ability to relate to and communicate with others, and by a restricted range of activities and interests.

301
Q

Autism Spectrum Disorder is temporary/lifelong.

A

Lifelong.

302
Q

Which socioeconomic class does Autism Spectrum Disorder affect?

A

Affects all socioeconomic levels.

303
Q

When does Autism Spectrum Disorder become evident?

A

Between 18 and 24 months.

304
Q

Autism Spectrum Disorder is _ times more common in boys/girls.

A

4, boys.

305
Q

How are vaccines related to Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

They are not.

306
Q

Is it often the case that the mother is to blame for Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

No.

307
Q

Autism Spectrum Disorder needs to be diagnosed before the age of _.

A

3

308
Q

What are some symptoms of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

-Do not pick up on non-verbal cues. -Pointing to pictures. -Varying degrees of speech. -Cognitive deficits. -Over-sensitivity to certain stimuli.

309
Q

What kind of speech is typical in a child with Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

-Being mute. -Peculiar usage (echolalia, pronoun reversals, use of words with intimate meaning known only to child). -Raising voice at the end of a sentence.

310
Q

What are some physical actions associated with people with Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

Twirling, flapping of hands, rocking back and forth with arms around knees, mutilating self, banging head, slapping own face, biting hands and shoulders, pulling hair.

311
Q

Preservation of ___ is a feature of Autism Spectrum Disorer.

A

Sameness.

312
Q

What is the Preservation of Sameness?

A

Aversion to environmental changes.

313
Q

The psychodynamic explanation for Autism Spectrum Disorder blames ___.

A

Mothers.

314
Q

Kanner and Eisenberg said that children with Autism Spectrum Disorder were reared by ___, ___ parents who were dubbed “___ ___.”

A

Cold, detached. Emotional refrigerators.

315
Q

Bettelheim stated that extreme ___ ___ is the child’s defence agaisnt parental rejection.

A

Self-absorption.

316
Q

Lovaas and the cognitive perspective on Autism Spectrum Disorder believe that chilrden have a perceptual deficit that limits them to…

A

Processing only one stimulus at a time.

317
Q

How does the biological perspective explain Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

-There is a period of overgrowth in brain size in early postnatal development, followed by significant slowed growth resulting in a brain volume smaller than average for children aged 5 to 16. -Smaller corpus callosum which impacts lateralization.

318
Q

What are the roles of the left and right hemispheres of the brain?

A

Left hemisphere is verbal and analytic functions, right hemisphere is nonverbal and spatial functions.

319
Q

The treatment of Autism Spectrum Disorder focuses on 3 deficits: what are they?

A
  1. Behavioural. 2. Educational. 3. Communcation.
320
Q

___ intervention is important in Autism Spectrum Disorder.

A

Early.

321
Q

What is a medication used to treat Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

Haldol.

322
Q

When would Haldol be useful?

A

In cases of Autism Spectrum Disorder in reducing social withdrawal and repetitive motor behaviour, aggression, hyperactivity, and self-injurous behaviour.

323
Q

What is an Intellectual Disability?

A

Involves a broad delay in the development of cognitive and social functioning.

324
Q

How is Intellectual Disability assessed?

A

By a combination of formal intelligence tests and observation of adaptive functioning.

325
Q

What are the 3 criteria for being diagnosed with an Intellectual Disability?

A
  1. An IQ score of 70 or below on an intelligence test. 2. Evidence of impaired functioning in adaptive behaviour. 3. Onset of the disorder before age 18.
326
Q

What is the prevalence rate of Intellectual Disability?

A

7.18 in 1000.

327
Q

List the 4 classifications of developmental delay from most to least prevalent in the population.

A

Mild, moderate, severe, profound.

328
Q

IQ scores drop by increments of __ when increasing in classifications of developmental delay, starting at 55 and ending at below 25.

A

15

329
Q

Describe the abilities of a person with a mild intellectual disability.

A

Can reach Grade 6 skill level, capable with training of living independently and being self-supporting.

330
Q

Describe the abilities of a person with moderate intellectual disability.

A

Can reach Grade 2 skill level. Can work and live in sheltered environments with supervision.

331
Q

Describe the abilities of a person with severe intellectual disability.

A

Can learn to talk and perform basic self-care but needs constant supervision.

332
Q

Describe the abilities of a person with profound intellectual disability.

A

Very limited ability to learn; may only be abe to learn very simple tasks; poor language skills and limited self-care.

333
Q

List the Intellectual Disabilities studied in class (there are 4).

A

Down Syndrome, Fragile X Syndrome, Phenylketonuria (PKU), and Tay-Sachs Disease.

334
Q

What is Down Syndrome?

A

A condition caused by a chromosomal abnormality involving an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

335
Q

What are physical features of Down Syndrome?

A

Round face, broad flat nose, small downwards sloping folds of skin at the inside cornersof the eyes (slanted eyes), protruding tongue, small hands with short fingers, curved fifth finger, disproportionately small arms and legs in relation to their bodies.

336
Q

Nearly all children with Down Syndrome have ___ ___ and may suffer from physical problems such as…

A

Intellectual Disability, heart and respiratory difficulties.

337
Q

Most people with Down Syndrome die…

A

When they are middle aged.

338
Q

Children with Down Syndrome have…

A

Learning and developmental difficulties, are uncoordinated due to lack of muscle tone, have difficulty following instructions and expresisng their thoughts and needs clearly.

339
Q

What is Fragile X Syndrome?

A

Believed to be caused by a mutated gene on the X chromosome. The defective gene is located in an area of the chromosome that appears fragile hence the name.

340
Q

What is the prevalence rate of Fragile X Syndrome oin men and women?

A

1 in every 1000-1500 for males and 1 in every 2000-2500 females.

341
Q

What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

A genetic disorder that prevents the metabolism of phenylpruvic acid, leading to intellectual disability.

342
Q

What is the prevelance rate of PKU?

A

1 in every 10 000 births.

343
Q

People with PKU are placed on a low ___ diet.

A

PKU.

344
Q

What is Tay Sachs Disease?

A

A disease of lipid metabolism that is genetically transmitted and usually results in death in early childhood.

345
Q

Tay Sachs Disease is a dominant/recessive gene on chromosome __ that effects mostly ___ and ___ ___.

A

Recessive, 15, Jews, French Canadians.

346
Q

Children with Tay Sachs Disease experience…

A

Gradual loss of muscle control, deafness and blindness, retardation, paralysis, and usually die before age 5.

347
Q

What are some prenatal factors that result in intellectual disability?

A

Cytomegalovirus, maternal drinking, and birth complications.

348
Q

What is cytomegalovirus?

A

A maternal disease of the herpes virus group that carries a risk of intellectual disability to the unborn child.

349
Q

What is maternal smoking or drinking associated with?

A

Smoking with low birth weight and ADHD. Drinking with FASD.

350
Q

What is a cultural-familial cause of intellectual disability?

A

Cultural-Familial Retardation.

351
Q

What is Cultural-Familial Retardation?

A

A milder form of intellectual disability that is believed to result, or at least be influenced by, impoverishment in the child’s home environment.

352
Q

How does inclusion or integration attempt to deal with intellectual disability?

A

-Least restrictive environment. -Accomodations (don’t change, just adapt) and modifications (change difficulty).

353
Q

What are some advantages of inclusion?

A

-Greater independence. -Expand awarenss of individual differences. -Acceptance from others. -Appreciate that all can learn from each other. -Better self-concept and circle of friends.

354
Q

What are some disadvantages of inclusion?

A

-Sometimes attitudes are negative. -Risk. -Possible low self-esteem in competitive model. -Possible increased workload for teachers.

355
Q

How do behavioural approaches attempt to deal with intellectual disability?

A

-Teach persons with more severe retardation basic hygenic behaviours such as tooth brushing, self-dressing, or hair combing. -Shape the desired behaviour using verbal instruction, physical guidance, and rewards. -Social skills training. -Anger management.

356
Q

What is a learning disorder?

A

A deficiency in a specific learning ability noteworthy because of the individual’s general intelligence and exposure to learning opportunities.

357
Q

People with learning disorders have ___ intellegence.

A

Average or above average.

358
Q

What is dyslexia?

A

A type of learning disorder characterized by impaired reading ability that may involve difficulty with the alphabet or spelling.

359
Q

The most common learning disability is ___ at 80%.

A

Dyslexia.

360
Q

What are the 4 types of learning disorder studied in class?

A
  1. Dyslexia. 2. Mathematics Disorder. 3. Disorders of Written Expression. 4. Reading Disorder.
361
Q

What is Mathematics Disorder?

A

Deficiencies in arithmetic skills, problem understanding basic mathematical terms or operations, decoding mathematical symbols, learning sequential facts.

362
Q

Mathematics Disorder may become apparent as early as Grade 1 (age 6) but is not generally recognized until about…

A

Grade 3 (age 8).

363
Q

What is Disorders of Written Expression?

A

Dysgraphia. Characterized by errors in spelling, grammar, or punctuation or by difficulty in composing sentences and paragraphs.

364
Q

Severe writing difficulties generally become apparent by age _, although milder cases may not be recognized until age __.

A

7, 10.

365
Q

What is Reading Disorder?

A

Dyslexia. Characterized by children who have poorly developed skills in recognizing letters and words and comprehending written text.

366
Q

Reading disorder is usually apparent by age _, but is sometimes recognized in _ year olds.

A

7, 6.

367
Q

What is the difference between the prevalence rates for learning disorders in males and females?

A

The rates are similar.

368
Q

The neurobiological perspective on learning disorders considers it a…

A

Sensory processing dysfunction.

369
Q

The genetic perspective on learning disorders point to…

A

-People whose parents have dyslexia are at a greater risk themselves. -Higher rates of concordance for dyslexia are found between MZ and DZ twins- 70 vs. 40%.

370
Q

Intervention for ___ ___ involves focus on a child’s information processing style and academic strengths while bolstering the child’s self-esteem and increasing motivation, developing close teacher-parent partnerships, and increasing effective self -advocacy skills.

A

Learning disorders.

371
Q

What is an Individual Education Plan?

A

A contractual document that contains learning and behavioural outcomes for a student, a description of how the outcomes will be achieved, and a description of how the outcomes will be evaluated.

372
Q

What is ADHD?

A

Behaviour disorder of childhood characterized by excessive motor activity and inabilit to focus one’s attention.

373
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of ADHD?

A
  1. Predominantly inattentive. 2. Predominantly hyperactive/impulsive. 3. Combination.
374
Q

What does ADHD stand for?

A

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder.

375
Q

What are the prevalence rates for ADHD?

A

Between 5 and 10% in children aged 6 to 14.

376
Q

Which gender and what age group was more likely to be identifed as having ADHD?

A

Male, 6-8 year olds had higher rates than 12-14 year olds.

377
Q

What are some features of ADHD?

A

-Tend to do poorly in school. -Fail to follow or remember instructions and complete assignments. -More likely to have a learning disability, repeatgrades, be placed in special education classes. -Greater risk of mood and anxiety disorders. -Problems getting along with family members. -Disruptive in classroom, tend to get in fights. -Unpopular with peers.

378
Q

What does the biological perspective say about ADHD?

A

Areas of the brain involved in regulating the processes of attention, inhibition of motor (movement) behaviour, and executive control are underdeveloped.

379
Q

What does the environmental perspective say about ADHD?

A

Children who have ADHD were found to be 2.5 times more likely than other children to have had prenatal exposure to environmental tobacco smoke.

380
Q

What is Ritalin?

A

A stimulant brand of drugs used to treat ADHD. Has a calming effect, increasing attention spans, and reduces impulsivity, overactivity, and disruptive, annoying, or aggressive behaviour.

381
Q

Ritalin helps in __% of cases.

A

75

382
Q

What are some side effects of Ritalin?

A

Loss of appetite or insomnia, agitation and hallucinations, retard a child’s growth, and in rare cases cause cardiac arrest, stroke, or sudden death.

383
Q

How does CBT propse to treat ADHD?

A

Combines behaviour modification, typically based on reinforcement and cognitive modifications.

384
Q

What are the two types of disruptive behaviour learned in class?

A

Conduct Disorder and Oppositional Defiant Disorder.

385
Q

What is Conduct Disorder?

A

Pattern of abnormal behaviour in childhood characterized by disruptive, antisocial behaviour.

386
Q

What is the prevalence rate for conduct disorder?

A

3.3%.

387
Q

Conduct Disorder is more common among ___ than ___, especially the childhood-onset type.

A

Boys, girls.

388
Q

What is the childhood-onset dype of conduct disorder?

A

Characteristic features appear before the age 10.

389
Q

What are the characteristic features of conduct behaviour for boys?

A

Stealing, fighting, vandalism, or disciplinary actions at school.

390
Q

What are the characteristic features of conduct behaviour for girls?

A

Lying, truancy, running away, substance abuse, prostitution.

391
Q

What is Oppositional Defiant Disorder?

A

Disorder in childhood or adolescence characterized by excessive oppositional or tendencies to refuse requests from parents and others.

392
Q

Oppositional Defiant Disorder is a precursor and milder form of ___ ___.

A

Conduct Disorder.

393
Q

Oppositional Defiant Disorder is more closely related to ___ behaviour compared to Conduct Disoder.

A

Nondelinquent.

394
Q

What are some features of Oppositional Defiant Disorder?

A

Negativistic, defiant of authority, tendency to argue with parents and teachers, refuse to follow requests from adults, may deliberately annoy people, become easily angered or lose their temper, become touchy or easily annoyed, blame others for their mistakes, feel resentful toward others, or act in a spiteful way towards others.

395
Q

Oppositional Defiant Disorder typically begins before the age of _ and develops gradually.

A

8

396
Q

___ ___ ___ is one of the most common diagnoses in children at 6-12%.

A

Oppositional Defiant Disorder.

397
Q

What does the Learning Theory look to to explain ODD?

A

Arises from parental use of inappropriate reinforcement strategies. May be linked to unassertive and ineffective parenting styles.

398
Q

What do families of Conduct Disorder children look like?

A

Characterized by negative, coercive interactions. Use negative behaviours such as threatening or yelling at child, or using physical means of coercion. Pushing, grabbing, spanking, hittinh, or kicking.

399
Q

How does CBT propose that disruptive behaviours should be treated?

A

-Programs or treatment settings with explicit rules and clear rewards for obeying them may offer greater promise. Use rewards and punishments. -Anger management. -Calming self-talk.

400
Q

What is Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Childhood condition characterized by extreme fears of separation from parents or others on whom the child is dependent.

401
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder usually follows…

A

A stressful life event.

402
Q

What are features of Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Tend to follow family members around, voice concerns about death and dying, insist on someone staying with them while they are trying to fall asleep, nightmares, stomach aches, nausea and vomiting when separation is anticipated, pleading with parents not to leave, or throwing tantrums when parents are about to depart.

403
Q

What is the prevalence rate of Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

4% of children and adolescence.

404
Q

How does the psychoanalytic perspective look at Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Anxiety symbolizes unconscious conflicts.

405
Q

How does the cognitive perspective look at Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Cognitive bias in processing information, such as interpreting ambiguous situations as threatening, expecting negative outcomes, thinkin poorly of themselves and their ability to cope, and engaging in negative self-talk.

406
Q

What are symptoms of depression in childhood and adolescence?

A

They show a greater sense of hopelessness, display more cognitive errors and negatve attributions, have lower perceived competence or self-efficacy, and have lower self-esteem than do their nondepressed peers.

407
Q

What is the prevalence rate for depression in childhood and adolescence?

A

2% of Canadian children.

408
Q

What is the gender difference for the prevalence rates for depression in childhood and adolescence?

A

There is no gender difference in childhood, but after 15 adolescent girls become twice as likely as boys to become depressed.

409
Q

What is the recurrance rate for depression later in life when they experience depression between the ages of 8-13?

A

75%.

410
Q

What are some correlates of depression in childhood?

A

-Internal, stable, and global attributional style. -Adolescent girls (because they face social challenges such as pressure to narrow their interests and pursue feminine activities and develop a more passive style).

411
Q

How does CBT deal with childhood depression?

A

Social skills training.

412
Q

What is an antidepressant for childhood depression?

A

Prozac.

413
Q

List the factors associated with suicide among children and adolescents.

A

-Gender. -Age. -Ethnicity. -Depression and helplessness. -Previous suicidal behaviour. -Family problems. -Stressful life events. -Substance abuse. -Social contagion.

414
Q

How is gender associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

Girls are more likely to attempt, boys are more likely to complete.

415
Q

How is age associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

Greatest risk between ages 15-24.

416
Q

How is ethnicity associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

Highest among First Nations youth.

417
Q

How is depression and helplessness associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

When combined with low self-esteem.

418
Q

How is previous suicidal behaviour associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

1 in 4 tend to repeat behaviour.

419
Q

How are family problems associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

Present in 75% of cases.

420
Q

How are stressful life events associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

Breakup, unwanted pregnancy, getting arrested, moving, etc.

421
Q

How is substance abuse associated with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

Addiction.

422
Q

How is social contagion with suicide among children and adolescents?

A

Widespread publicity.

423
Q

What is dementia?

A

A form of cognitive impairment involving generalized progressive deficits in a person’s memory and learning of new information, ability to communicate, judgement, and motor coordination.

424
Q

What are the two major losses with dementia?

A
  1. Memory loss. 2. Disturbance of executive function.
425
Q

What is the average duration of life after the individual contacts a doctor for memory problems?

A

3.3 years.

426
Q

What are some abnormalities characteristic of dementia?

A

Amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, reduction in neurotransmitters, and inflammation of the brain.

427
Q

What are some causes of dementia?

A

Huntington’s and Parkinson disease, head injury, oxygen deprivation, stroke, meningitis.

428
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Fatal neurogenerative disorder that accounts for the majority of dementia cases.

429
Q

For whar percent of dementia cases does Alzheimer’s disease account?

A

56%.

430
Q

People who have a ___ with Alzheimer’s disease appear to be at the greatest risk for getting the disease.

A

Mother.

431
Q

The diagnosis of Alzheimer’s is not given until after…

A

All other potential causes of dementia have been ruled out.

432
Q

How is dementia and Alzheimer’s disease treater?

A

Currently there is no cure. However, some medications slow down the decline of memory, language, and thinking abilities which inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine.

433
Q

What are psychotropic medications?

A

Medications that affect neurotransmitters.

434
Q

Which neurotransmitters do psychotropic meds normally affect?

A

GABA, norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin receptors.

435
Q

What are psychotropic medications most often used to treat?

A

Depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, anxiety, and sleep disruptions.

436
Q

What percentage of Canadians are unsure of whether they would socialize with a friend who had a mental illness?

A

42%

437
Q

What percentage of Canadians are unlikely to enter a marriage with someone who had a mental illness?

A

55%

438
Q

In any given year, what proportion of adult Canadians will experience a mental health or addiction problem?

A

1 in 5.

439
Q

What percentage of the general population has expressed the need for mental health intervention in the last 12 months?

A

10.1%

440
Q

Are side effects universal?

A

No, everyone experiences them differently.

441
Q

Most side effects are what?

A

Short lived and treated symptomatically.

442
Q

What are the 4 main classes of psychotropic medications?

A

Antidepressants, antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and anxiolytics.

443
Q

What are two types of anti-depressants?

A

SSRIs and SNRIs.

444
Q

What does SSRI stand for?

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

445
Q

What does SNRI stand for?

A

Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors.

446
Q

What are 5 examples of SSRIs?

A

Celexa, Cirpralex, Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil.

447
Q

What are 3 examples of SNRIs?

A

Effexor, Cymbalta, and Prestiq.

448
Q

What are SNRIs used for?

A

Often used for depression and anxiety. It treats the general malaise associated with depressive symptoms.

449
Q

What is one of the most common side effects of SSRIs and SNRIs?

A

Sexual side effects. Both erectile dysfunction and decreased libido.

450
Q

What are some side effects of SNRIs and SSRIs? (6)

A

Nausea, headache, increased BP, fatigue, sedation, and dizziness.

451
Q

What are atypical antidepressants?

A

Different mechanisms of action than SNRI/SSRIs; they work on dopamine receptors.

452
Q

Where are atypical antidepressants most commonly used?

A

Geriatric care.

453
Q

What are three examples of atypical antidepressants?

A

Wellbutrin, Remeron, and Trazodone.

454
Q

What is a therapeutic range?

A

The time it takes a drug to take full effect.

455
Q

What is the therapeutic range of most antidepressants?

A

4-6 weeks.

456
Q

What happens when the therapeutic range is reached?

A

Other side effects are minimal and manageable.

457
Q

What are the two classes of antipsychotics?

A

Typical (1st generation), and atypical (2nd generation).

458
Q

What are 4 examples of typical antipsychotics?

A

Haldol, Largactil, Nozinan, and Loxapine.

459
Q

What are 4 examples of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Abilify, Clozapine, Seroquel, Risperidone, and Zyprexa.

460
Q

What do most antipsychotics work to do?

A

They affect the brain’s ability to produce and absorb dopamine.

461
Q

What can too much typical antipsychotics cause?

A

Positive symptoms.

462
Q

What can too little typical antipsychotics cause?

A

Negative symptoms.

463
Q

What are “depot” antipsychotics?

A

Long acting drugs used to manage people with severe issues in a community section.

464
Q

How is a depot medication administered?

A

Injected deep into a muscle.

465
Q

How long does a depot injection normally last?

A

1-4 weeks.

466
Q

What advantage do atypical antipsychotics have over typical?

A

They work on both positive and negative symptoms, are easier to take, last longer, increase compliance, and have less side effects.

467
Q

What are the side effects of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Hunger (leads to weight gain), sedation, and increased risk of diabetes.

468
Q

What are mood stabilizers used for?

A

To treat bipolar or manic episodes.

469
Q

What is a popular mood stabilizer?

A

Lithium.

470
Q

How does lithium work?

A

Not fully understood, but it has been used effectively for over 70 years.

471
Q

What is the therapeutic range of lithium?

A

2-4 weeks.

472
Q

What are two main classes of anxiolytics?

A

Benzodiazepines and beta blockers.

473
Q

How do benzodiazepines work?

A

They quickly slow down the central nervous system.

474
Q

What are 4 examples of benzodiazepines? (and their drug names).

A

Ativan (lorazepam), Rivotril (dlonazepam), Valium (diazepam), Xanax (Alprazolam*).

475
Q

How do benzodiazepines affect people?

A

Slower breathing, lowered heart rate, “fight or flight” feeling lessened.

476
Q

What are beta blockers typically used for?

A

Cardiac and blood pressure management.

477
Q

How do beta blockers reduce anxiety?

A

By blocking the effects of norepinephrine.

478
Q

What are beta blockers useful for?

A

Short acting calming drugs for managing social phobias.

479
Q

What are the risks of benzodiazepines?

A

They are highly addictive, build tolerance quickly, and are dangerous when mixed with alcohol.

480
Q

What can result from abruptly stopping benzo use?

A

Seizures.

481
Q

What can result from abruptly stopping antidepressant use?

A

Nausea, headaches, vomiting, diarrhea, achiness.

482
Q

What are the three classes of drug used to treat ADHD?

A

Methylphenidates (stimulant), amphetamines (stimulant), and atomexetine (non-stimulant).

483
Q

What are two examples of methlphenidates?

A

Ritalin (short-acting) and Concerta (long-acting).

484
Q

What are two examples of amphetamines?

A

Dexedrine (short-acting) and Adderall (long-acting).

485
Q

What is an example of atomoxetines?

A

Strattera.

486
Q

Which drug has been approved for bulimia?

A

Prozac.

487
Q

What classes of drugs have been used to treat personality disorders?

A

Antidepressants, antipsychotics, and mood stabilizers.

488
Q

What are some geriatric/paediatric considerations?

A

Less is needed to be effective, side effects can hit harder and faster, and drugs can impair cognitive functioning so close monitoring is required.

489
Q

What is used to treat dementia?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

490
Q

Give 3 examples of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

A

Aricept (donepezil), Exelon (rivastigmine), and Reminyl (galatamine).

491
Q

What do acetylcholinesterase inhibitors do?

A

They increase the amount of acetylcholine in the brain.