Psych Everything Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the paradox of progress?

A

Modern life improves but you have less time and more stress.

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2
Q

Examples of Paradox of Progress

A

Time, economics, choice, technology

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3
Q

Main shortcoming of self-help books

A

Psychobabble, not based on research, no specific directions, no consideration of situational constraints.

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4
Q

The science that studies behavior and the physiological and mental processes that underlie it.

A

Psychology

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5
Q

What makes psychology a science?

A

Empiricism and Theory

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6
Q

Two types of research of psychology

A

Experimental and descriptive

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7
Q

What is experimental research?

A

Demonstrate a cause and effect relationship

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8
Q

What is descriptive research?

A

Used to observe and describe behavior (correlation)

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9
Q

What is an operational definition?

A

How a researcher decides to measure variables- how you will measure IV’s and DV’s

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10
Q

Correlation coefficient (r)

A

Ranges form -1 to 1

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11
Q

According to levels of processing approach to memory, thinking about synonyms is one method of _____ processing that should ____ memory for that term.

A

Deep; increase

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12
Q

Examples of mnemonic devices for memory

A

Acrostics, Rhymes, link method, method of loci

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13
Q

A durable disposition to behave in a particular way in a variety of situations

A

Personality trait

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14
Q

What did Freud’s theory of personality focus on?

A

Early childhood experiences and fantasies

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15
Q

First assumption of psychoanalytic theory

A

Personality is governed by unconscious forces that we cannot control

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16
Q

Second assumption of psychoanalytic theories

A

Childhood experiences play a significant role in determining adult personality.

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17
Q

Third assumption of psychoanalytic theories

A

Personality is shaped by the manner in which individuals cope with sexual urges

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18
Q

What is the id governed by?

A

The pleasure principle

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19
Q

What is the superego governed by?

A

The ego ideal

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20
Q

When is the id developed

A

Present at birth

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21
Q

When is the superego developed?

A

Childhood

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22
Q

What is the ego governed by?

A

The reality principle

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23
Q

When is the ego developed

A

Childhood

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24
Q

What develops first the ego or superego?

A

the ego

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25
Q

What is behavior the result of for Freud?

A

Ongoing internal conflict among the id, ego, superego

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26
Q

We use _____ when internal conflict arouse anxiety for Freud.

A

Defense mechanisms

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27
Q

What is the difference between internationalization and rationalization?

A

Internationalization: thinking away an emotion or reaction that you don’t enjoy feeling.

Rationalization: When you rationalize something, you try to explain it away.

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28
Q

What do behaviorists argue?

A

People are products of their environments and develop specific behaviors as a result of experience.

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29
Q

Who is associated with classical conditioning?

A

Ivan Pavlov

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30
Q

The initial learning of the stimulus-response relationship

A

Classical conditioning

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31
Q

What is the extinction in classical conditioning?

A

Reduction of conditioned response after repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus alone

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32
Q

What is spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning?

A

Re-emergence of a conditioned response some time after extinction has occurred.

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33
Q

When similar stimuli elicit the same response as a conditioned stimulus after classical conditioning has occurred.

A

Stimulus generalization

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34
Q

An organism learns to emit a specific behavior in the presence of a stimulus, but not in the presence of stimuli similar to the original stimulus

A

Stimulus discrimination

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35
Q

What did Little Albert demonstrate?

A

Phobias as products of classical conditioning

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36
Q

What is counter conditioning?

A

Systematic desensitization

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37
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Process whereby a behavior becomes associated with its consequences

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38
Q

Operant conditioning is also known as ____

A

Instrumental conditioning

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39
Q

In operant conditioning, when a behavior leads to positive outcomes, that behavior will increase- this is known as ______

A

positive reinforcement

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40
Q

(Operant) Reinforcement always _____ a response

A

strengthens

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41
Q

(Operant) Punishment always _____ a response

A

weakens

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42
Q

(Operant) your instructor yells at you because you arrive late to class

A

Positive punishment

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43
Q

(Operant) Your partner refuses to kiss you because you smoke

A

negative punishment

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44
Q

(Operant) You receive a thank you letter from a friend after sending her a birthday gift

A

Positive reinforcement

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45
Q

(Operant) You take tylenol to get rid of a headache

A

Negative reinforcement

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46
Q

(Operant) a stimulus that has survival value and is therefore intrinsically rewarding.

A

Primary Reinforcers

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47
Q

A neutral stimulus that becomes rewarding when associated with a primary reinforcer

A

Secondary Reinforcer

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48
Q

Effective punishment is most effective when combined with what?

A

Reinforcement

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49
Q

What is shaping? (Operant conditioning)

A

Selective reinforcement of behaviours that gradually approach a desired response

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50
Q

What is behaviour modification?

A

A technique that brings about therapeutic change in behaviour through the use of secondary reinforcers.

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51
Q

Use _____ analysis to study trats

A

Factor

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52
Q

Each individual has a unique set of personality traits called _____ _____

A

Personality dispositions

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53
Q

Big-Five model

A

Openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

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54
Q

Projective tests are used for what?

A

To uncover unconscious motives

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55
Q

What is a thematic apperception test?

A

Black and white pictures (projection test)

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56
Q

What is stress?

A

Any circumstance that threatens or is perceived to threaten your well-being and thereby tax your coping abilities.

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57
Q

__% of Canadians experience stress in their daily lives

A

76%

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58
Q

Biggest stressers for canadians

A

Jobs, finances, health and family life

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59
Q

Primary appraisal of stress: perceive situation as _____/_____ and ____/____

A

Relevant/irrelevant; threatening/harmless

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60
Q

What is self-imposed stress the result of?

A

Setting unrealistic goals

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61
Q

3 types of stress?

A

Acute, chronic and anticipatory

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62
Q

3 types of internal conflict

A

approach-approach, avoidance-avoidance, approach-avoidance

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63
Q

Two subs-types of pressure

A

Pressure to preform

Pressure to conform

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64
Q

Responses to stress stages

A

Stressful event-appraisal- reaction

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65
Q

Responses to stress can be ____, ____ and _____

A

Emotional, physiological, and behavioural

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66
Q

Emotional reactions equation

A

Feeling + Physiological changes

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67
Q

Positive emotional reactions to stress are related to _____

A

Resiliance

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68
Q

What is the inverted-U hypothesis?

A

Optimal arousal level

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69
Q

What is the optimal level of arousal for simple tasks?

A

High

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70
Q

What is the optimal level of arousal for complex tasks?

A

Low

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71
Q

What nervous system tells you “it’s go time”

A

Sympathetic

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72
Q

What nervous system tells you “take ‘er down a notch”

A

Parasympathetic

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73
Q

General adaption syndrome

A

Alarm— Resistance— Exhaustion

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74
Q

What are the glans that release hormones into your bloodstream?

A

Endocrine system

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75
Q

What does the corticosteroid pathway do?

A

Increase energy

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76
Q

What does the catecholamine pathway do?

A

Mobilize for actions

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77
Q

Who came up with General adpation syndrome?

A

Hans Seyle

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78
Q

Belief that we can influence our environment in ways that determine whether we experience positive or negative outcomes

A

Perceived control

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79
Q

Belief in one’s ability to carry out specific actions that produce desired outcomes

A

Self-efficacy

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80
Q

What is psychosematic diseases

A

Not imaginary, but rather caused (at least in part) my mental factors

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81
Q

Enduring Psychological disturbances following a major event.

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder

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82
Q

A key predictor of developing PTSD

A

Intensity of one’s reaction at the time of the event.

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83
Q

Social support is an important _____ of stress.

A

Moderator

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84
Q

A disposition that is associated with strong stress resistance

A

Hardiness

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85
Q

3 qualities of hardiness

A

Commitment to a cause
Sense of control
Appetite for challenge

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86
Q

Efforts to master, reduce, or tolerate the demands created by stress

A

Coping

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87
Q

Who came up with learned helplessness?

A

Martin Seligman

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88
Q

Passive behaviour produce by exposure to unavoidable aversive effects

A

Learned helplessness

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89
Q

Coping strategies of limited value

A

Self-blame (Negative self talk)
Self-indulgence
Learned Helplessness
Self-delusion

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90
Q

Attributing failures to personal shortcomings, focus only on negative feedback, results in pessimistic view.

A

Catastrophic thinking

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91
Q

Better to have _____ coping strategies than _____ strategies

A

flexible; consistent

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92
Q
Detecting and disputing rational self talk
Rational thinking
Using Positive reinterpretation
Finding humor in the situation
Turning to religon
A

Appraisal-focused strategies

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93
Q
Active problem solving
Seeking social support
Enhancing time management
Improving self-control
Becoming more assertive
A

Problem-focused strategies

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94
Q
Releasing pent-up emotions
Distracting oneself
Managing hostile feelings and forgiving others
Exercising
Meditating
Using systematic relaxation procedures
A

Emotion-focused strategies

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95
Q

What coping strategy involves using systematic problem solving?

A

Problem-focused

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96
Q

What coping strategy involves seeking help?

A

Problem-Focused

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97
Q

What coping strategy involves time management?

A

Problem-focused

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98
Q

Ability to understand you own and other’s emotions and use this knowledge to guide your thinking and actions

A

Emotional intelligence

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99
Q

Four components of emotional intelligence

A
  1. Accurately perceiving emotions in yourself and others.
  2. Knowing how your emotions shape your thinking.
  3. An understanding of complex or contradictory emotions.
  4. Regulation of
    emotions, especially negative ones.
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100
Q

Talking about traumatic events.

A

Emotional disclosure

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101
Q

Self-concepts also called

A

Self-schemas

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102
Q

Gauge for social comparisons

A

Festinger’s social comparison theory

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103
Q

Thinking Ugly is bad for you ted talk

A

Meaghan Ramsey

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104
Q

Thinking Ugly is bad for you ted talk

A

Meaghan Ramsey

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105
Q

Group of techniques designed to turn one’s consciousness away from the outer world toward one’s inner cues and awareness

A

Meditation

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106
Q

Two types of meditation

A

Mindfulness

Concentration

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107
Q

What is the key to meditation?

A

Relaxation

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108
Q

Low acceptance, high control parenting

A

Authoritarian

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109
Q

High acceptance, high control parenting

A

Authoritative

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110
Q

Low acceptance, low control parenting

A

Neglectful

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111
Q

High acceptance, low control parenting

A

Permissive

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112
Q

Measure of interpersonal popularity and sucess

A

Sociometer theory

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113
Q

The act of seeking a positive self-concept

A

Self-enhancement

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114
Q

Act of seeking an accurate self-concept

A

Self-assessment

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115
Q

BIRG

A

Basking in reflected glory

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116
Q

CORF

A

Cutting off reflected failure

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117
Q

Inferences people make that cause their behaviour

A

Self-attributions

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118
Q

One’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviours that should lead to expected outcomes

A

Self-efficacy

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119
Q

One’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviours that should lead to expected outcomes

A

Self-efficacy

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120
Q

Theory in which you have a limited amount of self-control

A

Ego depletion model of self-regulatiion

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121
Q

Who came up with the model of attribution?

A

Harold Kelley

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122
Q

Mental representations of objects or categories of objects

A

Schemas

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123
Q

Who preformed the line study?

A

Asch

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124
Q

Three types of selves

A

Actual, ideal and ought

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125
Q

Typically a child’s self-concept is ____

A

concrete

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126
Q

As we mature we place less emphasis on physical characteristics and more on _______ _____ (Self-concept)

A

Psychological states

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127
Q

Actual vs ideal self

A

Disappointment
Dejection
Sadness

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128
Q

Actual vs ought

A

Anxiety
Irritability
Guilt

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129
Q

How people think they ought to be and is made up of the qualities that people think they should posess

A

Ought self

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130
Q

How people would ideally like to be and is made up of the qualities that people would like to have

A

Ideal self

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131
Q

Who came up with social discrepancy theory?

A

E. Troy Higgins

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132
Q

Overall assessment of your worth as a person

A

Self-esteem

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133
Q

The tendency to regard oneself as grandiosely self-important

A

Narcissism

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134
Q

Narcissism can lead to high _____ when their ego is threatened

A

agression

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135
Q

Two kinds of cognitive processes

A

Automatic and Controlled

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136
Q

People conserve resources by following simple rules when making judgments.

A

Cognitive miser model

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137
Q

(cognitive miser model) Rules based on ____ _____ and ____ _____

A

Past experiences and world knowledge

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138
Q

A person’s desire for truthful information about themselves

A

Self-assessment motive

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139
Q

Drives people toward information that matches what they already believe about themselves.

A

Self-verification motive

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140
Q

Drive to understand ourselves to know how we can make ourselves better

A

Self-improvement motive

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141
Q

Tendency to seek positive and reject negative information about ourselves.

A

Self-enhancement

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142
Q

The attempt to get others to see them in a positive light

A

Self-enhancement

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143
Q

examples of self-enhancement strategies

A

Downward social comparison
self -serving bias
BIRG
self-handicapping

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144
Q

Tendency to attribute our sucesses to internal causes and our failures to external causes

A

Self-serving bias

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145
Q

The process of directing and controlling one’s behavior

A

Self-regulation

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146
Q

According to the _____ people have a limited amount of self-control

A

Ego depletion model of self-regulation

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147
Q

4 sources of self-efficacy

A

Mastery experiences
Vicarious experiences
Persuasion and encouragement
Interpretation of emotional arousal

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148
Q

Seemingly intentional actions that thwart a person’s self-interest

A

Self-defeating behaviours

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149
Q

3 categories of self-defeating behaviours

A

Deliberate self-destruction
Trade-offs
Counterproductive strategies

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150
Q

When verbal and nonverbal cues directly conflict, perceivers rely on _____ to interpret meaning

A

non-verbal cues

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151
Q

Example of information we use to form impressions of others.

A

Appearance
Verbal and nonverbal behaviour
Actions
Situations

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152
Q

An explanation for the cause of an event or behaviour

A

Attributions

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153
Q

Low consensus + high consistency + low distinctiveness

A

Internal Attribution

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154
Q

High consensus + High Consistency + High distinctiveness

A

External attribution

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155
Q

When people attribute the cause of others’ behaviour to personal dispositions, traits, abilities or feeling

A

Internal attributions

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156
Q

When people attribute the cause of others’ behaviour to situational demands or environmental contraints

A

External attribution

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157
Q

When are we most likely to make attributions?

A

Behavior is unexpected
Events are personally relevant
Other’s motives are suspicious

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158
Q

Snap judgements

A

Automatic

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159
Q

Systematic judgements

A

Controlled

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160
Q

Schemas aid in the ______ of events and the _______ of events.

A

Categorization; predictability

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161
Q

What do schemas encompass our knowledge of?

A

Ourselves
Other people
Special roles
Specific events

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162
Q

The tendency to search for or interpret new information in ways that confirm your expectations/beliefs while not pursuing disconfirming information

A

Confirmation bias

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163
Q

_____ question seek to confirm a hypothesis

A

Biased

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164
Q

_____ questions seek to test the accuracy of a hypothesis

A

Diagnostic

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165
Q

Expectations about a person cause him or her to behave in ways that confirm the expectations

A

Self-fulfilling prophecy

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166
Q

Errors in person perception

A

Cognitive distortions

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167
Q

Cognitive distortions occur as a consequence of ______ ______

A

automatic processing

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168
Q

cognitive shortcuts in which we categorize people on the basis on nationality, race, gender, etc.

A

Social categorizations

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169
Q

People perceive similar individuals to be members of their _____ and dissimilar people to be members of the _____

A

ingroup; outgroup

170
Q

3 results of social catgeorization

A

Negative attitudes
Outgroup homogeneity effect
Visibility

171
Q

Widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a group

A

Stereotypes

172
Q

Why are stereotypes functional?

A

They require less effort (cognitive miser)

173
Q

A negative evaluation of a group, typically based on unfavourable (and often wrong) stereotypes about the group

A

Prejudice

174
Q

Behaviour targeted at individuals or groups intended to hold them apart and treat them differently

A

Discrimination

175
Q

3 examples of ways to combat prejudice

A

Contact hypothesis
Recategorization (work together toward shared goals)
Cooperative learning technique

176
Q

Tendency to overestimate the dispositional causes of others’ behaviour and fail to take into account situational constraints

A

The fundamental attribution error

177
Q

People from _______ cultures are most likely to engage in fundamental attribution error

A

Individualistic

178
Q

Step 2 of fundamental attribution error requires ____

A

effort

179
Q

Why do people believe they “get what they deserve”

A

Self-protective

180
Q

Who preformed the line judgement studies?

A

Asch

181
Q

When a person changes her or his attitudes or behaviours so they are consistent with those of other people or social norms

A

Conformity

182
Q

Two types of social influence

A

Informational and normative

183
Q

A change in public behaviour requested by another person or group even when private beliefs have not changed

A

Compliance

184
Q

Principles of compliance

A
Friendship/liking
Scarcity
Authority
Commitment/consistency
Reciprocity
185
Q

What compliance principle is foot in the door

A

consistency

186
Q

What compliance principle of lowball

A

Consistency

187
Q

What principle is door in the face?

A

Reciprocity

188
Q

Compliance with the orders of another person or group, usually from someone in a position of authority

A

Obedience

189
Q

Who preformed classic studies of obedience?

A

Stanley Milgram

190
Q

Psychologists predicted how many people would go to maximum level in milgram’s studies?

A

2%

191
Q

How many people actually went to maximum level in Milgrim’s studies

A

65%

192
Q

When is obedience strongest?

A

Demands increase gradually
Others take responsibility for your actions
We are motivated to meet the authority figure’s expectations

193
Q

Elements of interpersonal communication

A
Sender
Receiver
Message
Channel
Noise
Context
194
Q

Nonverbal communication conveys _____

A

emotion

195
Q

Tibet people greet their friends by

A

sticking out their toungues

196
Q

In bulgaria, nodding your head means ____

A

no

197
Q

The study of people’s use of interpersonal space

A

Proxemics

198
Q

Culture-specific norms that govern the expression of emotions

A

Display rules

199
Q

How many distinctive facial expressions did Ekman and Freisen indicate as universal

A

6

200
Q

6 emotions that are universal

A
anger
disgust
fear
happiness
sadness
surprise
201
Q

Eye contact is affected by ____ and ____

A

status; gender

202
Q

Study of communication through body posture

A

Kinesics

203
Q

Includes all vocal cues other than the content of the verbal message itself

A

Paralanguage

204
Q

Ability to encode and decode non-verbal cues

A

Non-verbal sensitivity

205
Q

Where and when to display emotion

A

Display rules

206
Q

Response to communication apprehension

A

Communication avoidance

207
Q

What is not related to lying

A

Talking speed
Number of pauses
Amount of posture shifting
Amount of eye-contact

208
Q

Most reliable detectors of lying.

A
Voice pitch increases
People say less
People touch themselves more
Tension increases 
Less unusual content
209
Q

Polygraph tests are best conceptualized as ____ ____

A

emotion detectors

210
Q

The act of sharing information about yourself with another person

A

Self-disclosure

211
Q

Steps of signaling interest

A

Face towards person
Don’t cross arms/legs
Maintain eye contact
Nod head

212
Q

Steps of Active listening

A

Attend and process info
Listen before responding
Seek clarification
Paraphrase

213
Q

Styles of managing conflict

A
Avoiding/withdrawing
Accommodating
Competing/forcing
Compromising
Collaborating
214
Q

Two dimensions of managing conflict

A

Concern for self

Concern for others

215
Q

Close relationships generally involve intimate _______

A

self-disclosure

216
Q

Recipe for romance

A

Proximity
Familiarity
Physical attractiveness

217
Q

1 predictor of date satisfaction for males

A

Physical attractiveness

218
Q

Things that people agree on as attractive features.

A
  1. symmetrical faces
  2. average faces
  3. Physique
  4. Facial features
219
Q

What facial features are more attractive for women

A

Large eyes, prominent cheekbones, small bones, and a wide smile

220
Q

What facial features are more attractive for men

A

Broad jaws, chiseled features

221
Q

Recipe for romance

A

Proximity
Familiarity
Physical attractiveness
Reciprocity

222
Q

What did the 1965 Byrne and Nelson study show?

A

Students with similar attitudes reported more attraction to each other

223
Q

Commitment in a relationship is a function of

A

Satisfaction- Alternatives+ Investments

224
Q

Theory that states relationships are about resource acquisition

A

Social exchange theory

225
Q

Rewards- cost=

A

Outcome

226
Q

Outcome-Comparison-

A

Satisfaction

227
Q

Satisfaction-comparison level for alternatives+investments-

A

Commitment

228
Q

For Social exchange theory, satisfaction n a relation is a function of your what?

A

Personal comparison level

229
Q

A strong emotional tie a person feels toward special people in his or her life

A

Attachment

230
Q

Commonalities between infant and romantic attachments

A

Intense fascination with other person
Distress at separation
Make an effort to stay close and spend time together

231
Q

Differences between infant and romantic attachments

A

Infant care giving one-sided rather than mutual

Sexual element to romantic attachments

232
Q

First psychologists to study attachment

A

John Bowlby

233
Q

Why did John Bowlby argue that an emotional tie to the caregiver evolved?

A

Because it promotes survival

234
Q

Who examined separation anxiety?

A

Mary Ainsworth

235
Q

When did Ainsworth say that separation anxiety developed?

A

7-8 months

236
Q

Fear response in which the infant protests the departure of the caregiver

A

Separation Anxiety

237
Q

Who created the strange situation study?

A

Mary Ainsworth

238
Q

Three attachment styles

A

Secure
Avoidant
Anxious-Ambivalent

239
Q

Venture away from mother to explore, are upset when she leaves, not well comforted by a stranger, quickly calm down when she returns

A

Secure Attachment

240
Q

Unconcerned when mother leaves, equally comfortable with (and comforted by) mother and stranger, do not immediately go to mother when she returns

A

Avoidant attachment

241
Q

Does not venture away from mother to explore, becomes angry when she leaves

A

Anxious-ambivalent attachment

242
Q

Attachment styles least likely to have positive relationship

A

Avoidant attachment

243
Q

Obsessed and preoccupied with their relationships

A

Anxious-ambivalent

244
Q

Who came up with triangular theory of love

A

Sternberg

245
Q

Intimacy + passion

A

Romantic love

246
Q

Intimacy alone

A

Liking

247
Q

intimacy + commitment

A

Compassionate Love

248
Q

Commitment alone

A

Empty love

249
Q

Passion + Commitment

A

Fatuous love

250
Q

Passion alone

A

Infatuation

251
Q

Intimacy+ passion+commitment

A

Consummate love

252
Q

Ted Talk body language

A

Amy Cuddy

253
Q

Widely shared beliefs about a person’s abilities, personality traits, and social behavior that differ on the basis of gender

A

Gender Stereotypes

254
Q

An orientation toward action and accomplishment- refers to masculine traits

A

Instrumentality

255
Q

An orientation toward emotion and relationships- refers to feminine traits

A

Expressiveness

256
Q

The belief that the male is the norm

A

Androcentrism

257
Q

Combines the statistical results of many studies of the same questions, yielding an estimate of the size and consistency of the variable’s effects

A

Meta-anaylsis

258
Q

Combines the statistical results of many studies of the same questions, yielding an estimate of the size and consistency of the variable’s effects

A

Meta-anaylsis

259
Q

Based on the meta-analyses, there are more gender similarities than differences. When there are differences, they are small.

A

Gender similarities hypothesis

260
Q

Although there are no gender difference in _____ intelligence, there are subtle differences in _____ cognitive abilities

A

Overall; specific

261
Q

____ start speaking sooner, have larger vocabularies and better reading scores

A

Girls

262
Q

____ fare better on verbal analogies, but are also more likely to stutter or suffer from dyslexia

A

Boys

263
Q

____ have a more positive attitude toward math

A

Males

264
Q

In high school, ___ start to outperform ____ in complex math problem solving

A

Boys; girls

265
Q

____ outperform ___ at the high end of the mathematical ability distrubution

A

males; females

266
Q

Research suggests differences in gender for math is due to difference in _____

A

socialization

267
Q

The largest gender difference in cognitive abilities is in ____ ____

A

Spatial abilities

268
Q

____ and ____ can improve mental rotation in both genders

A

Experience; training

269
Q

Females score somewhat lower than males on measures of _____ self-esteem

A

global

270
Q

There are larger gender differences in self-esteem in ____ and ____ income levels

A

Lower; middle

271
Q

Behavior that is intended to hurt someone, whether physically or verbally

A

Aggression

272
Q

Gender differences in aggression depends on the ____ it takes

A

form

273
Q

Males are consistently more likely to engage in ____ and ____ aggression

A

Physical; verbal

274
Q

Male-to-female arrest ratio in Canada is…

A

5:1

275
Q

Women charged with commiting ___% of all crime in Canada

A

17%

276
Q

Behaviours that hurt another’s feelings

A

Relational agression

277
Q

Behaviour that do not involve confront the target directly

A

Indirect aggression

278
Q

Females more typically engage in ____ and ____ aggression

A

Relational; Indirect

279
Q

___ talk and interrupt more than do ____

A

Men; women

280
Q

Antisocial behavior, alcoholism, and substance abuse disorders are more common in ___

A

men

281
Q

____ are more likely to suffer from depression, anxiety, PTSD, and eating disorders

A

Women

282
Q

____ are more likely to self- harm

A

Females

283
Q

____ attempt suicide more often, but ___ have more completed suicides

A

Females; males

284
Q

Differences seem larger because they are exaggerated in our culture

A

Social role theory

285
Q

Differences also seem larger because we construct our own realities in accordance with societal expectations

A

Social constructionism theory

286
Q

______ psychologists argue these differences come from a time in which different demands were placed on males and females for survival

A

Evolutionary

287
Q

Males have more ____ specialization than females

A

Celebral

288
Q

Females have a larger ____ _____ which allows greater communication between hemispheres when completing similar tasks

A

Corpus Callosum

289
Q

Chemical substances released into the bloodstream by the endocrine glands

A

Hormones

290
Q

____ plays an important role in sexual desire for both men and women

A

Testosterone

291
Q

Children learned gendered behaviour by observe and imitate adults

A

Social Learning theory

292
Q

As children develop schemas for other things around them, they also develop a schema for their gender and adjust their behaviour to it

A

Gender Schema Theory

293
Q

According to _____, young children are especially likely to imitate same-gender adults

A

social cognitive theory

294
Q

Occurs when a child’s behaviour is influenced by observing others, who are called ____

A

models

295
Q

Gender roles are shaped by consequences

A

Reinforcement and punishment

296
Q

Bechdal test requirements

A
  • Are there two or more women in it who have names?
  • Do they talk to each other?
  • Do they talk to each other about something other than a man.
297
Q

Two common problems are associated with sexism

A
  • Economic discrimination

- Aggression towards women

298
Q

Sexism that appears subjectively positive but are actually damaging to people and gender equity more broadly

A

Benevolent sexism

299
Q

5 Myths about mental illness

A
  1. only weak people suffer from mental problems
  2. People with mental disorders are lazy
  3. People with mental issues can “get rid of” it if they want to
  4. People who are mentally ill are violent
  5. With time, it will go away by itself
300
Q

The ____ proposes that it is useful to think of abnormal behaviour as a disease

A

Medical model

301
Q

Abnormal behaviour is characterized by 3 things

A
  1. Deviance
  2. Maladaptive behaviour
  3. Distressing
302
Q

Who did the study on sane people going to psychiatric hospitals?

A

Rosenhan

303
Q

DSM means

A

Diagnostic and Statistical manual of mental disorders

304
Q

3 Goals of DSM-5

A
  1. To provide a system for diagnosing disorders according to observable behaviour
  2. To improve the reliability of diagnoses
  3. To make diagnoses consistent with research evidence and practical experience
305
Q

When individuals meet the criteria of 2+ conditions

A

Comorbidity

306
Q

Chronic High level of anxiety, not tied to any specific threat

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

307
Q

Lifetime percentage of generalized anxiety disorder

A

5-6%

308
Q

Recurrent attacks of overwhelming anxiety that usually occur suddenly and execpectedly

A

Panic Disorder

309
Q

Lifetime prevalence of Panic Disorder

A

3.5%

310
Q

People hide in their homes out of fear of the outside world

A

Agoraphobia

311
Q

An excessive, persistent and irrational fear and avoidance of specific objects or situations that present no realistic danger

A

Phobias

312
Q

Anxiety involving a fear of and desire to avoid situations where one might be scrutinized by others

A

Social phobia

313
Q

Lifetime prevalence of social phobia

A

13%

314
Q

Lifetime prevalence of specific phobias.

A

10%

315
Q

Persistent uncontrollable thoughts that cause compulsive rituals that interfere with daily life

A

Obsessive- Compulsive disorder

316
Q

Lifetime prevalence of OCD

A

2-3%

317
Q

3 Categories of symptoms of PTSD

A
  • Re-experiencing the event
  • Avoidance and emotional numbing
  • Changes in sleeping patterns and increased alertness
318
Q

Lifetime prevalence of PTSD.

A

8%

319
Q

Some people are more sensitive to internal physiological symptoms of anxiety and overreact with fear when they occur

A

Anxiety sensitivity theory

320
Q

Brain’s neurotransmitters may underlie anxiety

A

GABA

321
Q

Reasons people are more likely to experience anxiety disorders.

A
  • Misinterpret harmless situations as threatening
  • Focus excess attention on perceived threats
  • Selectively recall information that seems threatening
322
Q

_____ conditioning may cause fear of a particular object or scenario

A

Classical

323
Q

Avoidance is negatively reinforced through ____ conditioning

A

Operant

324
Q

Persistent feelings of sadness & despair, loss of interest in previous sources of pleasure, sleep and appetite difficulties

A

Major Depressive Disorder

325
Q

Lifetime prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder

A

13-14%

326
Q

Major depressive disorder _x more common in women in NA

A

2

327
Q

% of people with depression that experience a repeat episode

A

75-95%

328
Q

Bipolar was formerly known as….

A

Manic depression

329
Q

Manic Phase

A

Rapid speech, inflated self-esteem, impulsiveness, euphoria, decreased need for sleep

330
Q

Depressed phase

A

Moody and sad, feelings of hopelessness

331
Q

Lifetime prevalence of Bipolar

A

1%

332
Q

Gender differences in bipolar

A

No differences

333
Q

_____ rates suggest there is a genetic basis for mood disorders

A

Concordance

334
Q

Concordance rates for identical twins

A

65-72%

335
Q

Concordance rates for fraternal twins

A

14%

336
Q

Mood disorders are correlated with low levels of two neurotransmitters in the brain

A

Norepinephrine

Seratonin

337
Q

Depression is correlated with reduced ______ volume

A

hippocampal

338
Q

What may play a central role in the regulation of mood and depression

A

neurogenisis

339
Q

(Hormonal) Overactivity in the ___ axis in response to stress may play a role in the development of depression

A

HPA

340
Q

Beck’s negative triad

A

Negative view of the self, negative view of the world, negative view of the future

341
Q

Class of disorders marked by disturbance in thought that spill over to affect perceptual, social, and emotional processes

A

Schizophrenia

342
Q

Lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia

A

1%

343
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Delusions, hallucinations, disordered behaviour, disorganized speech

344
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Disturbed emotion, alogia, avolition

345
Q

Concordance rates for identical twins for anxiety disorders

A

65-72%

346
Q

Concordance rates for fraternal twins for anxiety disorders

A

14%

347
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Disturbed emotion, alogia, avolition

348
Q

Concordance in identical twins of schizophrenia

A

48%

349
Q

Concordance in fraternal twins for schizophrenia

A

17%

350
Q

Schizophrenia is linked with the transmitter ____

A

dopamine

351
Q

brain imaging scans have shown that patients with schizophrenia have enlarged brain ___

A

ventricles (fluid-filled holes in the brain)

352
Q

disruptions in the normal maturational processes of the brain before or at birth may contribute in part to schizophrenia

A

Neurodevelopmental hypothesis

353
Q

____ may interact with genetic vulnerability to trigger the onset of schizophrenia

A

Stress

354
Q

Characterized by profound impairment of social interaction and communication and by severely restricted interests and activities

A

Autism spectrum disorder

355
Q

Rote repetition of others’ words

A

Echolalia

356
Q

Lifetime prevalence of autism

A

1%

357
Q

How many times more likely is Autism in boys than girls.

A

4-5

358
Q

Most theorists believe Autism has ____ origins

A

biological

359
Q

All forms of therapy will involve ____ and _____

A

Therapist and clinic

360
Q

What are the three main categories of therapy

A
  1. Insight therapies
  2. Behaviour therapies
  3. Biomedical therapies
361
Q

___% of North Americans seek mental health services each year

A

15

362
Q

____ and _____ most common reasons for treatment

A

anxiety and depression

363
Q

Who is most likely to see treatment?

A

Women; people with more education

364
Q

Specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders and everyday behavioural problems

A

Clinical and counseling psychologists.

365
Q

Physicians who specialize in the treatment of psychological disorders

A

Psychiatrist

366
Q

Clinical and counseling psychologists require a _____

A

doctorate

367
Q

Clinical and counseling psycholgists are more likely to use ______ methods.

A

Behavioural

368
Q

Psychiatrists earn an ___

A

M.D.

369
Q

Psychiatrists typically emphasize ____ therapies

A

Drug

370
Q

Psychologists cannot prescribe ____

A

medication

371
Q

Involve verbal interactions intended to enhance clients’ self-knowledge and thus promote healthful changes in personality and behaviour

A

Insight therapies

372
Q

Insight therapies include what 3 things.

A
  1. Psychoanalysis
  2. Client-centered therapy
  3. Cognitive therapy
373
Q

Emphasize the recovery of unconscious conflicts, motives, and defenses.

A

Psychoanalysis

374
Q

Who developed psychoanalysis

A

Sigmund Freud

375
Q

Two techniques that require interpretation of clues about unconscious conflicts

A
  1. Free association

2. Dream Analysis

376
Q

Free association and dream analysis require ______ of clues about unconscious conflicts

A

interpretation

377
Q

Largely unconscious defensive maneuvers intended to hinder the progress of therapy

A

Reisistance

378
Q

When clients start relating to their therapists in ways that mimic critical relationships in their lives

A

Transference

379
Q

An insight therapy that emphasizes providing a supportive emotional climate for clients, who play a major role in determining the pace and direction of their therapy

A

Client-centered therapy

380
Q

Client centered therapy is rooted in what?

A

Humanistic perspective and the work of Carl Rogers

381
Q

Client-centered therapies try to foster ______ and ____ ____ in clients

A

Self-acceptance; personal growth

382
Q

Client Centered therapies help clients re-structure _____ to fit better with reality

A

Self-concept

383
Q

Rogers believed 3 elements were necessary to promote positive changes in therapy

A
  1. Genuineness
  2. Unconditional positive regard
  3. Empathy
384
Q

Goal of therapy in client-centered therapy

A

Help the client become more aware of and comfortable with their genuine selves.

385
Q

Treatment that emphasizes recognizing and changing negative thoughts and maladaptive behaviours.

A

Cognitive Therapy

386
Q

Cognitive therapy is based on the notion that depression is caused by errors in thinking that make depressed people more likely to:

A
  1. Blame their setbacks on personal inadequacies
  2. Focus on selectively negative events
  3. Make overly pessimistic projections about the future
  4. Draw negative conclusions about their self-worth
387
Q

(Cognitive errors that promote depression) If it is true in one case, it applies to any case that is even slightly similar

A

Overgeneralization

388
Q

(Cognitive errors that promote depression) The only events that matter are failures, deprivation, and so on.

A

Selective abstraction

389
Q

(Cognitive errors that promote depression) I am responsible for all bad things, failures and so on.

A

Excessive responsibility

390
Q

(Cognitive errors that promote depression) If it is true in the past, then it is always going to be true

A

Assuming temporal causality

391
Q

(Cognitive errors that promote depression) I am the center of everyone’s attention, especially when it comes to bad performances or personal attributes.

A

Self-references

392
Q

Always think of the worst. it is most likely to happen to you.

A

Catastophizing

393
Q

Everything is either one extreme or another

A

Dichotomous thinking

394
Q

Main goal in cognitive therapy

A

to change the way clients think

395
Q

Therapists try to help clients do 2 things in cognitive therapy.

A
  1. Detect and recognize automatic negative thoughts and maladaptive beliefs.
  2. use more reasonable standards of evaluation.
396
Q

Patients should see results after __ sessions in insight therapy

A

10

397
Q

Involve the application of the principles of learning to change clients’ maladaptive behaviours

A

Behaviour therapies

398
Q

Behaviour theory is based on two assumptions

A
  1. Behaviour is a product of learning

2. What has been learned can be unlearned

399
Q

Behaviour therapy used to reduce clients’ anxiety through counterconditioning

A

Systematic desensitization

400
Q

Goal of systematic desenstization

A

Break down association between CS and CR of anxiety

401
Q

First step of behaviour desensitization

A

Build a fear hierarchy

402
Q

Second step of behaviour therapy

A

Trained in deep muscle relaxation

403
Q

Third step of behaviour therapy

A

Pairs the learned relaxation with each step of the hierarchy

404
Q

Behavior therapy in which an aversive stimulus is paired with a stimulus that elicits an undesirable response

A

Aversion therapy

405
Q

Physiological interventions intended to reduce symptoms associated with psychological disorders

A

Biomedical therapies

406
Q

2 biomedical therapies

A

Drug Therapy

Electroconvulsive therapy

407
Q

Treatment of mental disorders with medication

A

Psychopharmacotherapy (or drug therapy)

408
Q

4 main categories of therapeutic drugs

A
  1. Antianxiety
  2. Antipsychotic
  3. Antidepressant
  4. Mood Stabilizers
409
Q

Used to relieve tension apprehension and nervousness

A

Antianxiety drugs

410
Q

Used to gradually reduce psychotic symptoms, including hyperactivity, mental confusion, hallucinations, and delusions

A

Antipsychotic drugs

411
Q

Antipsychotics work ___ and reduce symptoms in __% of patients

A

gradually; 70

412
Q

Irreversible neurological disorder marked by chronic tremors and involuntary spastic movements

A

tardive dyskinesia

413
Q

Used to gradually elevate mood and help bring people out of a depression

A

Antidepressant drugs

414
Q

Most commonly used antidepressants are ___

A

SSRI’s

415
Q

SSRI’s work by affecting the neurotransmitter

A

Seratonin

416
Q

Drugs used to control mood swings in patients with bipolar mood disorders

A

Mood stabilizers

417
Q

____ has long been used to treat bipolar disorder, but has dangerous side effects

A

Lithium

418
Q

Critics argue that drug therapies only treat ___, not underlying ____ of disorders

A

symptoms; causes

419
Q

Borrow ideas, insights, and techniques from a variety of sources while tailoring their intervention strategy t the unique needs of each client

A

Eclectic therapies

420
Q

barriers for minorities to seek therapy

A

culture, language, institutional

421
Q

Factors that depend on success rate of therapies

A

Disorder being treated, severity, and specific person