Psych/Soc Flashcards
1
Q
What is Instinctive Behavior?
A
Instinctive behaviors are genetically encoded and require no learning. An animal will perform instinctive behavior automatically in response to specific environmental stimuli. They are typically a fixed action pattern (FAP) that occurs as a result of a specific stimulus.
2
Q
What are the characterstics of Adolesence (3)?
A
Adolescence is a broad term that refers to a variety of physical, cognitive, behavioral, and social changes that occur between childhood and adulthood.
In America, adolescence is viewed as a time of rebellion, freedom-seeking, and identity formation. However, cultures across the world differ in how they define and understand adolescence.
Adolescence is a developmental period that occurs after childhood but before adulthood.
It is NOT a fixed period of time (i.e., 12-18).
3
Q
What is the Patellar Tendon reflex and who exhibits it?
A
The patellar reflex is an adult reflex. It occurs when the leg automatically jerks upward in response to a tap on the tendon under the kneecap.
4
Q
What are the study designs (2) are appropriate for Sociological Study of human behavior?
A
Retrospective study and Cross-sectional study
Retrospective study allow retroactive study of large populations.
Cross-sectional studies use data obtained at a single time point to identify special features of the population under study.
5
Q
What are the psychological constructs (3) used to describe human behavior?
A
Memory, Cognition and Personality
Memory - Psychological descriptions of human behavior include constructs that refer to underlying mental states and abilities.
Cognition - is a term for human thought processes that may behavior, including knowledge acquisition, reasoning, decision-making, and so on.
Personality - is a construct that psychologists use to describe relatively enduring tendencies that guide a person’s behavior in various settings.
6
Q
What is an Adaptive Trait?
A
A genetic trait that helps an organism to maximize its reproductive success.
For example, in hummingbirds, a long bill can be an adaptive trait since it is both heritable and adaptive.
7
Q
What is Directional Selection?
A
Directional selection is a mechanism of natural selection and does not happen by chance. Evolutionary Bottleneck definition is by chance.
8
Q
What is the difference between Directional Selection and Evolutionary/Population/Genetic Bottleneck?
A
Evolutionary Bottleneck definition is by chance.
9
Q
What is Evolutionary Bottleneck?
A
Evolutionary bottleneck is an extreme form of genetic drift in which a natural disaster reduces population size, changing the frequency of alleles present in the survivors.
10
Q
What is Molecular Clock analysis?
A
The molecular clock is a figurative term for a technique that uses the mutation rate of biomolecules to deduce the time in prehistory when two or more life forms diverged. The biomolecular data used for such calculations are usually nucleotide sequences for DNA, RNA, or amino acid sequences for proteins.
Molecular clock analysis is not used to estimate mutation rates. It assumes that genes mutate at a relatively constant rate, and that mutation rate is used to probe aspects of a genome’s evolution.
11
Q
Where are the major language centers of the brain localized?
A
The major centers of the brain involved in language processing and production are localized to the left hemisphere of the brain. Broca’s in left frontal lobe. Wernicke’s in left temporal lobe.
12
Q
What is the Amygdala involved in the processing of?
A
The amygdala is the structure handling the processing of the emotions, memories, and motivation and can be found in the brain’s temporal lobe.
The amygdala is a collection of cells near the base of the brain. There are two, one in each hemisphere or side of the brain. This is where emotions are given meaning, remembered, and attached to associations and responses to them (emotional memories).
13
Q
What functions are the Cerebellum involved with?
A
The cerebellum is primarily involved in the smoothing and fine-tuning of motor movements and posture.
14
Q
What functions is the Superior Colliculus involved in?
A
The superior colliculus is a paired structure consisting of two superior colluculi involved in the processing of visual information and production of visual reflexes.
15
Q
What hormones are produced by the Anterior Pituitary?
A
ACTH is produced by anterior pituitary. FLAT PEG.
16
Q
How does Thyroxine affect metabolism?
A
Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid to regulate metabolism. Excess thyroxine would speed up metabolism which would likely lead to increased hunger.
17
Q
Where are the adrenal medulla and cortex located?
A
The adrenal medulla and cortex are situated atop the kidney, not the pancreas.
18
Q
How is the -70mV resting membrane potential distributed charge-wise?
A
Know SAME DAVE mneumonic. Know that outside of neurons has positive charges and inside has negative charges. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is -70 mV, meaning that the outside carries more positive charge.
19
Q
What is the difference between agonist and antagonist receptor interaction?
A
An agonist is a compound which will activate a receptor subtype despite not necessarily traditionally being associated as a receptor for that ligand, and induce receptor activity. An antagonist is a compound which will bind to a receptor but not produce any receptor activity. Therefore, an antagonist effectively inhibits a receptor.
20
Q
Are the SNS and PNS simultaneously active on a target organ?
A
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems both have a “tone” at any given time- that is, they both have a certain non-zero amount to which they are acting on target organs. Neither is ever fully inactive. For example, during a period of rest perhaps the PNS is exerting a much stronger effect than the SNS. The SNS uses epinephrine and norepinephrine, whereas the PNS uses primarily acetylcholine.
21
Q
What is the function of the prefrontal cortex and is it a part of the limbic system?
A
The role of the prefrontal cortex includes motivational and impulse-control processes that help us respond to limbic system changes, but it is not part of the limbic system.
22
Q
Which hemisphere of the brain is largely more involved in language processing and analytical tasks?
A
The lobes and many structures of the brain are largely divisible into a “left and right” hemisphere. The left side of the frontal lobe of the brain, for example, contains Broca’s area. Therefore, it is appropriate to say that the left side of the brain is more involved in language processing than the right side. This holds true for several other properties – the left side, in general, is involved more heavily in analytical tasks than the right side.
23
Q
What types of protection (3) does the spine and brain have?
A
The spine is protected from harm by fluid (cerebrospinal fluid), membranous meninges, and strong bones (vertebrae).
24
Q
What does an fMRI show (2)?
A
fMRI is used to image both structure and function, by relying on the differences between oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin.
25
What impact does CRH have?
Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) regulates release of cortisol. Excess of cortisol signify an increase in sympathetic tone.
26
What is a Quantitative Observational study?
A study in which researchers ask interns to discuss a technical topic as a group, and the coherence of each intern's comments is rated on a numerical scale.
This is an example of a quantitative observational study, as verbal behavior is being assessed using numerical measures, but there is no independent variable manipulation.
27
Compare traits of a Qualitative vs Quantitative study?
Qualitative research is the process of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting non-numerical data, such as language. Qualitative research can be used to understand how an individual subjectively perceives and gives meaning to their social reality.
Qualitative data is defined as non-numerical data, such as text, video, photographs or audio recordings. This type of data can be collected using diary accounts or in-depth interviews, and analyzed using grounded theory or thematic analysis.
28
What is the difference between a Positive and Negative Control?
A negative control is a control group in an experiment that uses a treatment that isn't expected to produce results. A positive control is a control group in an experiment that uses a treatment that is known to produce results.
A placebo drug is an example of a negative control, not a positive control.
29
What is a Moderating Variable?
A moderating variable, also called a moderator variable or simply M, changes the strength or direction of an effect between two variables x and y. In other words, it affects the relationship between the independent variable or predictor variable and a dependent variable or criterion variable.
30
What is a Confounding Variable?
A confounding variable, also called a confounder or confounding factor, is a third variable in a study examining a potential cause-and-effect relationship.
31
What is a Moderating Variable?
A moderating variable, also called a moderator variable or simply M, changes the strength or direction of an effect between two variables x and y. In other words, it affects the relationship between the independent variable or predictor variable and a dependent variable or criterion variable.
32
For the purposes of the MCAT, what is the best way to study heritability?
Studying identical twins raised apart provides insight into heritability, or the degree to which a certain disease is attributable to genetics rather than the environment. Because identical twins are virtually identical, genetically speaking, any variations between them should be primarily due to environmental factors. At the same time, similarities between them in characteristics such as incidence of specific diseases may be attributable to shared genes, since their environments differ. Heritability studies examine concordance rates, or the extent to which individuals with shared genes develop the same characteristics. In a heritability study, concordance rates for identical twins would be compared to those for less genetically-related siblings. When concordance rates are higher for identical twins than for other kinds of siblings, regardless of whether raised together or apart, the study provides strong evidence concerning heritability.
33
Did Max Weber contribute to the concept of "ideal bureacracy"?
Weber did define the characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy, the term “ideal” in this instance just means that these characteristics fit the definition of bureaucracy as closely as possible. An ideal bureaucracy is not necessarily the most desirable organizational system. In fact, Weber was aware that bureaucracies could be stifling and coined the phrase “iron cage of bureaucracy” to describe the stagnation that can occur in a bureaucratic system.
34
What is Normative Influence?
Normative influence occurs when one feels the urge to adopt the beliefs or behavior of the majority of a group in order to ‘fit in’ or feel accepted.
35
What is Groupthink?
Groupthink describes how interpersonal dynamics cause members of a group to behave or think irrationally and become intolerant of dissent.
36
What is Informational Influence?
Informational influence refers to new information or arguments provided in a group discussion that change a group member's attitudes, beliefs, or behavior.
37
What is a Mind Guard? (Factor of Groupthink)
A mindguard is a member of the group who, in an attempt to preserve the central group idea, omits any information which may cause doubts to arise within the group.
38
What are the factors (8) of Groupthink?
Eight factors identified here can increase the susceptibility of a group to groupthink: mind guards, illusions of unanimity, illusions of morality, collective rationalization, illusions of vulnerability, self-censorship among dissenters, group pressure on dissenters, and excessive stereotyping of outgroup members.
39
What is Self-censorship? (Factor of Groupthink)
Dissenting group members elect not to share their opinions.
40
What is Pressure on Dissenters? (Factor of Groupthink)
Group members who hold majority views push back against minority members who express dissenting opinions.
41
What is Conformity?
Conformity describes how an individual’s actions or beliefs change in order to become more consistent with those of a group.
42
What is Foot-in-the-Door?
Foot-in-the-door is a technique in which agreement to small request is followed up by a larger request.
43
What is Low-Balling?
What Is Lowballing? A lowball offer is a term for an offer that is significantly below the seller's asking price, or a quote that is deliberately lower than the price the seller intends to charge
44
What was the Milgram Experiment?
The Milgram experiment was a controversial experiment desiged to measure the extent to which people would obey an authority figure who was asking them to do something that they would presumably ordinarily not do.
In this experiment, each of a pair of individuals was assigned to be a "teacher" or a "learner." The "teacher" did not know that the "learner" was actually a confederate who worked for the experimenter and was instructed to make mistakes during a learning task. The experimenter instructed the "teacher" to administer increasing levels of electrical shock to the "learner" when the latter made mistakes. (Shock was not actually administered.) The main result of the experiment was that many of the "teachers" ended up administering high levels of shock, simply because an authority figure (the experimenter) asked them to do so.
45
What was the Stanford Prison Experiment?
During the Stanford prison experiment, subjects were divided into "guards" and "prisoners". Subjects assigned to be "guards" not only treated "prisoners" harshly and abusively, according to their views of the guard role, but also internalized and expressed negative beliefs about the prisoners.
46
Will violating an informal norm lead to imprisonment? How about a formal norm?
Violating an informal norm will never lead to imprisonment, while breaking a formal norm will always result in imprisonment.
47
What is difference between an Informal Norm, Folkway, More and Taboo?
Informal norms are unwritten expectations of society that influence of behaviors. Folkways are of relatively minimal importance; violating them won’t necessarily have consequences. Mores are treated more seriously; violating them may result in extreme disapproval. In contrast, violation of taboos may lead to hostility, ostracism, imprisonment, and/or other weighty consequences.
48
What is Anomie?
Anomie, also spelled anomy, in societies or individuals, a condition of instability resulting from a breakdown of standards and values or from a lack of purpose or ideals.
49
What is Group Polarization?
Group polarization occurs when a group of individuals who show some extent of agreement on particular beliefs come to hold these beliefs even more strongly following group discussion. Group polarization is facilitated when a majority of the group is already in agreement. Group polarization is least likely when a group has no leader and is evenly dived on an issue before discussion.
50
What is Collective Rationalization?
Collective rationalization refers to the tendency of a group to invent reasons to justify group behavior, even when that behavior appears to be irrational.
51
What did the Milgram Experiment focus on?
The Milgram experiment focused on obedience.
52
Why is ATP hydrolysis favorable (2)?
The high concentration of negative charges in the three phosphates repel the gamma phosphate.
AND
Charge repulsion thermodynamically favors ADP + inorganic phosphate over ATP.
Due to the high concentration of negative charges (and the charge repulsion that results between the phosphates), the gamma phosphate is highly unstable. Therefore hydrolysis of the bond between the beta and gamma phosphates is thermodynamically favorable, which results in ADP and inorganic phosphate.
53
Why are glucose transporters necessary to get glucose inside the cell?
Glucose is large and hydrophilic, so it can’t cross the plasma membrane on its own.
54
Which GLUT transporter is considered to be "insulin dependent"?
GLUT4 is considered to be insulin dependent.
55
What brain structure is responsible for alertness?
The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located throughout the brainstem. It is not anatomically well defined, because it includes neurons located in different parts of the brain. The reticular formation may be best known for its role in promoting arousal and consciousness. This function is mediated by the reticular activating system (RAS), also known as the ascending arousal system.
56
What are (3) characteristics of someone who is comatose?
Lack of consciousness, Lack of response to light and Presence of involuntary motion
57
What are the characteristics of each sleep stage?
In stage 1 sleep, slow eye movements occur. In stage 2 sleep, eye movements stop and breathing and heart rate become slower. Delta waves, the slowest type of brain waves, emerge during stage 3 sleep. Dreaming primarily occurs during REM sleep.
58
What waves does meditation help to promote?
Meditation has been shown to promote **alpha** and **theta** waves in experienced practitioners. Beta waves are associated with alertness and are not promoted by meditation.
59
What receptor system does Alcohol most affect?
Alcohol’s primary mode of action is enhancing the action of GABA receptors, which is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter.
60
Prolonged alcohol consumption can cause or contribute to what conditions (4)?
Prolonged alcohol consumption can cause or contribute to Liver disease, Cardiovascular disease, Korsakoff’s syndrome and Amnesia
61
Is Tetrahydrocannabinol the only cannabinoid capable of binding cannabinoid receptors in the brain?
Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is the only psychoactive substance in marijuana, but it is just one of over a hundred cannabinoids in marijuana. All of these substances can and do bind with cannabinoid receptors in the brain.
62
As a class of psychoactive drugs, stimulants can do what (3)?
Promote the release of neurotransmitters, Reduce the effects of neurotransmitters and Inhibit the reabsorption of neurotransmitters.
Stimulants possess multiple mechanisms of action, including the stimulation of neurotransmitter release, downregulation of the effects of inhibitory neurotransmitters, and inhibition of neurotransmitter reabsorption. Often, the same stimulant works through multiple pathways to alter both the release and reuptake of chemicals, including dopamine and norepinephrine.
63
What are the steps of Broadbent's filter model of selective attention?
1. Basic processing of stimuli for color, shape.
2. Stimuli enter sensory buffer.
3. Mind chooses stimuli to focus on.
4. Remaining stimuli in buffer decay.
64
What are the experiments/experimental techniques used to support the Broadbent model of attention?
Shadowing and dichotic listening are both experimental techniques that provided support to the Broadbent model by showing that subjects process attended information faster than unattended information.
65
What is Attenuation? (Treisman)
Under Treisman’s model of attention, unattended information is not discarded, but merely reduced in intensity, or attenuated, which helps explain why unattended stimuli can still be noticed in certain contexts.
66
What is Inattentional Blindness?
Inattentional blindness occurs when we fail to notice certain stimuli, even stimuli that would normally be jarring or evident, due to a heightened focus on a different stimulus or task.
67
What is Sequential Attention?
Multitasking is generally thought to involve rapidly switching between focuses, or sequential attention.
68
What is Change Blindness?
Change blindness refers to not noticing changing stimuli.
69
What does Allport's module resource theory state?
Attention is controlled by distinct, separate brain structures.
Allport theorized that, rather than attention being allocated by a single, centralized brain structure, attention is controlled by a series of distinct brain modules, each of which allocates attention for certain tasks or stimuli.
70
What are the subtypes (3) of ADHD?
Subtypes of ADHD include being: **Predominantly inattentive,** **Predominantly hyperactive-impulsive** and a **combination** of the two.
Predominantly inattentive -
This is a subtype of ADHD, with symptoms associated with difficulties in sustaining attention.
Predominantly hyperactive-impulse -
This is a subtype of ADHD, with symptoms associated with difficulty controlling energy levels and poor impulse control or rash decision making.
71
What are the two types of processing?
Controlled and automatic processing.
72
What are the symptoms (3) of ADHD?
Difficulties in sustaining attention, Poor impulse control and Difficulty in regulating energy levels.
73
What is the Behaviorist theory of language development?
The behaviorist theory of language development states that language is like any other behavior; it is learned through a series of reinforcements and punishments.
An example of this is the reward of a cookie helps the toddler learn how to say “eat”.
74
What is the Interactionist theory of language development?
The interactionist theory of language development states that our interactions with others help us learn language.
75
What is the Nativist theory of language development?
The nativist theory of language development states that all humans have an ability to acquire language. The ability to develop a language without contact with the outside world supports this idea.
76
What are different physiological effects expected to occur as a result of sympathetic nervous system activation?
Dilate pupils
Inhibit Salivation
Increase Heartbeat
Relax Airways
Inhibit Activity of Stomach
Inhibit Gallbaldder
Inhibit Activity of Intestines
Secrete Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
Relax Bladder
77
In which theory of emotion does a stimulus precede an emotional response?
According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, a stimulus directly and simultaneously results in a physiological and an emotional response. In the other theories listed, the physiological response precedes its associated cognitive emotional response.
78
What are the differences between primary and secondary appraisal types?
Cognitive appraisal of stress consists of two stages: primary and secondary. During primary appraisal, the person analyzes the potential stressor along with the surrounding environment to determine whether it represents a threat. Eric does this as he glances toward the moving object, realizes its identity, and decides that is harmless to him.
79
What is the difference between the different types of conflict?
An **approach-approach** conflict involves choosing between two desirable options.
An **avoidance-avoidance** conflict is the opposite of an approach-approach conflict, wherein one must choose between two undesirable options.
An **approach-avoidance** conflict involves a single decision with both upsides and downsides.
A **double approach-avoidance** conflict consists of two options that each have both desirable and undesirable qualities (pros and cons).
80
What factors would decrease a medical student's level of intrinsic motivation?
Things that would decrease a medical student's level of intrinsic motivation are: performing poorly on an exam, meeting regularly with an academic advisor who follows her academic progress and feeling that most of what she is learning will not matter in her medical career.
**Intrinsic motivation** is the act of doing something without any obvious external rewards. You do it because it's enjoyable and interesting, rather than because of an outside incentive or pressure to do it, such as a reward or deadline.
81
What is the difference between general and specific attitudes and predictability?
General attitudes are less likely to predict specific actions than are specific attitudes.
82
What are all the types of long-term memory?
Semantic memory, Episodic memory, Implicit memory, Explicit memory, Declarative memory and Procedural memory
83
How is sensory memory related to short-term memory?
The process of attention transfers information from sensory memory into short-term memory. Sensory information, typically visual or auditory, passes through sensory memory, which is short-lived. If the information is particularly relevant or otherwise attended to, it can move to short-term memory before being stored in one’s long-term memory.
84
What is Positive and Negative Priming?
Priming refers to when a stimulus influences our perception or response to subsequent stimuli. In the example of positive priming, Mark hearing the word "party" and his prior exposure to conversations about parties influenced his interpretation of the rest of the whispered conversation. In the example of negative priming, the researcher’s prior instructions hindered Bill’s ability to follow new instructions.
85
What is Spreading Activation?
Spreading activation theory refers to how one word can trigger the recall of other associated words.
86
Does experimental repeatability ensure validity?
Repeated results from the replication of a study don’t necessarily indicate the internal validity of the results. Data can be biased in both a forward or backward direction. The methods of both studies could be poorly designed and contribute to poor internal validity, but if the results are biased equally in two directions, certain measures of data analysis, such as the mean, could end up being the same, making the data “seem” accurate.
87
What describes when the results of an experiment do not hold up in the real world?
If the results of an experiment do not hold up in the real world, the results are said to lack external validity, otherwise known as generalizability.
88
What are the important types of test validity in an experiment?
Construct validity, Content validity, Criterion validity and Predictive validity
89
What is Construct Validity?
Construct validity tells us how well a test measures what it is supposed to test.
90
What is Content Validity?
Content validity refers to the extent to which a design assesses the full scope of content that researchers intend to measure.
91
What is Criterion Validity?
Criterion validity refers to the extent to which a test correlates with an established “criterion” or existing measure.
92
What is Predictive Validity?
Predictive validity refers to the extent to which a test predicts a later score on some other test.
93
What is Reliability?
Reliability refers to the consistency of study results. If a study is repeated a month after its initial administration and shows highly similar results, this is most closely related to reliability (of the options listed).
94
What is Accuracy?
Accuracy is when the results you retrieve match up with “true” results, similar to hitting the “bullseye” on a dartboard.
95
What is Precision?
Precision is when your results are the same from experiment to experiment, similar to hitting the same low-score spot on a dartboard over and over.
96
What is Self-report Bias?
Self-report or acquiescence bias is the tendency to respond “yes” or “I agree” to questions. To limit this form of bias, researchers should design their questions carefully, which is often accomplished in part by asking multiple questions that are the opposite of each other.
97
What is Social Desirability Bias?
Social desirability bias is the tendency for a study participant to alter their responses or selectively respond to a study questionnaire with responses that they think will make the experimenter like them more.
98
What is External Validity/Generalizability?
Generalizability, also known as external validity, refers to the extent to which an experiments results are applicable to settings outside of the experiment.
99
Are any Subjective data collection methods subject to bias?
All forms of Subjective data collection are subject to some source of bias, not just questionnaires.
100
What is Self-Identity?
Self-identity is a narrower term that describes how someone perceives themselves with respect to groups they believe they are (or are not) a part of.
101
What is a Self-Schema?
A self-schema describes a set of organized beliefs about the self and one's own behavior in specific settings.
102
What is an External Locus of control?
An individual that has an external locus of control blames external factors for things that happen to them—both good and bad.
103
What is a Value compared to a Belief?
A value reflects how a person thinks the world should work. Beliefs reflect what someone thinks is true.
104
What is the difference between Material and Symbolic culture?
Material culture refers to tangible objects. Symbolic culture refers to intangible elements of culture.
105
What is Culture Lag?
Culture lag is a period where society has to adapt to technological developments.
106
What is Culture Shock?
Culture shock requires being immersed in a foreign culture.
107
What is Cultural Transmission?
Cultural transmission refers to passing down information across generations.
108
What is Cultural Diffusion?
Cultural diffusion refers to cultural exchange.
109
What is the difference between Multiculturalism and Assimilation?
Multiculturalism refers to the preservation of the original culture.
Assimilation is when the immigrant has integrated into the dominant culture enough to understand cultural references.
110
What are examples of Cultural Transmission?
Myths, rituals and values are examples of cultural transmission as they are tools to preserve a culture across generations.
111
What are the stages of Erikson's?
In Erikson’s framework:
Trust vs. mistrust, which occurs in the age range of 0-1.
Autonomy vs. shame/doubt occurs in the age range of 1-3
Initiative vs. guilt at 3-6
Industry vs. inferiority at 6-12
Identity vs. role confusion at 12-20
Intimacy vs. isolation at 20-39
Generativity vs. stagnation at 40-65
Integrity vs. despair at ages 65+.
112
How did Kohlberg focus on individuals?
Kohlberg did not focus on how individuals can benefit themselves specifically, but rather how individuals reason about what to do when a person (whether that be the individual or another person) is in need of a type of help that would oppose a societal rule/expectation.
113
How is Kohlberg's theory of development organized?
**_Level 1 - Preconventional_**
Stage 1 - Obedience | Obedience-and-Punishment Orientation
Stage 2 - Self-Interest | Instrumental Orientation
**_Level 2 - Conventional_**
Stage 3 - Conformity | Good Boy, Nice Girl Orientation
Stage 4 - Law and Order | Law-and-Order Orientation
**_Level 3 - Postconventional_**
Stage 5 - Social Contract | Social-Contract Orientation
Stage 6 - Universal Human Ethics | Universal-Ethical-Principal Orientation
[https://courses.lumenlearning.com/teachereducationx92x1/chapter/kohlbergs-stages-of-moral-development/](https://courses.lumenlearning.com/teachereducationx92x1/chapter/kohlbergs-stages-of-moral-development/)
114
What is Reaction Formation (psychological strategies employed by the unconscious mind according to Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory)?
Reaction formation refers to the unconscious transmutation of unacceptable actions into the opposite behavior.
115
What is Displacement (psychological strategies employed by the unconscious mind according to Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory)?
Displacement involves the shift of aggressive impulses to more acceptable objects, or to safer outlets.
116
What are Freud's stages of development?
The stages are as follows:
Oral
Anal
Phallic
Latency
Genital
According to Freud’s psychosexual stages of development, human beings possess an instinctual libido that develops in five stages, each characterized by specific erogenous zones from which the libidinal drive stems from: the oral phase, associated with the mouth; the anal stage, associated with bowel or bladder elimination; the phallic stage, associated with the genitalia; the latency phase, during which sexual emotions are dormant; and the genital stage, when sexual desires mature. Thus, in decreasing developmental order, the stages would be listed as: the genital stage, then the latency phase, then the phallic stage, followed by the anal stage, and finally, the oral stage.
117
What are the psychological constructs in Jung's psychoanalytic perspective on personality?
Jung’s psychoanalytic perspective on personality includes the following psychological constructs: **Persona**, **Figures**, **Self**, **Shadow** and **Animus**
According to Jung, the persona is an archetype of the collective unconscious by which we present ourselves to the world.
Jung believed that archetypal figures, such as the wise old man or mother, are the psychic counterpart of instincts.
The Self is an archetype that expresses the unity of the personality as a whole.
Jung describes the shadow as a representation of the personal unconscious as a whole. It usually embodies the compensating values to those held by the conscious personality -- in other words, it represents one’s “dark side”, or the side that is not often identified with.
Jung speaks of the animus as a definite archetype that appears in women and is her primordial image of the masculine, or her internalized image of the opposite gender.
118
What is B.F. Skinner's perspective on personality?
Only observation of a person’s current and previous behaviors can provide information about the formation of their personality.
Skinner argued that personality was a function of one’s biology and explanation of that personality could only be done through observation of behaviors.
119
What is the Humanistic Approach to therapy?
Humanistic approaches to therapy are not directive and do not follow predictable trajectories. Humanistic approaches emphasize verbalizing unconditional positive regard and focus on self-actualization.
Humanistic therapy emphasizes respect for free will and self-determined life paths.
120
What psychological approaches/theories/perspectives did Jung, Bandura, Mead, Rogers, Skinner, Freud and Eysenck take to personality?
Jung took a psychoanalytical approach.
Bandura developed social learning theory.
Mead developed the social behaviorist approach.
Rogers took a humanistic approach.
Skinner developed the behaviorist perspective.
Freud developed the psychoanalytic perspective.
Eysenck (Hans and Sybil) were trait theorists. They developed the PEN model that broke personality down into psychoticism, extraversion, and neuroticism.
121
What is Mead's theory of Social Behaviorism?
Mead’s “I” is most similar to the ego and the “me” is most similar to the superego. These are not perfect matches but it can be useful to study both theories in tandem.
Mead conceptualizes the mind as the individual importation of the social process. This process is characterized by Mead as the “I” and the “me. ” The “me” is the social self and the “I” is the response to the “me. ” The “I” is the individual's impulses. The “I” is self as subject; the “me” is self as object.
122
What are the "Big Five" traits?
The "Big Five" are Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness and Neuroticism.
123
What is the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder?
The diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder is at least 5 of the criteria for MDD persisting for at least a 2-week period. John is only displaying 4 criteria, with the others being anhedonia, appetite disturbances, low energy, motor impairments, attentional deficits, and suicidal ideation.
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What is Anhedonia?
Anhedonia is a subjective self-report of feeling a “lack of pleasure” when partaking in normally pleasurable activities.
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What is Seasonal Affective Disorder?
Seasonal affective disorder is diagnosed when depressive symptoms occur on a “seasonal” basis (e.g. only during wintertime).
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How is the amygdala affected by PTSD?
**Overactive**
PTSD is characterized by a person exposed to chronic or heightened trauma, which leads to intrusive anxious thoughts, avoidance of stressful stimuli, worsened mood, and heightened stress responses in response to an emotional stimulus. These symptoms must last for at least a month.
During PTSD, stress responses to emotional triggers are heightened, and minor events can cause full on stress reactions. When the amygdala is activated by stress, it will activate the sympathetic nervous system. Therefore, it can be inferred that a person with PTSD has an overactive amygdala.
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What is Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Dissociative identity disorder
After a traumatic incident, John is almost an entirely different person because he has forgotten a large chunk of his life.
## Footnote
Dissociative disorders relate to a person’s consciousness or memory. Dissociative identity disorder is colloquially known as multiple personality disorder, occurring when people such as Linda appear to have multiple personalities or act like multiple people.
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What is Dissociative Amnesia?
Dissociative amnesia
When talking to his therapist, Khalid describes himself as feeling “dissociated” from society. When pressed further, he claimed as though he felt like life was not real.
Dissociative amnesia is a form of retrograde amnesia, where a person forgets episodic memories from their past.
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What is Depersonalization Disorder?
Depersonalization disorder
Linda temporarily forgets her memories from time to time, and during those times acts like an entirely different person.
Depersonalization disorder (otherwise known as derealization disorder) occurs when a person feels “disconnected” from society or from their own lives. This is often thought of as a “disconnect” between a person’s mind and body, or as a feeling of distance between a person and their surroundings.
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What is Somatic Symptom Disorder?
Somatic disorders such as somatic symptom disorder and conversion disorder are aptly named because of their physical symptoms. Somatic symptom disorder involves an unhealthy attentiveness to physical symptoms. Conversion disorders, such as Patrick’s, involve sudden sensory or motor impairments (blindness, paralysis, difficulty swallowing) following a period of stress.
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What is "ego-syntonic"?
Victor, a careful accountant who has an excessive preoccupation with reading and abiding by rules when doing any task.
Victor’s obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is largely helpful for his career and is not something that he recognizes as “interfering” with his goals. Therefore, because his personality disorder, goals, and desires align, he is “ego-syntonic”.
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What is the "first-line of treatment" for schizophrenia?
**Neuroleptics** are **dopamine antagonists** with cognitive side-effects. They are the primary first-line treatment used against schizophrenia, although second-generation antipsychotics such as clozapine have also been shown to be effective.
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What are the three Personality Disorder type clusters?
The cluster A disorders include **paranoid** (high levels of distrust), **schizoid** (emotional aloofness and social isolation), and **schizotypal** (discomfort in social contexts, mixed with “weird” delusions or beliefs).
The cluster B disorders include **antisocial** (disregard for others, often violent), **narcissistic** (destructive relationships, tendency to seek out power and gratify the ego), **histrionic** (theatrical, attention seeking behavior), and **borderline** (risky and extreme behaviors mixed with unstable and impulsive moods).
The cluster C disorders include **avoidant** (hypersensitivity to criticism leading to social isolation), **dependent** (excessive unnecessary reliance on other people in day-to-day life), and **obsessive compulsive** (excessive concern for following rules and acting “by-the-book”).
**Obsessive compulsive** **disorder** is “none of the above” because it is actually different from obsessive compulsive personality disorder. Obsessive compulsive disorder is characterized by compulsions and delusions, whereas the personality disorder is an attenuated version featuring mild, ego-syntonic compulsions that influence daily life.
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What's the difference between Schizoid and Schizotypal?
Schizoid is denoting or having a personality type characterized by emotional aloofness and solitary habits.
Schizotypal DSM classification describes the disorder specifically as a personality disorder characterized by thought disorder, paranoia, a characteristic form of social anxiety, derealization, transient psychosis, and unconventional beliefs
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What is the difference between Histrionic and Narcissistic?
The cluster B disorders include narcissistic (destructive relationships, tendency to seek out power and gratify the ego) and histrionic (theatrical, attention seeking behavior). This student is displaying the characteristics of histrionic personality disorder. Patients with histrionic personality disorder use their physical appearance, acting in inappropriately seductive or provocative ways, to gain the attention of others. They lack a sense of self-direction and are highly suggestible, often acting submissively to retain the attention of others.
Narcissistic personality disorder involves a pattern of self-centered, arrogant thinking and behavior, a lack of empathy and consideration for other people, and an excessive need for admiration. Others often describe people with NPD as cocky, manipulative, selfish, patronizing, and demanding.
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What is the DSM-V classification for Bipolar Disorders Types 1 and 2?
Bipolar 1 disorder is diagnosed after a manic episode, which is characterized by 3 manic symptoms held over the course of 1 week.
Bipolar 2 disorder is diagnosed after at least one episode of Major Depressive Disorder as well as an episode of hypomania. An episode of full on mania is not required to be diagnosed with bipolar 2.
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What is the difference between an Obsession and Compulsion?
Obsessive compulsive disorder is a chronic mental condition in which the person afflicted suffers from two distinct but related symptoms: obsessions and compulsions. Obsessions are uncontrollable thoughts about something, which generally lead to anxious feelings. A compulsion is an uncontrollable behavior. The two are generally related – for instance, a person with OCD may face intrusive thoughts about germs (an obsession), and feel compelled to wash their hands (a compulsion), which may temporarily relieve their germ-anxiety.
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What is the difference between a Somatic Symptom Disorder and Conversion Disorder?
Conversion Disorder is physical pain that has no obvious biological basis.
Somatic Symptom Disorder is extreme concern about feelings of fatigue or pain.
Somatic disorders such as somatic symptom disorder and conversion disorder are aptly named because of their physical symptoms. Somatic symptom disorder involves an unhealthy attentiveness to physical symptoms.
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What is Depersonalization Disorder?
Depersonalization disorder (otherwise known as derealization disorder) occurs when a person feels “disconnected” from society or from their own lives. This is often thought of as a “disconnect” between a person’s mind and body, or as a feeling of distance between a person and their surroundings.
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What are 3 types of Dissociative Disorders and how is the broad group classified as?
Memory disorder. Amnesia disorder. Identity disorder.
Dissociative disorders are a large umbrella group of psychological disorders that involve a disconnect between the beliefs, memories and thoughts a person has and their actual surroundings. A dissociative memory disorder is not recognized by the DSM-V as a dissociative disorder.
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What is a Phobia?
A phobia is a specific, persistent, and excessive anxiety reaction to a particular object or situation. Lori does dislike spiders specifically. However, her reaction is not an extreme stress response. “Disliking” something is not enough to qualify as having a phobia.
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What is Schizophrenia?
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder most commonly diagnosed in a person’s early 20s, that features both positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms are defined by their “presence” – for example, hearing sounds that are not present are hallucinations, and new irrational beliefs are delusions. Disorganized thoughts are also a positive symptom. Negative symptoms are defined by the “absence” of something – for example, when a person has no outward reaction to an emotional stimulus, they are experiencing a flattened affect.
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What is Antisocial Personality Disorder?
Antisocial personality disorder, sometimes called sociopathy, is a mental disorder in which a person consistently shows no regard for right and wrong and ignores the rights and feelings of others. People with antisocial personality disorder tend to antagonize, manipulate or treat others harshly or with callous indifference. They show no guilt or remorse for their behavior.
Individuals with antisocial personality disorder often violate the law, becoming criminals. They may lie, behave violently or impulsively, and have problems with drug and alcohol use. Because of these characteristics, people with this disorder typically can't fulfill responsibilities related to family, work or school.
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What is the Halo Effect?
The Halo Effect refers to when impressions of someone in one area inform our perception of them in another, unrelated area.
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What is the Just World Hypothesis?
The Just World Hypothesis states that people get what they deserve. Good things happen to good people, and bad things happen to bad people.
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What is the difference between Individualistic and Collectivistic cultures?
Individualistic cultures tend to rely on dispositional attributions, emphasizing characteristic traits. On the other hand, collectivists focus on situational attributions, or external factors, as mechanisms for explaining behavior.
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What is the difference between Prejudice and Stereotype?
Prejudice is an instant emotional reaction. Stereotypes contain content. Stereotypes might explain the reasoning behind our attitude and reactions towards something or someone.
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What are the different types of Stereotypes?
Paternalistic stereotype occurs where there is high warmth and low competence. Low competence and low warmth lead to a contemptuous stereotype. The combination of low warmth and high competence leads to an envious stereotype.
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What is the difference between Relative Culturalism and Ethnocentrism?
Judgment
Cultural relativism refers to not judging a culture to our own standards of what is right or wrong, strange or normal. Instead, we should try to understand cultural practices of other groups in its own cultural context.
Ethnocentrism means to judge another culture based on the standard of one's own culture instead of the standard of the other particular culture.
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What is Self-serving Bias?
Self-serving bias refers to how we use dispositional attributions to explain outcomes when we succeed and situational attributions to explain outcomes when we fail.
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What are the characteristics of Stigma? (4)
Stigmas often overlap with illegal activities since illegal activities often carry negative connotations.
Groups can be stigmatized and de-stigmatized depending on societal norms.
Stigma can create distance between society and stigmatized groups.
Stigmas are closely tied with negative stereotypes.
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What is Negative Reinforcement?
**Negative reinforcement** is when there is an **aversive stimulus** being **removed** and a **behavior** is being **increased**.
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What are the different types of Reinforcement Schedules?
Continuous Reinforcement - Every single response is rewarded.
Variable Ratio - After an unpredictable number of responses, a reward is given.
Fixed Ratio - Every set number of responses earns a reward.
Fixed Interval - After a set period, a reward is given.
Variable Interval - After an unpredictable period of time, a reward is given.
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What is Positive Punishment?
A stimulus is added, and that stimulus is punishing by virtue of being painful.
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What is Negative Reinforcement/Punishment the removal of? (2)
Negative Reinforcement is the removal of (unpleasant) stimulus to increase behavior. Negative Punishment is the removal of (pleasant) stimulus to decrease behavior.
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What is Imitation and what type of learning is it classified as?
Imitation is a type of observational learning. Imitation is a straightforward process - one observes a behavior and then performs it.
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What does a variable ratio reinforcement schedule best help with?
Variable ratio reinforcement schedule is best for maintaining a behavior and getting the most responses per reinforcement provided.
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What reinforcement strategy would you want to chain together in a video that rewards progression?
Continuous reinforcement (lots of reinforcement to get them to play the game) followed by variable ratio (to maintain consistent interaction).
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What is the difference between Gender Roles and Gender Schemas?
**Gender roles** are the **different behavior** and attitudes we expect males and females to exhibit. These explain why our expectations of motherhood and fatherhood, for example, are different.
**Gender schemas** refer to how we **cognitively organize information about gender,** and how we perceive the world through the lens of gender. Gender schemas result in what we consider to make someone a male versus a female.
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How is Urban Renewal characterized?
Urban renewal results in: gentrification, increased tax base for the local government, expensive housing developments and economic stratification.
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What is Gender Segregation?
Gender segregation refers to socal institutions where people are separated by gender. This includes public locker rooms, for example, and is not necessarily an act of discrimination.
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What is Cultural Capital?
Cultural capital includes personal qualities or achievements that are attractive to others or that would tend to be attributed to members of a higher social class. Advanced degrees and education such as a Ph.D. would fall into this category. A good sense of humor falls under the classification of cultural capital because it is a likable personal quality that can facilitate social interactions.
