Psych condensed Flashcards

1
Q

What is an advanced directive?

A

Legally binding document - Made with capacity

Stipulates patients refusal of certain medical interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the court of protection?

A

Make decisions if no LPA

Resolves disputes if there is disagreement with treatment plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are DOLS?

A

Allows deprivation of liberty over someone who lacks capacity
Legal framework for hospital / care environment if it is in patient’s best interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 5 principles of the mental health act

A

Maximize patient and public safety

Minimize the impact of mental illness on the patient

Minimize restriction of liberty

Use the least restrictive option

Effectiveness of proposed treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe section 2 of MHA

A

ASSESSMENT

Duration - 28 days

2 doctors - S12 and AMHP

Can be coercively treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe section 3 of MHA

A

TREATMENT

Duration - 6m

2 doctors - S12 and AMHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe section 4 of MHA

A

EMERGENCY

Duration - 72 hours

Proffesionals - 1 doctor and AMHP

Usually converted to S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe a section 5(2)

A

DOCTOR order

Duration - 72hours

For patient already admitted

No coercieve treatment - just legal framework to restrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe a Section 5(4)

A

NURSES order

Duration - 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe a section 135

A

Court order to enter house and move to place of safety for assessment

Proffesionals - ASW + medical professional + Polcie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe a section 136

A

Duration 24 hours

Arrest a person and bring to place of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the key principles of MCA

A

Assume capacity

Least restrictive option to patients rights

Respect unwise decisions

Decisions must be in their best interests

Help must be given to aid in their capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is an illusion

A

Misinterpretation of real external stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a hallucination

A

Perception in absence of external stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a delusion

A

false belief firmly maintained despite evidence of contrary

Out of keeping with patients social and cultural background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MOA of antipsychotics

A

Block parasympathetic D2 receptors in mesolimbic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What pathways are affected by excess dopamine in schizophrenia

A

Mesoimbic - Positive sx

Mesocortical - Negative sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What pathways do antipsychotics target / have an effect on

A

Block D2 receptors - Mesolimbic

Hyperprolactniaemia - Tuberoinfundibular

EPSE - Nigrostriatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should antipsychotics be cautioned

A

Elderly - Stroke and VTE risk

Drugs prolonging QT - Amiodarone / Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the side effects of typical antipsychotics

A
EPSE 
Drowsy 
Hypotension 
QT Prolongation 
Erectile dysfunction 
Hyperprolactinameia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the side effects of atypical antipsychotics

A

Metabolic disturbance - Lipid changes / DM
Weight gain
Prolonged QT interval
Hyperprolactinameia - Sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How long should you continue antipsychotics after an acute episode

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 5 side effects of clozapine

A
Reduce seizure threshold 
Agranulocytosis 
constipation 
Hypersalivation 
Myocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What affects clozapine levels

A

Smoking and alcohol - decreases levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the order that EPSE appear

A

Acute dystonia
Akinthesia
Tardive dyskinesia
Parkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is acute dystonia

A

Occurs after HOURS

Sustained msucle contraction - torticollis / oligouric crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do you treat acute dystonia

A

Procyclidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is akinthesia

A

Develops after days to weeks

restlesness
tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the treatment of akinthesia

A

Propanolol

Cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia

A

> 6m usage

Repititive actions - grimacing / lip smacking / tongue protrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the treatment for tardive dyskinesia

A

Tetrabenzine - D2 agonsit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the treatment of Parkinsonism

A

Procyclidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name 8 side effects of SSRIs

A
Size - weight gain 
Sick - N+V
Seizure - Reduce threshold 
Suicide 
Sodium - Hyponatramia 
Sexual dysfunction 
Sleep / stress
 Stomach upset - dyspepsia / Abdo pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When should SSRIs be cautioned

A

PUD
Epilepsy
young patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What drugs interact with SSRIs

A

MOA + Triptans –> S.S

NSAIDs/Aspirin –> Requires PPI

Antipsychotics –> QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe SSRI withdrawl sx

A
Mood change 
Sleep issues 
Sweating 
Restlesness 
D+V
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Howlong should SSRIs be continued for

A

6m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Name 2 SNRIs

A

Venelefaxine

Duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Name CI to venelafaxine

A

Raises BP - CI in cardiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Name 5 side effects for TCA

A

Anticholinergic

  • urinary retention
  • blurred vision
  • constipation
  • confusion

Anti-adrenergic

  • Postural hypotension
  • Impitence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe a TCA overdose

A
Confusion 
Arrhythmias - QT prolongation 
seizures 
flushing 
dialted pupils 
vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What would an ABG in a TCA overdose show

A

Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

TCA overdose management

A

Supportive
Activated charcoal (2-4 hours)
IV bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What should be avoided when taking MAOI

A

Cheese
Beer
red wine
smoked meat or fish

contain tyrmaine - vasoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatemnt for hypertensive crisis in MAOI

A

Phentolamine

46
Q

What affects Lithium levels

A

Dehydration and volume depletion
Thiazide diuretics
ACEi / NSAIDs - affect kidney fucntion

47
Q

Theraputic side ffects to lithium

A
L - Leukocytosis 
I - Diabetes insipidus 
T - Fine tremor 
H - Hypperparathyroid 
I - Increased GI motility 
U  - Underactive thyroid 
M - Ebsteins anomoly
48
Q

Toxic lithium side effects

A
T - Coarse tremor 
O - Oliguria 
X - Ataxia 
I - Increased reflexes 
C - coma / convulsions
49
Q

What are the effects of pscyhiatric medications in the elderly

A

Higher fat/water distribution - Reduced Benzo dose

reduced renal and heaptic functions

slower titration of meds

50
Q

Describe serotonin syndrome

drugs
presentation
management

A

SSRIs / Triptans / MAOI / Ecstacy / Tramadol / St john wart

INCREASED ACTIVITY

  • clonus / myoclonus
  • Increased reflexes
  • Rigidity
  • tremor
  • dialted pupils
  • Autonomic sx (Tachy /unstable BP / Hyperthermia)

IV fluids
BDZs
Cryproheptadine - serotonin antagonist

51
Q

Desribe NMS

A

Antipsychtoics / Withdrawl of dopaminergic drugs

Lead pipe rigidity
normal pupils
Hyporeflexia
Autonomic sx (Tachy / sweating / unstable BP / hyperthermia)

Stop antipsychotics
IV fluids
Bromocriptine / Dantrolene

52
Q

What metabolic presentation is present in NMS and SS

A

Metabolic acidosis

53
Q

What would FBC shouw in NMS

A

Leukocytosis

54
Q

Why is it important to check U+E in NMS

A

Increased CK –> AKI

Rhabdomyolysis

55
Q

How many features and for how long are required for it to be classified as a dependence disorder

A

3 features for > 1 month

56
Q

Name 5 features of dependence

A
continued use despite harm 
salience 
narrowed repitoire 
withdrawal 
cravings 
tolerance 
loss of control 
rapid reinstatement
57
Q

How do metronidazole and alcohol interact

A

Metronidazole inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase leading to build up of acetaldehyde

Drinking –> N+V / Headache / Sweating

58
Q

Alcohol units calcualtion

A

% x volume (ml) divided by 1000

59
Q

Psychological management of addictive behaviours

A

1 - Maintenence or withdrawal

2 - Motivational interviewing / AA / FRAMES

60
Q

Name 3 drugs used in alcohol withdrawal

A

Disulfram
Acamprosate
Naltrexone

61
Q

MOA of disulfram

A

Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase - S/E if alcohol ingested

flushing
headache
reduced BP
Nausea

62
Q

MOA of acamprosate

A

Reduces craving by inhibiting glutamate

63
Q

MOA of naltrexone

A

Opiod antagonist - reduces pleasure alcohol brings

64
Q

Alcohol withdrawl - sx 6/12 hours post

A
Tremor 
sweating 
N+V 
Anxiety 
Tachycardia
65
Q

Alcohol withdrawl - 12-24 hours post

A

Hallucinations

66
Q

Alcohol withdrawl - 36 hours post

A

Seziures

67
Q

Alcohol withdrawl - 72 hours post

A

DELIRIUM TREMENS

Altered consciousness
Persucotary delusions
coarse tremor

Tachycardia
sweating
Increased BP
Fever

Halluciantions - Lilluptian / formication

68
Q

What is the management of delirium tremens

A

Chlorodiazepioxide
Thiamine
Pabrinex

69
Q

Describe opiate intoxication

A
drowsy 
reduced resp rate 
Pinpoint pupils 
Decreased BP 
Decreased HR
70
Q

Describe opiate withdrawl

A

EVERYTHING RUNS

Rhinorrhoea 
Lacrimation 
Pupil dialtion 
Sweating 
Diarrhoea 
N+V
Agitation
Abdominal cramps
71
Q

Describe opiate withdrawl management

A

Lafexidine

BDZs - agitation

Antimetics

72
Q

Describe opiate overdose

A
Pinpoint pupils 
coma 
resp depression 
seziures 
Hypothermia
73
Q

Describe opiate overdose managemnt

A

IV/IM Naloxone - short half life
O2
IV hydration

74
Q

What drugs can be used for substance abuse dependence

A

Methadone - logn acting

Buprenorphine - Partial agonsit

Naltrexone - for patients completing detox

75
Q

substance abuse Short term complications

A

VTE
PE
Infection - IE
Respiratory depresion - acidosis

76
Q

Describe BDZs overdose

A
anxiety 
insominia 
tremor 
agitation 
headache 
seizures
77
Q

Describe cannabis intoxication

A
drowsy 
imapired memory 
slow reflexes 
bloodshot eyes 
increased appetite
78
Q

causes of delirium

A
D - Drugs (Anticholinergic/ BDZs/Anticonvulsant
E - Electrolyte 
L - Lack of drug (opiates /levodopa/alcohol)
I - Infective 
R - Retention / reduced sensory 
I - Intracranial (stroke / post ictal)
U - Underhydration/nutrition 
M - Myocardial
79
Q

RF for Alzehimers disease

A
FHx 
Downs syndrome 
Apolipoprotein E4 
Depression 
Female 
Age
80
Q

Alzheimers sx

A
Amnesia 
Aphasia 
Agnosia 
Apraxia 
Apathy 
Depression
81
Q

Alzehimers Mx

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors - Rivistagmine / Donepezil

NDMA receptor antagonist - Memantine

82
Q

Alzehimers Mx

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors - Rivistagmine / Donepezil

NDMA receptor antagonist - Memantine

83
Q

Adverse effects of ACh inhibitors

A

Headache / Diarrhoea / Bradycardia

84
Q

Adverse effects of memnatine

A
confusion 
hallucination
dizzy 
seizure 
constipation
85
Q

GAD management

A

1 - Education and active mointioring
manage co-morbidities
exercise
sleep hygiene

2 - Low intensity psychological
Guided self help
Psychoeducation

3 - High intensity intervention
CBT/Applied relaxation +/- SSRI

4 - CBT + SSRI

86
Q

Panic disorder presentation

A

Sx peak within 10 mins

P – Palpitations
A – Abdominal distress 
N – Numbness/nausea
I – Intense fear of death
C – Choking/chest pain 
S – Sweating/shaking/SOB
D – depersonalization/derealization
87
Q

Describe the characteristics of the obsessions in OCD

A

Intrusive
Recognised as patients own thoughts
Non sensical - unlide delusions

88
Q

Management of OCD

A

1 - Low intensity CBT / ERP

2 - High intensty CBT / ERP OR SSRI

3 - High intensity CBT/ERP + SSRI / TCA

89
Q

How long should you continue medication for in OCD

A

12 months

90
Q

What are the requirements for PTSD diagnosis

A

Sx arise within 6m of event

Sx present for > 1 month with functional impairment

91
Q

Describe PTSD presentation

A

Hyperarousal - startle / seep issues
Flashbacks
Avoidance
Emotional numbing

92
Q

PTSD management

A

1 - Trauma focused CBT / EMDR

2 - Sertraline / Venelfaxine

93
Q

PTSD management

A

1 - Trauma focused CBT / EMDR

2 - Sertraline / Venelfaxine

94
Q

What are the componenets of the SCOFF questionnaire

A
S - Sick 
C - control 
O - one stone (3m)
F - Fat 
F - Food domiantes
95
Q

Name 6 features of anorexia

A
Arrhythmias - QT prolongation 
Lanugo hair 
yellow tinge to skin 
constipation 
swelling of parotid and submandibular glands
96
Q

Features of hypokalaemia

A
Flat t waves 
T wave inversion 
U waves 
ST depression 
Arrhythmias - VT
97
Q

Biochemical features of anorexia

A

Increased G + C

  • GH
  • Cortisol
  • Beta carotene
  • Cholesterol
98
Q

Anorexia red flags

A

BMI < 13.5Kg
>1kg/week weight loss
Temp < 34.5
Proximal muscle weakness

99
Q

Anorexia management - Adult

A

1 - CBT - ED

2 - MANTRA

100
Q

What does MANTRA stand for

A

Maudsley Model of Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults

101
Q

Anorexia management - Child

A

1 - Family focused therapy

2- CBT

102
Q

Anorexia complications

A

Osteoperosis

cardiac atrophy

103
Q

Long term anorexia management

A

DEXA scan

104
Q

Refeeding syndrome presentation

A
Oedema 
tachycardia 
confused 
CCF
Blaoting
105
Q

What metabolic disturbances occur in bulimia

A

Laxatives - acidosis

Purging - alkalosis

106
Q

What complication occurs with long term laxative use in bulimia

A

Cardiomyopathy

107
Q

bulimia management

A

1 - BN focused guided self help

4 weeks

2 - CBT - ED

108
Q

Criteria for depression diangosis

A

5/9 sx

D - Depressed mood
E - Energy low
A - Anhedonia
D - Dead thoughts

S - Sleep 
W - Worthlesness 
A - Apetite / weight 
M - Mentation decreased 
P - Psychomotor retardation
109
Q

DDx of depression

A
Parkinsons 
dementia 
Hypothyroid 
Hypoadrenalism 
Steroids 
Alcohol 
DM
110
Q

Features of mania

A

Sx present for 7 days

marked fucntional impairment
Psychotic sx
- delusions of grandeur
- Auditory hallucinations