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Alisha's MCAT Flashcards > Psych/Soc > Flashcards

Psych/Soc Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Franz Gall known for?

A

Phrenology: The shape and size of the brain is correlated with mental ability; disproven.

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2
Q

What is Pierre Flourens known for?

A

Identified that different areas of the brain have different functions through ablation/extirpation.

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3
Q

What is William James known for?

A

Founder of American psychology. Known for functionalism, which is the study of how different mental processes help individuals adapt to their environments.

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4
Q

What is John Dewey known for?

A

Like William James, he’s known for functionalism. However, he focused on the study of the organism as a whole as it functioned to adapt to its environment.

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5
Q

What is Paul Broca known for?

A

Identified Broca’s Area (speech prod.) through studying the effects of brain damage.

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6
Q

Hermann Von Helmholtz

A

Measured nerve impulse speed.

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7
Q

Sir Charles Sherrington

A

Discovered synapses. However, through they were electrical, not chemical.

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8
Q

What is the parasympathetic response?

A

Rest-and-digest

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9
Q

What is the sympathetic response?

A

Fight-or-flight

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10
Q

What is the function of the hindbrain?

A

The hindbrain functions in refined motor movements, vital functioning, and arousal + alertness.

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11
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

The midbrain functions in sensorimotor reflexes (superior and inferior colliculi)

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12
Q

What is the function of the forebrain?

A

The forebrain function in perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processing; emotion and memory

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13
Q

What are some brain mapping methods?

A

EEG, rCBF, CT, PET, MRI, fMRI

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14
Q

What structures surround and protect the brain?

A

The brain is protected by meninges (pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater), bone, periosteum, and skin

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15
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Smooth movement

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16
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum

A

Coordinated movement

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17
Q

What is the function of the cerebral cortex?

A

Complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes

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18
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Hunger & thirst; emotion

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19
Q

What is the function of the inferior and superior Colliculi?

A

Sensorimotor reflexes

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20
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

Emotion & memory

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21
Q

What is the function of the medulla oblongata?

A

Vital function (breathing, digestion)

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22
Q

What is the function of the reticular formation?

A

Arousal & alertness

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23
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Sensory relay station

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24
Q

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A

The frontal lobe functions in impulse control, motor function, speech prod., long-term planning

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25
Q

What is another function of the parietal lobe aside from somatosensory processing?

A

Spatial processing, orientation, and manipulation

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26
Q

What is another function of the temporal lobe aside from auditory processing?

A

Speech perception (Wernicke’s area), memory and emotion (limbic system)

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27
Q

What is ipsilateral communication?

A

Same body side communication with hemisphere

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28
Q

How is the dominant hemisphere defined?

A

The dominant hemisphere is the one the is more heavily stimulated during language reception and production

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29
Q

What is the function of dopamine?

A

Smooth movements and steady processing

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30
Q

What is the function of GABA/Glycine

A

Brain “stabilizer”

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31
Q

What is the function of glutamate?

A

Brain excitation

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32
Q

Which endocrine organs influence behaviour?

A
  1. Hypothalamus: releases pituitary hormones, which triggers the release of other hormones
  2. Adrenal Medulla: produces epinephrine which causes a sympathetic response
  3. Adrenal Cortex: Produces cortisol which causes a stress response
  4. Adrenal Cortex + Testes: Produces testosterone which is associated with aggression and libido
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33
Q

What are the sample and control groups in a twin study?

A

The sample group is monozygotic twins, while the control group is dizygotic twins.

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34
Q

What are the sample and control groups in an adoption study?

A

The sample group is the adotive family, and the control group is the biological family.

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35
Q

Describe the process of neuralation.

A
  1. Ectoderm overlying the notochord begins to furrow forming a neural groove surrounded by two neural folds
  2. Cells at the edge of the neural fold are called neural crest cells, these cells migrate and differentiate
  3. The furrow then closes to form the neural tube, which ultimately forms the CNS
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36
Q

What is the rooting reflex in infants?

A

Cheek turns when touched.

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37
Q

What is the moro reflex?

A

Arms flair when baby’s head moves suddenly.

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38
Q

What is the babinski reflex?

A

Toes fan outwards when sole of foot is brushed.

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39
Q

What is the grasping reflex?

A

Holding onto any object placed in hand

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40
Q

What are the two main themes in early motor development?

A
  1. Gross motor development proceeds from head to toe
  2. Fine motor development proceeds from core to periphery
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41
Q

Describe the pathway for stimuli to reach conscious perception.

A

Sensory receptor → afferent neuron → efferent neuron → sensory ganglion → spinal cord → brain (projection areas)

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42
Q

What is the function of hair cells?

A

Sense motion of fluid in inner ear

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43
Q

What is the function of noicereceptors?

A

Sense painful or bothersome physical stimuli

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44
Q

What is the function of olfactory receptors?

A

Sense volatile chemicals

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45
Q

What is the function of osmoreceptors?

A

Sense changes in blood concentration

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46
Q

What is the function of photoreceptors?

A

Sense electromagnetic radiation in the visible range

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47
Q

What is the function of taste receptors?

A

Sense dissolved receptors

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48
Q

What is the function of thermoceptors?

A

Sense changes in temperature

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49
Q

What is absolute threshold?

A

Minimum amount of stimuli needed to be detected by sensory receptors

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50
Q

What is the difference threshold?

A

The minimum difference b/n stimuli to detect difference b/n them

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51
Q

What is Weber’s Law?

A

Just noticible differences are best expressed as a ratio, which is constant over the range of most sensory stimuli

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52
Q

What is signal detection theory?

A

Concerns the threshold to sense a stimulus given obscuring internal/external stimuli

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53
Q

What is the function of a cornea?

A

The cornea gathers and focuses incoming light

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54
Q

What is the function of the pupil?

A

The pupil allows the passage of light from anterior to posterior chamber

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55
Q

What is the function of the iris?

A

The iris controls the size of the pupli w/ 2 muscles (dilator pupillae & constrictor pupillae)

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56
Q

What is the function of the ciliary body?

A

The ciliary body produces the aqueous humor (bathes the front part of the eye) & contains ciliary muscle which is responsible for accomodation

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57
Q

What is the function of the canal of Schlemm?

A

The canal of Schlemm drains the aqueous humor

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58
Q

What is the function of the lens?

A

The lens lies right behind the iris & controls the refraction of incoming light

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59
Q

What is the function of the retina?

A

The retina detects images

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60
Q

What is the function of the sclera?

A

The sclera is the white of the eye, and it provides structural support

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61
Q

List the structures in the visual pathway.

A

Cornea → pupil → lens → vitreous → retina (rods → cones → bipolar cells → ganglion cells) → optic nerve → optic chiasm → optic tract → lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of thalamus → radiations through parietal & temporal lobes → visual cortex (occipital lobe)

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62
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

Parallel processing is the simultaneous analysis of color, shape, and motion of an object → calls on memory systems to compare visual stimuli to past experiences in order to help determine an object’s identity

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63
Q

What cells are responsible for detecting shape?

A

Parvocellular cells

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64
Q

What cells are responsible for detecting motion?

A

Magnocellular cells

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65
Q

What is the function of bipolar cells?

A

Bipolar cells highlight the gradient b/n adjacent rods/cones

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66
Q

What is the function of ganglion cells?

A

Ganglion cells group together to form the optic nerve

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67
Q

What structures are used to detect linear acceleration? rotational acceleration?

A

The vestibule (utricle and saccule) are used to detect linear accleration, and the semicircular canals are used to detect rotational acceleration

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68
Q

List the structures in the auditory pathway.

A

pinna/auricle → external auditory canal → tympanic membrane → malleus → incus → stapes → oval window → perilymph in cochlea → basilar membrane → hair cells → vestibulocochlear nerve → brainstem → medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of thalamus → auditory cortex (temporal lobe)

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69
Q

How does the organization of the cochlea indicate the pitch of an incoming sound?

A

The basilar membrane is tonotopically organized → high-pitched sounds cause vibrations at the base of the cochlea and lower-pitched sounds cause vibrations at the apex of the cochlea

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70
Q

List the stuctures in the olfactory pathway.

A

nostrils → nasal cavity → olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) or olfactory epithelium → olfactory bulb → olfactory tract → higher-order brain regions, including the limbic system

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71
Q

What are the four main modalities of somatosensation?

A
  1. Pressure
  2. Vibration
  3. Pain
  4. Temperature
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72
Q

What is bottom-up processing?

A

parts → whole

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73
Q

What is top-down processing?

A

whole → part

74
Q

What are the six gestalt principles?

A
  1. Proximity → components close together are percieved as a unit
  2. Similarity → Similar components (color, shape, size) tend to be grouped together
  3. Good continuation → components that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together
  4. Subjective contours → edges or shapes that are not actually present can be implied
  5. Closure → A space enclosed by a contour tends to be percieved as a complete figure
  6. Prägnanz → Perceptual organizations will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible
75
Q

What is the difference between reinforcement and punishment?

A

Reinforment increases the likelihood of a behavior, while punishment decreases it.

76
Q

What are the three types of encoding, and which is the strongest?

A

The three types of encoding are visual, auditory, and semantic encoding. Semantic encoding is the strongest.

77
Q

What is explicit (declarative) memory?

A

Explicit memory is the storage of facts and stories.

78
Q

What is implicit (nondeclarative) memory?

A

Implicit memory stores skills and conditioning effects.

79
Q

What is the difference between retrograde and anterograde amnesia?

A

Retrograde amnesia is the loss of previously formed memories, and anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories.

80
Q

What is agnosia?

A

Agnosia is the inability to recognize objects, people, or sounds (usually one of the three).

81
Q

What is the difference between proactive and retroactive interference?

A

Proactive interference is when previously learned information interferes with learning new information, while retroactive interference, is when new information causes the forgetting of old information.

82
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A

Synaptic pruning is the ability of our brains, as we age, to break weak neural connections while bolstering strong ones.

83
Q

What is long-term potentiation?

A

Long-term potentiation is the effect of repeating stimuli causing neurons to become more effective at releasing neurotransmitters, increasing receptor density. It is believed to be the neurophysiological basis for long-term memory.

84
Q

What are the three steps in the information processing model?

A
  1. Encoding
  2. Storage
  3. Retrieval
85
Q

What is the difference between delirium and dementia?

A

Delerium is a rapid fluctuation in cognitive function that is reversible and caused by medical causes, while dementia often begins with impaired memory, but later progresses to imparied judgement and confusion.

86
Q

What are Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development?

A
  1. Sensorimotor → Focuses on manipulating environment for physical needs; circular reactions, and ends w/ object permanance
  2. Preoperational → Symbolic thinking, egocentrism, and centration
  3. Concrete Operational → Understands conservation and the feelings of others; can manipulate concrete objects logically
  4. Formal Operational → Can think abstractly and problem solve
87
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

Functional fixedness is the inability to consider how to use an object in a nontraditional manner.

88
Q

What is the difference between fluid and crystallized intelligence?

A

Fluid-intelligence consists of problem-solving skills, while crystallized intelligence is more related to the use of learned skills and knowledge.

89
Q

What is an algorithm in problem solving?

A

An algorithm is a formula or a procedure for solving a certain type of problem.

90
Q

What is the difference between deductive and inductive reasoning?

A

Deductive reasoning is top-down, while inductive reasoning bottom-up.

91
Q

What is the difference between the availability and representative heuristic?

A

The availability heuristic is making decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined, while the representative heuristic is estimating the likelihood of an event by comparing it to an existing prototype.

92
Q

What is the difference between confirmation bias and belief perseverance?

A

Confirmation bias is the tendency to focus on information that support’s an individuals beliefs, while belief perseverance refers to the inability to reject a belief despite clear evidence to the contrary.

93
Q

What the five stages of sleep, and what are their characteristics?

A
  1. Awake → Alpha (focused) & beta (eyes closed) waves → able to percieve, process, access information, and express that information verbally
  2. Stage 1 → Theta → light sleep and dozing
  3. Stage 2 → Theta → sleep spindles and K complexes
  4. Stage 3 → Delta → slow-wave sleep; dreams; declarative memory consolidation; sleep-wake disorders occur in this stage
  5. Stage 4 → Delta → slow-wave sleep; dreams; declarative memory consolidation; sleep-wake disorders occur in this stage
  6. REM → mostly beta → appears awake physiologically; dreams; procedural memory consolidation; body is paralyzed
94
Q

What are the two hormones that maintain circadian-rhythms?

A

Melatonin which is released from the pineal gland, in response to decreasing light. Cotisol (which is produced in the adrenal cortex) levels increase through tropic hormone CRF release from the hypothalamus which causes the release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary in response to increased light.

95
Q
A
96
Q

What are the difference between dyssomnias and parasomnias?

A

Dyssomnias refer to disorders that make it difficult to stay asleep (insomnia), staying asleep (sleep apnea), or avoiding sleep (narcolepsy). Parasomnias are abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep, which include night terrors or sleepwalking.

97
Q

Which four drug classes increase GABA activity in the brain (GABA is a neurotransmitter that inhibits/slows brain functions)?

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. Barbiturates
  3. Benzodiazepines
  4. Marijuana
98
Q

Which 3 drug classes increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin activity in the brain?

A
  1. Amphetamines
  2. Cocaine
  3. Ecstasy
99
Q

What are the three main stuctures in the mesolimbic reward pathway?

A
  1. Nucleus Accumbens (NAc)
  2. Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA)
  3. Medial Forebrain Bundle (MFB) → connection between them
100
Q

What is the difference between controlled and automatic processing?

A

Controlled (effortful) processing is when new/complex tasks require undivided attention. Automatic processing is when familiar or routine tasks permit brain to focus on other actions.

101
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Selective attention allows us to focus on one set of stimuli while scanning other stimuli in the background for important information.

102
Q

For the age range from 9 to 12 months, what are some key characteristics?

A

Babbling

103
Q

For the age range from 12 to 18 months, what are some key characteristics?

A

Increase of about one word per month.

104
Q

For the age range from 18 to 20 months, what are some key characteristics?

A

“explosion of language” and combining words (two-word sentences)

105
Q

For the age range from 2 to 3 months, what are some key characteristics?

A

Longer sentences of three or more words.

106
Q

For the age range from 5 years, what are some key characteristics?

A

Language rules largely mastered.

107
Q

For the nativist (language) theory what is the primary motivator/trigger?

A

Innate ability to pick up language via the language aquisition device.

108
Q

For the learning (behaviorist) theory what is the primary motivator/trigger?

A

Operant conditioning w/ reinforcement by parents and caregivers.

109
Q

For the social interactionist theory what is the primary motivator/trigger?

A

The desire to communicate and act socially.

110
Q

What is Broca’s aphasia?

A

Damage occurs to Broca’s area, speech comprehension is intact but the patient will have reduced/absent ability to produce spoken language.

111
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

Fluent, but includes nonsensical sounds and words devoid of meaning → language comprehension is lost

112
Q

What is conduction aphasia?

A

Marked by difficulty repeating speech, w/ intact speech production and comprehension.

113
Q

What is the difference between extrinsic and intrinsic motivation?

A

Extrinsic motivation is a result of external forces coming from outside oneself, while intrinsic motivation comes from within oneself.

114
Q

What are instincts?

A

Instincts are innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimulus.

115
Q

What is the instinct theory of motivation?

A

This theory postulates that people are driven to do certain behaviors based on evolutionarily programmed instincts.

116
Q

What is arousal theory?

A

Arousal is a psychological and physiological states of being awake and reactive to stimuli. This theory postulates that people perform actions in order to maintain an optimal level of arousal. (Yerkes-Dodson Law → U-shaped function between level of arousal and function).

117
Q

What is the drive reduction theory of motivation?

A

Drives help humans by creating an uncomfortable state, ensuring motivation to eliminate this states or relieve internal tension created by unmet needs.

118
Q

What are primary drives?

A

Primary drives are the need for food, water, and warmth, and they motivate us to sustain bodily processes in homeostasis (which is usually controlled through negative feedback loops).

119
Q

What are secondary drives?

A

Secondary drives are not related to biological processes. They are thought to stem from learning, and they include certain emotions, such as the desire for nurturing, love, achievement, and agression.

120
Q

What are the five levels in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A
  1. Physiological
  2. Safety
  3. Love/Belonging
  4. Esteem
  5. Self-actualization
121
Q

What type of theory is self-determination theory (SDT)?

A

SDT is a need-based theory that emphasizes the role of three needs.

  1. Autonomy: the need to be in control of one’s actions and ideas
  2. Competence: the need to complete and excel at difficult tasks
  3. Relatedness: the need to feel accepted and wanted in relationships
122
Q

What is the incentive theory?

A

Incentive theory explains that behavior is motivated by the desire to pursue rewards and to avoid punishments.

123
Q

What is expectancy-value theory?

A

Expectancy-value theory states that the amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individual’s expectations of success in reaching the goal and the degree to which he or she values reaching the goal.

124
Q

What is opponent-process theory in relation to drug use?

A

Opponent-process theory explains that when a drug is taken repeatedly, the body will attempt to counteract the effects of the drug by changing its physiology. This reaction will last longer than the drug, resulting in withdrawal symptoms. This theory can also explain tolerance.

125
Q

How are humans motivated to sexual behavior?

A

Humans are motivated to sexual behavior based on the secretion of estrogens, progesterone, and androgens. Smell also contributes. Also pleasure, and the interpretation of sexual behavior is a key player in sexual motivation, and is highly influenced by culture.

126
Q

What is emotion?

A

Emotion is an instinctive state of mind derived from one’s circumstances, mood, or relationships with others.

127
Q

What are the three elements of emotion?

A
  1. Physiological response: When a feeling is first experienced, arousal is stimulated by the autonomic nervous system.
  2. Behavioral response: Includes facial expressions and body language
  3. Cognitive response: The cognitive component of emotion is the subjective interpretation of feeling being experienced.
128
Q

What are universal emotions?

A

Based on Darwin: explained that all humans evolved the same set of facial muscles to show the same expressions when communicating emotion, regardless of their society or culture. While emotions can be experienced universally, it is argued that they can be affected greatly by culture.

129
Q

What is the James-Lange Theory of Emotion?

A

In this theory, the stimulus results first in physiological arousal, which then leads to labeling the emotion. Some shortcomings with this theory are that patients that cannot mount a sympathetic response (spinal cord injury patients) should show decreased levels of emotion, which is not true.

130
Q

What is the Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion?

A

In this theory, physiological arousal and feeling an emotion occur at the same time. The shortcomings with this theory are that it doesn’t account for the vagus nerve (a cranial nerve that functions as a feedback system, conveying information from the peripheral organs back to the CNS).

131
Q

What is the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion?

A

In this theory, both arousal and the labeling of arousal based on the environment must occur for an emotion to be experienced.

132
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A

The amygdala signals the cortex about stimuli related to attention and emotions.

133
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

The thalamus functions as a sensory processing station and routes information to other areas of the brain.

134
Q
A
135
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A

The hippocampus functions primarily in creating long-term memories.

136
Q

What is the function of the

A
137
Q

What is the function of the prefrontal cortex?

A
138
Q

What is the specific functions of the dorsal prefrontal cortex?

A
139
Q

What is the specific function of the ventral prefrontal cortex?

A
140
Q

What is the specific function of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex?

A
141
Q

What is cognitive appraisal of stress?

A

Cognitive appraisal is the subjective evaluation of a situation that induces stress. This process consists of two stages:

142
Q

What is the difference between distress and eustress?

A
143
Q

What factors play a role in stress (4)?

A
144
Q

What is the physiological response to stress in terms of the general adaptation syndrome (3 stages)?

A
  1. Alarm: Initial reaction to a stressor and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system
  2. Resistance: Continuous release of hormones allows the sympathetic nervous system to remain engaged to fight the stressor
  3. Exhaustion: Body can no longer maintain an elevated response w/ sympathetic nervous system activity → individuals become more susceptible to illnesses and medical conditions
145
Q

What is an in-group?

A

An in-group is a group to which an individual identifies and belongs.

146
Q

What is an out-group?

A

An outgroup is a group to which an individual does not identify or belong.

147
Q

What is a reference group?

A

A reference group is a comparison group to which an individual compares self.

148
Q

What is a primary group?

A

A primary group is a group of individuals that are emotionally close.

149
Q

What is a secondary group?

A

A secondary group is a group of people who come together to accomplish something.

150
Q

What is socialization?

A

Socialization is the process of learning the norms and values of a society or culture.

151
Q

What is cultural diffusion?

A

Cultural diffusion is the spread of beliefs and behaviors from one cultural group to another (between out-groups).

152
Q

What is cultural transmission?

A

Cultural transmission is the passing of knowledge and values to the next generation (occurs within in-groups through education and socialization).

153
Q

What are social norms?

A

Social norms are unwritten rules for behavior that people in society are expected to follow (disobeying social norms is informally punished ie. getting stared at). They maintain order in society by ensuring that behavior is predictable.

154
Q

What is social stigma?

A

Social stigma is the association of shame with a particular trait, caused by extreme social disapproval.

155
Q

What are social sanctions?

A

Social sanctions are penalties (ie. fines or jail time) for breaking rules or laws.

156
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

Confirmation bias is a type of cognitive bias in which individuals tend to embrace evidence supporting their beliefs, dismiss or ignore evidence refuting their beliefs, and interpret ambiguous evidence as support.

(ie. obese people not realizing that they are obese because they tend to focus on their family and peers’ weights as evidence and ignore everything else.)

157
Q

What is self-serving bias?

A
158
Q

What is self-serving bias?

A

Self-serving bias occurs when success is credited to internal factors but failure is blamed on external factors.

159
Q

What is actor-observer bias?

A

Actor-observer bias is when an individual is more likely to blame his/her bad behavior on external circumstances.

160
Q

What is hindsight bias?

A

Hindsight bias is when an event is percieved as being likely or predictable after it has occured, even if it was not likely to have happened.

161
Q

What is deviance, and what are the three major theories?

A

Deviance is defined as behavior that violates social norms. The three theories are:

  1. Strain theory: individuals experience tension (strain) when there is a disconnect between goals and the available means for achieving those goals
  2. Differential association theory: suggests that deviance is learned through interacting with others engaging in deviance
  3. Labeling theory: suggests that when individuals are labeled as deviant, they will confirm that label by acting deviant
162
Q

What is the Hawthorne effect?

A

The Hawthorne effect is when research subjects behave differently as a results of knowing that they are being observed.

163
Q

What is epidemiology, and specifically social epidemiology?

A

Epidemiology is the study of disease incidence (new cases) and prevalance (how many cases), and social epidemiology is a subfield focusing on the social factors that influence the health of an individual or population.

164
Q

What is relative deprivation?

A

Relative deprivation is discontent caused by people feelig entitled to something they are being deprived of.

165
Q

What are push and pull factors?

A

Push and pull factors explain human migration factors. Push factors describe why people move away from a country, and pull factors describe why people move to a country.

166
Q

What are mores?

A

Mores are serious norms with moral significance.

167
Q

Is deviant behavior considered culturally universal?

A

No, deviant behavior is not considered culturally universal because some cultural aspects that are seen as deviant in one culture may be accepted in another (ie. polygamy).

168
Q

What is cultural capital?

A

Cultural capital describes all of the nonfinancial and nonsocial network assets that confer advantage in society.

169
Q

What is economic capital?

A

Economic capital describes an individuals tangible financial assets, such as property and money/income.

170
Q

What is social capital?

A

Social capital includes an individual’s social networks.

171
Q

What is human capital?

A

Human capital describes the collective skill and experience possessed by individuals who are part of an organization.

172
Q

What is ascribed status?

A

Ascribed status is an involuntary social position assigned by society that is typically based on a social construct such as age, gender, race/ethnicity.

173
Q

What is an achieved status?

A

An achieved status is one that is earned through merit

174
Q

What is the symbolic interactionism theory of sociology?

A

The symbolic interactionism theory is a microsociological theory that focuses on the small-scale, person-to-person interactions that shape society. Through social interactions, people develop subjective meanings for things, which are more important than objective facts.

175
Q

What is the conflict theory of sociology?

A

The conflict theory of sociology is a macrosociological perspective that examines how the large-scale competition for limited resources shapes a society.

176
Q

What is the structural functionalist theory of sociology?

A

The structural functionalist theory of sociology is a macrosociological perspective that analyzes how social structures work together in society to maintain equilibrium (social stratification is necessary for a functioning society).

177
Q

What is the social exchange theory of sociology?

A

The social exchange theory is a microsociological perspective that asserts that individuals interact with eachother to maximize personal gain, and minimize personal cost.

178
Q

What is the looking-glass self?

A

The looking-glass self theory suggests that one’s self-concept is derived from social interactions with others.

179
Q

What is stereotype threat and stereotype boost?

A

Stereotype threat occurs when a negative stereotype exists about a social group and a member of that social group is made aware of that stereotype before engaging in an activity, which causes performace to suffer. Stereotype boost is the opposite of this.

180
Q

What is the social facilitation effect?

A

The social facilitation effect occurs when the presense of others causes performance to improve. The improvement only occurs with simple or well-rehearsed tasks.

181
Q

What is the halo effect?

A

The halo effect is an attributional error that occurs when a physically attractive individual is also assumed to have other positive qualities.

Alisha's MCAT Flashcards (4 decks)

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