Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psych and other stuff > PSYCH MDTs > Flashcards

PSYCH MDTs Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

The complex somatic, cognitive, affective, and behavioral effects of psychological trauma

A

Post traumatic Stress Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some of the varying types of trauma that an lead to PTSD

A

Sexual trauma
Trauma to someone close in interpersonal network
Interpersonal violence
Participation in organized violence
Natural disasters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is seen to have a correlation with symptoms of PTSD

A

Presence of and extent of injuries

Strong correlation with TBI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What timeframe shows a prevalence of symptoms of PTSD following a traumatic event

A
  1. 2% at ONE MONTH
  2. 2% at FOUR MONTHS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fear center of the brain

A

Left amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Memory center of the brain

A

Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Part of the visual portion of the brain

A

Anterior cingulate cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of PTSD? These symptoms go beyond the realm of normal with multiple impairments

A
  • Affective dysregulation (Anger common)
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Behavior responses caused by regular stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should be the main focus of the IDC completing the screening for PTSD

A

Recognizing symptoms have been present for at least four weeks following trauma for psychiatry to make a diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Available psychotherapy for the treatment of PTSD

A
  • Exposure therapy
  • CBT (Cognitive Behavior Therapy)
  • EMDR (Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are types of behaviors are commonly seen with patients with PTSD that should prompt consideration for counseling

A

Marital problems and substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which medications are the first line therapy of choice for treating PTSD

A

Antidepressant medications SSRI

Sertaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

That are adjunct mediation that may be used based on symptoms of PTSD

A

Prazosin - Nightmares
Beta blockers - Tremors and sympathetic responses
Antipsychotics - Comorbid psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What medication should be avoided for the treatment of PTSD and why should it be avoided

A

Benzodiazepines due to safety and dependency issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Persistent disturbance of eating that impairs both health and psychological functioning

A

Eating Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

.S.C.O.F.F.

1) Do you make yourself Sick because you Feel uncomfortably full?
2) Do you worry you have lost Control over how much you eat?
3) Have you recently lost more than 14 pounds in a three month period? ONE stone
4) Do you believe yourself to be fat when others say you are thin?
5) Would you say food dominates your life?

A

Screening questions for psychiatric causes, used to differentiate between an eating disorder and other causes of weight loss.
SCOFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Restriction of caloric intake. Net negative caloric intake. Decrease in food intake.

A

Anorexia Nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What populations are most affected by anorexia nervosa

A

More common in women (10-20:1)

Median age of onset is 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What deficits are shown in patient’s with PTSD

A

Deficits in dopaminergic function and serotonergic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Eating behavior, motivation, and reward

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mood, impulse control, and obsessive behavior

A

Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders V

A

1) Restriction of energy intake that leads to low body weight.
2) Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat or persistent behavior that prevents weight gain, despite being underweight.
3) Distorted perception of body weight shape, undue influence of weight and body shape on self-worth, or denial of the medical seriousness of one’s own low body weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common physical exam finding associated with Anorexia Nervosa

A

1) Low BMI
2) Emaciation
3) Hypothermia
4) Bradycardia
5) Hypotension (Not enough energy to pump blood through the body)
6) Hypoactive bowel sounds
7) Xerosis (Dry and scaly skin)
8) Lanugo body hair
9) Abdominal distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Episodic uncontrolled ingestion of large quantities of food followed by recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain. Self induced vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise.

A

Bulimia Nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is bulimia nervosa more common in men or women

A

Women

Women 1.5% vs men 0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa includes recurrent episodes of binging and purging and inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain. What is included in these behaviors?

A

1) Self induced vomiting
2) Misuse of laxitives
3) Diuretic use
4) Enemas
5) Fasting
6) Excessive exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Associated features that may be seen in patient’s with bulimia nervosa

A

1) Mild psychological impairment
2) Body weight usually within or above normal range
3) Neurocognitive functioning (decision making) impaired
4) Emotional dysregulation
5) Self-harm
6) Additional psychiatric disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What additional psychiatric disorders may be seen in patients with bulimia nervosa

A

PTSD, ADHD, substance abuse, personality disorders, anxiety, and conduct disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Common clinical findings seen in patients with bulimia nervosa

A

1) Dehydration
2) Menstrual irregularities
3) Mallory-Weis syndrome
4) Pharyngitis
5) Erosion of dental enamel
6) ECG changes - electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is required in the treatment for bulimia nervosa

A

Supportive care and psychotherapy.
Behavioral therapy.
Antidepressant Medications. fluoxetine and SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What eating disorder is associated with iron deficiency anemia

A

PICA
Eating nonfood substances - Hair, chalk, metal, dirt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Repeated regurgitation of food. Not associated with GERD, pyloric stenosis, or other medical conditions

A

Rumination Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What labs should be considered during the work up of a patient with an eating disorder

A

CBC
Thyroid studies
metabolic panal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a late stage of alcohol withdrawal that can be fatal

A

Delirium Tremors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the acronym “DIGFAST” stand for and how is it used to remember the symptoms of mania

A

D - Distractibility
I - Indiscretions
G - Grandiosity
F - Flight of ideas
A - Activity increase
S - Sleeplessness
T - Talkativeness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cage questioning for alcohol abuse

A

Have you ever felt that you should CUT down on your drinking?
Have people ANNOYED you by criticizing your drinking?
Have you ever felt bad or GUILTY about your drinking?
Have you ever taken a drink in the morning, EYE opener?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What syndrome is a major complication of Alcohol use disorder

A

Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the triad of Wernicke encephalopathy

A

1) Encephalopathy - disorientation
2) Oculomotor Dysfunction - Nystagmus
3) Gait Ataxia -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is usually a consequence of Wernicke Encepholopathy, and causes anterograde / retrograde amnesia

A

Korsakoff syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is alcohol withdrawl potentially life threatening

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mild alcohol withdrawal symptoms that begin within 6 to 24 hours of last drink

A

Anxiety / agitation / tremor / restlessness / insomnia / diaphoresis / palpitations / alcohol cravings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Physical signs of mild alcohol withdrawal

A

Tachycardia
Hypertension
Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When do mild alcohol withdrawals typically resolve

A

one to two days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is included in more severe alcohol withdrawal

A

Hallucinations

Seizures

Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

leading preventable cause of mortality worldwide

Estimated cause of 6 million deaths world wide

A

Tobacco Use Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Most important risk factor factor for COPD

A

Pulmonary Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Major causes of mortality associated with tobacco Use Disorder

A

Cardiovascular Disease

Pulmonary Disease

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Roles of the clinician in regards to tobacco cessation

A
  • Ask about quitting
  • Advise quitting
  • Do not spend long time on this
  • Assess readiness to quit
  • Assist those who are ready to quit
  • Follow up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are a few of the stages that someone who is considering quitting may be in???

A
  • Pre-contemplation: Not ready
  • Contemplation: Considering a quit attempt
  • Preparation: Actively planning a quit attempt
  • Action: Actively involved in a quit attempt
  • Maintenance: Achieved smoking cessation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is the peak in nicotine withdrawal and when does it subside

A

first three days

Slowly subside over the course of about one month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a popular option for treatment of nicotine withdrawal?

A

Nicotine replacement therapy (short or long)

Long acting: nicotine patch
Short acting: Gum or lozenges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Used for both depression and smoking cessation

Atypical antidepressant.

Inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine

A

Buproprion (Wellbutrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This tobacco cessation medication is a partial nicotine agonist, stimulate dopamine activity, and reduces cravings / withdrawal symptoms

A

Varenicline (Chantix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How long is THC detected in urine tests

A

4-6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What effect will high doses of THC cause

A

psychotomimetic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Will marijuana aggravate existing mental illness

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are negative affects of marijuana on men

A

decrease plasma testosterone and reduce sperm counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are some long term respiratory problems caused by smoking marijuana

A

pulmonary tree abnormalities, laryngitis, rhinitis, and COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does the recent increase in opioid abuse directly correlate with

A

Increase in prescribed opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Physical findings associated with acute opioid toxicity

A
  • Decreased respirations
  • Decreased blood pressure
  • Decreased bowel sounds
  • Sedation
  • Miosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is easily confused with acute opioid intoxification

A

Hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Treatment of choice for acute opioid intoxification

A

Naloxone

Short half-life, repeat doses may be required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What should be considered when prescribing or dispensing opioids

A

The opioids may cause a downward spiral
Opioids may not be necessitated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

With a patient who is found down, what should you consider in regards to their immediate work up?

A

Consider rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is included in the clinical picture of acute stimulant intoxication

A
  • Sweating
  • Tachycardia
  • Elevated blood pressure
  • Mydriasis
  • Hyperactivity
  • Acute brain syndrome
  • Confusion and disorientation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What would alert clinicians to a patient using cocaine

A

Unexplained nasal bleeding, headaches, fatigue, insomnia, anxiety, depression, and chronic hoarseness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A distinct period of abnormally or persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and persistently increased activity or energy, lasting at least one week and present mods of the day, nearly every day

A

Mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Three or more of the following symptoms must be present to diagnose a manic episode

A
  • Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
  • Decreased need for sleep
  • More talkative than usual or pressured speech
  • Flight of thoughts / racing thoughts
  • Distractibility
  • Increased goal directed activity
  • Involvement in activities that carry negative potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Similar characteristics to mania.
No delusional grandiosity.
Thought form is more organized.
Easier to engage conversation.
Less risky behavior.
No psychotic symptoms.
No hallucinations or delusions

A

Hypomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is given to patients with bipolar disorder prior to being MEDEVAC’d

A

Haloperidol - Antipsychotic

71
Q

S
I
G
E
C
A
P
S

A

Suicidal
Interest loss
Guilty feeling for no reason
Energy loss, very sluggish
Concentration difficulty
Appetite changes
Psychomotor retardation
Sleep disturbances

72
Q

What is the timeframe for major depression

A

2 weeks

73
Q

Most common psychiatric disorder in the general population
- Lifetime prevalence estimates around 16%

A

Depression

74
Q

Ranked 2nd among all injuries and illnesses as cause of disability

A

Depression

75
Q

Risk factors for depression

A

Family History. Female gender.
Childbirth. Childhood trauma.
Stressful life event. Poor social support.
Medical illness. Substance abuse.

76
Q

What are some of the variable presentations of a patient with depression

A
  • Changes in mood (Sadness, distress, numbness, anxiety)
  • Cognitive problems (Change in work performance)
  • Neuro-vegetative symptoms (Loss of energy, lack of sleep, appetite)
  • Somatic symptoms (Headache, abdominal pain, pelvic pain, physical)
77
Q

What is the PHQ-9 used for

A

Depression Questionnaire

GOLD STANDARD

78
Q

What is the most feared and most important complication of depression

A

Suicide

79
Q

What are key indicators that should prompt you to inquire about suicide ideation and behavior

A
  • ) Specific nature of the ideation
  • ) Intent, plan, ability to carry out plan
  • ) Personal history of suicide attempts
  • ) Family history of suicide attempts
80
Q

How long does a patient need to be on SSRI’s to have trialed SSRI’s

A

4 weeks

81
Q

What are common side effects of SSRI’s

A

Sexual dysfunction. Drowsiness. Weight gain. Insomnia. Weight gain. Anxiety. Dizziness. Headache. Dry mouth. Nausea. Blurred vision. rash. tremor.

82
Q

How common are side effects reported by patients taking SSRI’s

A

Very common
55% of people treated

83
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for depression

A

Psychotherapy, pharmacotherapy, or both

84
Q

Two classes of drugs that are typically used to treat depression

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
- Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, escitalopram
Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors
- Venlafaxine, duloxetine

85
Q

What about suicide and SSRI’s

A

No clear evidence that SSRI’s have an impact on suicidality

86
Q

anxiety or depression in relation to an identifiable stress, though out of proportion to the severity of the stressor
May look similar to depression

A

Adjustment Disorder

87
Q

What types of stressors can lead to adjustment disordor

A

Deployment, marital problems, recruit training, financial concerns, increasing responsibilities

88
Q

Can adjustment disorder be diagnosed in the context of bereavement

A

NO

89
Q

How long will adjustment disorder resolve when the stressor is removed

A

SIX MONTHS

90
Q

How soon after delivery do women experience Post-Partum depression

A

12 months

91
Q

What may the pathogenesis of Post-Partum depression be related to?

A

Genetic susceptibility and hormonal changes

92
Q

Similar symptoms to Post-Partum depression but does not meet the minimum number of symptoms; milder and self-limited; typically develop within 2-3 days of deliver and resolve within 2 weeks

A

Post-partum blues

93
Q

What are appropriate differential diagnosis for post partum depression

A
  • Normal post-partum changes
  • Post-partum blues
  • Bipolar depression
94
Q

What is used for the workup of a patient experiencing post-partum depression

A

Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale

95
Q

Treatment for mild to moderate post-partum depression

A

Cognitive behavior therapy - Initial treatment

(Especially for breastfeeding moms)

96
Q

For the treatment of post-partum depression, what is useful if cognitive behavior therapy is unsuccessful

A

SSRI’s
Paroxetine or sertraline appear to have the lowest adverse efffects

97
Q

Are patients who have episodes of post-partum depression at risk for recurrences

A

YES

30-50% of patients

98
Q

How does post-partum depression negatively affect the child?

A

Abnormal development, cognitive impairment, and psychopathology

99
Q

Characterized by excessive and persistent worrying that is hard to control, causes significant distress, and occurs more days than not for at least six months

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

100
Q

symptoms of anxiety occur for at least ____ months

A

6 months

101
Q

Anxiety tends to go “hand in hand” with other psychiatric conditions

A

Yes

Depression
Phobias
Medically unexplained pain

102
Q

Clinical manifestations of anxiety

A
  • Excessive worry (not too common) May be worried about a bunch of minor matters
  • Poor sleep
  • Fatigue
  • Difficulty relaxing
  • Headaches
  • Pain in the neck, shoulder, and back
103
Q

General Anxiety Disorder 7 questionnaire usually focuses on seven questions based on a two week history

A

1) Feeling nervous, anxious, or on edge
2) Not being able t stop or control worrying
3) Worrying too much about different things
4) Trouble relaxing
5) Being so restless that it is hard to sit still
6) Becoming easily annoyed or irritable
7) Feeling afraid as if something awful might happen

104
Q

Treatment for generalized anxiety disorder

A 
Cognitive behavior therapy
SSRI's and SNRI's are the typical medication class used as first line
105
Q

Recurrent, unpredictable episodes of intense surges of anxiety marked by physiologic manifestations

A

Panic attack

106
Q

Diagnosed when panic attacks are accompanied by chronic fear of the recurrence of an attack or a maladaptive change in behavior to try to avoid potential triggers of the panic attack

A

Panic Disorder

107
Q

How often are panic attacks thought to occur?

What is the median age?

A

⅓ of people are thought to experience a panic attack in their life. Median age is 24.

108
Q

DSM-5 Diagnostic criteria for panic disorder

A

An abrupt surge of intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes, and during which time four or more accompanied symptoms occur

109
Q

Palpitations. Sweating. SOB. Feeling of choking. Trembling / shaking. chest pain. Nausea / abdominal distress. Dizziness / light-headed. Paresthesia. Derealization. Fear of losing control / “Going crazy”. Fear of dying.

A

Four or more of these symptoms associated with a panic attack

110
Q

Why is the development of agoraphobia common in panic disorder?

A

Fear and anxiety lead to avoidance of situation that may lead to panic. Not wanting to panic.

111
Q

Broadly defined as a loss of contact with reality.
This is a thought disorder.

A

Psychosis

112
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of psychosis

A
  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Thought disorganization
  • Agitation and aggression
113
Q

Strongly held false beliefs. Beliefs are broadly classified as bizarre vs non-bizarre

A

Delusions

114
Q

Specific types of delusions associated with psychosis

A
  • Persecutory Delusion: ex. Belief that one is being followed or harassed
  • Grandiose Delusions: ex. Belief that one is a billionaire
  • Erotomanic Delusion: ex. Believing a famous person is in love with them
  • Somatic Delusions: ex. Worms in the sinuses
  • Delusions of Reference: ex. Someone / something is talking to / directing them
  • Delusions of Control: ex. believing you are controlled by an outside entitiy
115
Q

Wakeful sensory experiences of content that is not actually present

A

Hallucinations

116
Q

Which of the five sensory modalities are affected by hallucinations

A

All of them

Auditory
Visual
Tactile
Olfactory
Gustatory

117
Q

Very little information conveyed by speech. Often very sparse reply or lack of spontaneous speech.

A

Alogia

Poverty of content

118
Q

Sudden losing train of thought. Characterized by abrupt interruption in speech.

A

Thought blocking

119
Q

Speech content that has ideas presented in a sequence that is not closely related or does not make sense

A

Loosening of association

120
Q

Answers to interview questions diverge from being asked about. Is the interview question even asnwered?

A

Targentiality

121
Q

Using words in a sentence that are linked by rhyming or sounding similar.
“I fell down the well sell bell”

A

Clanging or clang association

122
Q

Real words are linked together in coherently.
Real words are basically nonsense

A

Word Salad

123
Q

Repeating words or ideas persistently

A

Perseveration

124
Q

What medical conditions may psychosis be associated with?

A
  • Delirium
  • Endocrine disorders
  • Hepatic and renal disorders
  • Infections
  • Demyelinating conditions
  • Neurological
  • Vitamin deficiency
125
Q

Extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics

A
  • Akathisia
  • Parkinsonian syndrome
  • Dystonia
  • Tardive Dyskinesia
126
Q

Motor restlessness with compelling urge to move and inability to sit still

A

Akathisia

127
Q

Mask like facies, resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, shuffling gait, psychomotor retardation

A

Parkinsonian Syndrome

128
Q

Involuntary contraction of muscles

A

Dystonia

129
Q
  • Involuntary movements of the face
  • Sucking or smacking of the lips
  • Movement of the tongue
  • Facial grimacing
  • Odd movements of extremities
  • Usually occur after greater than six months of treatment on antipsychotic
  • IRRIVERSABLE
A

Tardive Dyskinesia

130
Q

An enduring pattern of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about the environment and oneself.

A

Personality Disorder

131
Q

Characteristics of adjustment disorders

A
  • Inflexible and maladaptive personality traits across a wide range of situations
    • Cause significant distress and impairment in functioning in all areas of life
132
Q

Instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions.

  • Very impulsive behavior
    • Most widely studied personality disorder
A

Borderline Personality Disorder

133
Q

Lifelong disorder that includes a pattern of socially irresponsible, exploitative, and guiltless behavior.

A

Antisocial Personality Disorder

134
Q

Marked pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that is inconsistent with developmental level and clearly interferes with functioning in at least 2 settings (School, home, work)

A

Attention-Deficit / Hyperactivity-Disorder

135
Q

By what age should marked symptoms be present for a diagnosis of ADHD

A

Age 7

136
Q

Adults must have childhood onset, persistent and current symptoms to be diagnosed

A

Age 12

137
Q

What are factors that have been proposed contributors to ADHD

NO REAL CONSENSUS

A

Food additive/diet, lead contamination, cigarette/alcohol exposure, low birth weight

138
Q

Clinical findings found in correlation with ADHD

A
  • Marked inattention
  • Distractibility
  • Organization difficulties
  • Poor efficiency
  • Low frustration tolerance
  • Shifting activities
  • Difficulty organizing
    *
139
Q

Disorder that is characterized by a pattern of negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior

A

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

140
Q

habitual rule breaking defined by a pattern of aggression, destruction, lying, stealing, or truancy

A

Conduct disorder

141
Q

What are the most common treatments for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate

  • Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate

Amphetamines

  • Adderall, Dexedrine, Vyvanse
142
Q

Can patients taking ADHD medications be put at risk for substance abuse.

A

Yes

143
Q

What associated impairments are part of the prognosis for ADHD

A

Impairment in occupational, academic, social, and intrapersonal domains

144
Q

Disturbances in sexual functioning which causes clinically significant distress

A

Sexual Dysfunction

145
Q

Delayed or absent ejaculation/orgasm occurring in almost all occasions of partnered sexual activity and persists for a minimum of six months

A

Delayed Ejaculation

SIX Months

146
Q

What should treatment for delayed ejaculation be tailored for?

A

Patient/coupe psycho education

147
Q

What my cause delayed ejaculation in men?

A

Could be due to severe depression or anger at women in general or to sexual partner

148
Q

failure to obtain erections in a situation in which they were anticipated, causing embarrassment, self-doubt, and loss of self confidence

A

Erectile Dysfunction

149
Q

Typical causes for erectile dysfunction

A

Increased age, depression, smoking, diabetes, hypertension, nervous tissue disorders.

150
Q

What effects to nitrates have on the vascular system

A

Vasodilator

151
Q

Contraindication for avanafil, sildenafil, tadalafil, ad verdenafil

A

myocardial infarction within 6 months, hypotension, moderate-severe aortic stenosis, concurrent use of nitrates

152
Q

Absence of desire for sexual activity and persistently or recurrently deficient (or absent) sexual/erotic thoughts or fantasies for at least 6 MONTHS

A

Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder

153
Q

Typical causes for Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder

A

Hypogonadism. Transient stress or interpersonal conflict. Mood disorder. Schizophrenia. Substance Abuse. Medications. Age related decline in sexual desire.

154
Q

Lack of or significantly reduced sexual interest/arousal for at least 6 months in women

A

Female Sexual interest / arousal for at least six months

155
Q

Treatment options for Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder

A

Sex therapy

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

Bupropion

156
Q

Possible causes for male hypoactive sexual disorder

A
  • Hypogonadism
  • Transient stress or interpersonal conflict
  • Mood diorder
  • Schizophrenia
  • Substance abuse
  • Medications
    • Normal age related decline in sexual desire
157
Q

Persistent or recurrent pattern of ejaculation occurring during partnered sexual activity within approximately 1 minute following vaginal penetration and before the individual wishes it, present for at least six months, occurring all or almost all of the time and distressing

A

Premature ejaculation

158
Q

significant disturbance in sexual function which develop during or soon after substance intoxication or withdrawal or after exposure to a medication. the involved substance / medication is capable of producing these symptoms

A

substance/medical-induced sexual dysfunction

159
Q

are men or women more successful in suicide

A

men

160
Q

do men or women make more suicide attempts, with lower mortality rates

A

women

161
Q

what age group has has an increased rate of observed suicide

A

young

15 - 35

162
Q

what is the immediate goal when treating a suicidal patient

A

psychiatric evaluation - to assess the current suicidal risk and the need for hospitalization versus outpatient management

163
Q

What factors are positively correlated with suicide attempts

A

Alcohol, hopelessness, delusional thought, and complete or nearly complete loss of interest in life or ability to experience please

164
Q

Can the successful treatment of a patient at risk of suicide be achieved if the patient abuses drugs

A

No!

165
Q

What safety precautions should be taken for a patient who is at risk for suicide but when hospitalization is not indicated

A
  • Medication should be dispensed in small amounts
  • Guns and drugs should be removed from the household
  • Driving should be interdicted until improvement
166
Q

Thoughts about killing oneself

A

Suicidal idiation

167
Q

Self-injurious behavior intended to kill oneself but not fatal

A

Suicide attempt

168
Q

Thought of engaging in self-injurious behavior that are verbalized and intended to lead others to think that one wants to die, despite no intention of dying

A

Suiidal threat

169
Q

self-injurious behaviors that is intended to lead others to think that one wants to die, despite no intention of dying

A

suicidal gesture

170
Q

Deliberately hurting oneself without intent to die

Purposes not personal gain or attention

A

Non-suicidal self-injury

171
Q

what aspects of the patient’s childhood history are important when considering the relationship to borderline personality disorder.

A
  • Sexual/physical abuse, verbal abuse, neglect
    • early parental separation or loss. “Abandonment issues”
172
Q

Clinical features associated with borderline personality disorder

A
  • Affective instability (mood) triggered by stressors
  • Impulsive behaviors. Self damaging behaviors.
  • Tend to have poorer cognitive function
    • Suicidal threats, gestures, and attempts more common
173
Q

Lifelong disorder.

Pattern of socially irresponsible, exploitative, and guiltless behavior

A

Antisocial Personality Disorder

Psych and other stuff (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions