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psych asess Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What are the four key assumptions of psychological testing?
A
  1. People differ, that the trait can be measured, traits are stable, and these measures relate to actual behaviour
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2
Q
  1. What defines a test?
A
  1. It is a procedure or device that yiels info about behave or cog, only a sample is tested, it is standardised, and the info is quantified
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3
Q
  1. What are the four main stages of testing?
A
  1. Initial referral, test selection, a formal assessment, and then feedback
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4
Q
  1. What other assessment methods can complement testing?
A
  1. Interview, other people in the person’s life, behavioral observation,
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5
Q
  1. What is the structure of an assessment report?
A
  1. Identifying data, referral q, history, behaviour observation, list of tests or procedures undertaken, test findings and interpretation, summary and conclusion, then recommendations,
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6
Q
  1. Recommendations for the client should be…
A
  1. Directly related to the referral and specific, based on what is best for the client’s needs, and evidence based
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7
Q
  1. Good references for looking about tests
A
  1. Test catalogue, test manuals, professional books, reference volumes, journals, and online databases
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8
Q
  1. What is the premise of classical test theory?
A
  1. A person’s observed score in a test is the sum of the true score and error
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9
Q
  1. What is total variability?
A
  1. Population variability of scores, the true variance plus error variance
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10
Q
  1. True variance and error variance refers to what?
A
  1. The variation in a collection of scores
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11
Q
  1. What is systematic error in testing?
A
  1. Noise levels, time of day, the environment in general
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12
Q
  1. What is random error in testing?
A
  1. Error that cannot be predicted
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13
Q
  1. What are sources of measurement error?
A
  1. Test construction, test administration (environment, examiner, test-taker), scoring and interpretation, sampling, methodological (test training, unstandardised, vague questions, biased questions)
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14
Q
  1. What is reliability?
A
  1. The variance attributed to true variance within the total variance
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15
Q
  1. What is a disadvantage to classical test theory?
A
  1. Assumes all items on tests have equal weight
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16
Q
  1. What is the advantage of item response theory?
A
  1. It considers difficulty and discrimination
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17
Q
  1. What is difficulty?
A
  1. The degree to which an item is hard or easy
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18
Q
  1. What is discrimination?
A
  1. The degree to which an item will differentiate between those with a trait and without
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19
Q
  1. What is a test-retest score do concerning reliability?
A
  1. Shows an estimate of reliability over time
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20
Q
  1. What is a parallel form?
A
  1. Two versions of a test are parallel if their means and variances of test scores are equal
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21
Q
  1. What is an alternative form of a test?
A
  1. Creating two forms of the test and correlating scores of the same person
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22
Q
  1. What is a split-half reliability?
A
  1. Dividing a test in half and seeing whether the scores on both halves correlate with each other using spearman-brown
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23
Q
  1. What is the kuder-richardson used for?
A
  1. Tests the degree to which items in a test have inter-item consistency, meaning they are measuring the same thing
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24
Q
  1. What are intra-class and cohen’s kappa used for?
A
  1. Intraclass is used to rate inter-scorer reliability on continuous items and cohen’s kappa is used for categorical items
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25
Q
  1. What is purposive sampling?
A
  1. Arbitrarily selecting a sample believed to be representative
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26
Q
  1. What is a standard score?
A
  1. A z-score, a standard deviation
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27
Q
  1. What is criterion validity?
A
  1. Relationship between test scores and scores on other tests
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28
Q
  1. What is Lawshe’s content validity ratio?
A
  1. Expert panel elected, items are rated as essential, useful but unessential and not necessary, and the content validity formula is tehn used to calculate the score. If the cvr score is half rated essential it is zero, if it is positive more than half, and if negative less than half
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29
Q
  1. What is uncontaminated criterion validity?
A
  1. If a variable is used in the test to calculate the variable, it cannot be used to compare it to
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30
Q
  1. What is concurrent criterion validity?
A
  1. Degree to which the criterion is related to an outcome measured at the same time
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31
Q
  1. What is predictive criterion validity?
A
  1. The extent to which a test score predicts a future outcome measured
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32
Q
  1. What are 6 types of construct validity?
A
  1. Homogeneity, evidence of changing with age, evidence from pretest-post test scores, evidence from distinct groups. Convergent evidence from older tests measuring similar constructs, and descriminant evidence showing the relationship on scores that the test scores shouldn’t’ be related to
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33
Q
  1. What is the utility of tests?
A
  1. The psychometric soundness (validity), the cost of time, money training, ethic wise, and the benefits of the test such as better data, reliability, good for particular groups, cutting edge and increased validity
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34
Q
  1. What is test bias?
A
  1. Bias is a factor inherent in a test that systematically prevents impartial measurement
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35
Q
  1. What is fairness in tests?
A
  1. Fairness is the extent to which a test is used in an impartial, just, and equitable way
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36
Q
  1. What is a rating error?
A
  1. Rating error – judgement resulting from untintentional or intentional misuse of a rating scale e.g. central tendency due to avoiding extreme ratings, halo effect
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37
Q
  1. What is a relative cut-score?
A
  1. In reference to normative data
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38
Q
  1. What is a fixed cut-score?
A
  1. Basis of a minimal expected level
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39
Q
  1. What is a multiple cut-score?
A
  1. Multiple cut scores are a use of cut points of one predictor e.g. depression has mild, mod, severe
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40
Q
  1. What is a multiple hurdle cut-score?
A
  1. Need to achieve lower level cut scores before advancing to a greater stage in testing
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41
Q
  1. What is the Angoff method of cut-scores?
A
  1. Judgments of experts averaged to yield cut-scores
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42
Q
  1. What is the known groups method of cut scores and what is a problem with it?
A
  1. Find groups known to possess or not possess a trait and collect data on them on predictor of interest, then choose cut-scores based on what best discriminates between the groups. A problem is what groups to choose
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43
Q
  1. What is the IRT method?
A
  1. In order to pass the test, the tesk taker must answer items above medium level of difficulty
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44
Q
  1. What is a discriminative analysis?
A
  1. Stat techniques used to quantify how well a set of identified variables can predict membership to groups of interest
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45
Q
  1. What is the receiver operating curves?
A
  1. ROC derives sensitivity and specificity associated with cutpoints that classify individuals as having or not having a condition of interest
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46
Q
  1. What is specificity?
A
  1. Specificity is the proportion that correctly identify people not having the condition
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47
Q
  1. What is sensitivity?
A
  1. Sensitivity is the proportion of people correctly identified as having the condition
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48
Q
  1. What is the Youden indexed?
A
  1. Selects the approp cut point based on maximizing sensitivity and specificity
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49
Q
  1. What does the Brogden-cronbach-glesar formula do?
A
  1. A formula to calculate the utility of a test
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50
Q
  1. What are harms caused by testing?
A
  1. Poorly informed career, threatened self-esteem, misdiagnosis or no diagnosis where there is one to be made, invalidation of the tools due to public knowledge of them, personal distress, life-long misperceptions from inaccurate info about psych disorder
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51
Q
  1. What are the five steps in ethical decision making?
A
  1. Recognise there’s an ethical issue present, clarify it it as either respect for rights and dignity or propriety such as competence and responsibility to the profession or client or society, and integrity such as good character or trust or impact of conduct to profession and society, generate and examine courses of action w documentation and considering all factors, choose and implement decision, reflect an review the process + whether it could have been prevented
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52
Q
  1. What are the key elements of section B13 of apa code of ethics?
A

Use established and scientific standards with procedures, tests that are psychometrically sound, and specific purpose and use of techniques, choose and administer and interpret tests appropriately and accurately, use valid procedures and research findings when scoring and interpreting tests, report results appropriately and accurately, don’t compromise techniques nor render them open to misuse by publishing to unauthorized people

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53
Q
  1. What does competency entail?
A
  1. A) Determine need for test b) choose the appropriate and psych sound test c) organize and conduct session d) accurate scoring and use of norms tables e) interpret f) communicate g) make decisions based on results h) monitor effectiveness i) have knowledge of professional and ethical issues surrounding the use of tests
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54
Q
  1. What are ethical responsibilities to clients?
A
  1. For you and them to be aware of their reason for attending, what they are going to be asked to do and why, they have a right not to do things, the consequences of undertaking or not, and who will get the results and how they’ll be used
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55
Q
  1. Why is feedback important and what is it good for?
A
  1. People have a right to results and interpretations, need to know the limitations of the tests they’re taking, they need to be able to make informed decisions, beware of bias that can distort results, get clients feedback to make sure they understand, be aware of countertransferance/emotions towards patient
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56
Q
  1. What are cultural considerations?
A
  1. Recognising culture and race as a strength and also thedifficulties and discrimination that people can face because of it, difficulties adapting, interpersonal or intergenerational conflict, impacts on their perspective, fam, friends and community perspective that can influence their experience of mental illness, and respecting their values, orientation and knowledge and practices derived from their social group
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57
Q
  1. What can make tests fairer?
A
  1. Whether a test is testing knowledge that is based on their cultural knowledge or language they use, picture and non-verbal tests can make tests more fair
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58
Q
  1. What is implicit intelligence?
A
  1. Layperson’s definition, personal definitions influenced by age, culture, and experience
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59
Q
  1. What is explicit intelligence?
A
  1. Constructed by psychologists and social scientists, based on research and focusing on problem solving, verbal ability, social competence
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60
Q
  1. What is Galton’s theory of intelligence?
A
  1. Galton’s theory is that intelligence is related to sensory ability, human sensations and reactions are the heart of individual differences, tests measured sensory activity
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61
Q
  1. What is BInet’s theory of intelligence?
A
  1. Binet focused on abilities requiring complex measurement such as working memory, writing, comprehension, global iq
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62
Q
  1. What is Wechsler’s theory of intelligence?
A
  1. Wechsler focused on the capacity of an individual to act purposefully and think rationally while dealing w environment, composing of elements that are qualitatively different unlike Binet
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63
Q
  1. What is Spearman’s G model?
A
  1. All cog ability tests correlate to some degree, Spearman called this ‘G’
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64
Q
  1. What is Thurstone’s classical multiple factor model?
A
  1. Thurstone de-emphasised g and correlations were low enough on tests to be considered independent, verbal meaning, perceptual speed, rote memory, reasoning, numbers, word fluency and spatial int. Ended to admitting to some g factory though
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65
Q
  1. What is Cattel-Horn’s model?
A
  1. Cattel-horn fluid vs crystalissed intelligence, added visual processing, auditory, quantitative, speed of processing, reading and writing, short term mem
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66
Q
  1. What is Carrol’s hierarchical model?
A
  1. Carrol’s includes g, crsytalissd and fluid, and a breakdown of cats (crystallised and fluid, learning and memory, visual perception, auditory, retrieval ability, broad cog speed, processing speed) into subcat, main influence for nearly all int test since 2000
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67
Q
  1. What are developmental models like?
A
  1. Stages are irreversible, the sequence is invariant, and the r/s w progression through stages as chrono age increases w some variation around the average time
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68
Q
  1. What is Jean Piaget’s theory?
A
  1. The sensorimotor stage which revolves around sensory input, lacking object permanence 0-2 months, preoperational is the use of words to symbolize without principles of convo 2-6, and concrete operation uses principles of conservation and rational thinking 7-12, formal operational – mature adult thinking in terms of cause and effect 12+
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69
Q
  1. What is the information processing theory?/Luria
A
  1. Focuses on how info is processed, simultaneous processing – information is integrated and occurs all at once, and successive processing – info is individually processed in a logical sequence
    (1) information made available by the environment is processed by a series of processing systems (e.g. attention, perception, short-term memory);
    (2) these processing systems transform or alter the information in systematic ways;
    (3) the aim of research is to specify the processes and structures that underlie cognitive performance;
    (4) information processing in humans resembles that in computers.
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70
Q
  1. What is Robert Sternberg’s theory?
A
  1. Analytical – learning, memory, reasoning, creative – novel, new situations, and practical – adapting to environment
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71
Q
  1. What are the three pediatric tests?
A
  1. Bayley scales of infant dev, WPPSI-IV, and WISC-V
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72
Q
  1. What was Alfred Binet’s motivation behind IQ testing?
A
  1. To aid students who needed more assistance and to identify said students
73
Q
  1. What is ratio and deviation iq?
A
  1. Deviation IQ uses a scale which is based on actual rarity whereas ratio is mental age vs chrono age, which causes issues as after a certain point people’s intelligence does not increase after age or even declines over age
74
Q
  1. What are the advantages of point scales?
A
  1. Point scales replaced mental age norms and allowed individual performance to be compared to age-matched sample
75
Q
  1. What are the major features of Stanford-Binet IQ?
A
  1. 2-85 covers a wide range, reflects g plus 5 main factors: fluid, crystalissed, quantitative, visual processing, and short term memory, good reliability - .97-.98, well established validity, correlates low to mid .8 w other measures including wechsler, same test for children and adults, extensive items to identify gifted people, low-end items for low functioning
76
Q
  1. What are the main features for the WAIS/Wechsler tests?
A
  1. WAIS-IV has separate tests for adults, children, and preschool children, academic achievement test, supplemental tests, wais-IV: 16-90, WISC-V: 6-16.11, WPPSI-IV-2.6, 3.11, and 4 to 7.3, subscales are less reliable
77
Q
  1. What is the Wechsler test structure and from what range do the subscales go up to?
A
  1. WAIS structure has g score, verb comprehension, working mem, perceptual reasoning, processing speed, and scaled scores to age, subscales 1-20
78
Q
  1. What is a good rule of thumb when there is variation in the subtest?
A
  1. If there is greater than 5 points within the subscales with the subtest, it is not unitary and you should not report this index score
79
Q
  1. What are the three criterion for intellectual impairment?
A
  1. Iq test taken, usually 2 sd under average, and criterion b is that there is evidence for impairment in (conceptual, practical and social domains) adaptive functioning, normative comapirson, practical domain such as personal care, and also language/learning domain and social domain, criterion c is a onset of deficits occurs during dev period
80
Q
  1. What is the wisc-v structure for 6-16.11 year olds?
A
  1. WISC V has 7 subtests – visiospatial, verbal comprehension, fluid reasoning, working mem, processing speed and ancillary indices used if uneven in index scores
81
Q
  1. What is the two wppsi tests structure?
A
  1. WPPSI-IV – 2-3 full scale pus verb comprehension, visiospatial, and working mem and from 4-7 is verb comprehension, visual spatial, fluid reasoning, working mem and processing speed
82
Q
  1. What are achievement tests good for?
A
  1. Testing prior learning, relevant to mental health and future job prospects, measures reading, language, writing maths etc.
83
Q
  1. What are the criteria for a specific learning disorder?
A
  1. Criteria a) difficulty w learning and using academic skills w symptoms persisting for 6 months b) affected skills below age average and causes interference w occupation or academic life, c) begin during school years but may not manifest until demands exceed capabilities, and d) not better accounted for by intellectual disability, psychosocial adversity, or hearing issue
84
Q
  1. What does the academic WIAT-III test psychometric properties and age range cover?
A
  1. Covers from 40-50.11, widr range of academic skills, oral reading, written expression and maths, standardised, good reliability in .8-9 range
85
Q
  1. What does the adenbach child behave and emotion checklist look for?
A
  1. Covers 1-18 years, assists to establish frequency of symptoms of depression, withdrawel, anxiety, hyperactivity, and aggression, scores above 60 are elevated/borderline and 70+ in clinical
86
Q
  1. What does the Conners test check for and how does it check for it?
A
  1. Covers 2-18, parent and teacher ratings of behave, emotion, social, and academic functioning, scales used for evaluating frequency of behave that might be clinically sig, useful for presence of symptoms consistent w ADHD
87
Q
  1. What is the ADHD criteria?
A
  1. Persistent pattern of inattention or hyperactivity, present prior to age 12, present in 2+ settings, interferes w social, occupational of academic functioning, and not better explained by another disorder
88
Q
  1. What is a personality state?
A

personality state is a trait that is dependent on a situation and motives

89
Q
  1. What is a personality trait?
A
  1. A trait is an enduring way of behaving
90
Q
  1. Third party assessment of personality?
A
  1. can be bad because they may be biased due to the relationship they have with who they’re assessing, have to acknowledge this, raters usually aren’t neutral
91
Q
  1. What is the nomothetic approach?
A
  1. efforts to learn limited no. traits that can be applied to all people, whether person has greater or lesser amounts in comparison
92
Q
  1. What is the normative approach?
A
  1. Test-takers responses and presumed strength relative to trait in larger pop
93
Q
  1. What is the idiographic approach?
A
  1. Individual’s unique constellation of personality traits
94
Q
  1. What is the ipsative approach?
A
  1. Test taker’s responses and presumed strength of measured traits relative to measured strength
95
Q
  1. What is also assessed when a personality test is conducted, to make sure the answers are accurate?
A
  1. Response style – tendency to respond a certain way, impression management, and this can be dealt with with validity scales that is a subscale of a test to pick this up
96
Q
  1. What is a criterion group?
A
  1. Group that possesses a trait, creation of items, admin to random sample, item analysis, obtain data from test performance, obtain data from standardised sample that is meant to be representative
97
Q
  1. What does the MMPI original test test for?
A
  1. Hypochondriasis, hysteria, depression, psychopathic, schizophrenia, hypomania, social introversion w l scale examining honesty, f scale to find malingering and a k score to pick up defensiveness
98
Q
  1. What are methods of personality test dev.?
A
  1. Based on theory/atheortical, logic and reason/content oriented, data reduction methods that identify variables such as the NEO-PI-R and Cattel-Horn, and criterion groups
99
Q
  1. What is Friedman and Roseman’s personality theory?
A
  1. Type a – competitive, time pressured, achiever type b – mellow and laid back type c – passive, unable to help self, focuses on others, emotional difficulties, and type d) negative affect, worries, irritable, socially inhibited
100
Q
  1. What does the MMPI-2-R do to update the MMPI?
A
  1. More representative sample , rewritten for a contemporary audience, marital issues, drug abuse, suicide, work attitudes, type a behave patterns, and validity scales such as true response scoring variables
101
Q
  1. What are instrumental values?
A
  1. Instrumental values are guiding principles to obtain an objective e.g. honesty
102
Q
  1. What are terminal values?
A
  1. Terminal values are guiding principles and mode of behaviour that has an endpoint objective such as a comfortable life
103
Q
  1. What is someone’s cultural worldview and how do you keep it in min in your interpretation?
A
  1. Worldview is viewing someone’s perceptions as a result of their experiences, background and culture
104
Q
  1. What is an objective method of testing?
A
  1. One where the individual responds to a paper/pencil test or at a computer to short-answer items, choosing one from ones provided as opposed to projective where the person projects onto a stimuli such as a Rorschach test
105
Q
  1. What are strengths and weaknesses of MMPI-2?
A
  1. Clinical utility and forensic, has good validity, widely used, built in scales for validity, mod to high reliability, large norms but not representative and weaknesses are a high level of training, focuses on psychopathology, large no. items so it takes a while to complete, and has cross-cultural issues
106
Q
  1. What are strengths and weaknesses of Rorschach?
A
  1. Rorschach goes over patterns of response, themes and r/s with diff categories, use for personality, emotional functioning and diagnosis, strengths are that it’s useful w guarded patients, hard to fake, gives hints to diagnosis w language used, may tap unconsciousness and the weakness are that it has bad reliability, validity, and norms, cross-cultural issues, difficult to score, and time-consuming
107
Q
  1. What are s and w of NEO-PI?
A
  1. NEO-PI was designed through data reduction and it explores personality, it has good reliability, internal consistency, plus test retest is high, good utility for client understanding their strengths and weaknesses but weaknesses are the appropriateness of dev., cross-cultural issues, and social desirability issues
108
Q
  1. What does clinical assessment focus on?
A
  1. Prevention, assessment, diagnosis and treatment of psych disorders
109
Q
  1. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the DSM-5?
A
  1. Shorthand way to communicate about psychopathology if there are common terms and understandings about diagnoses, organizes scientific info, describes r/s between disorders, and gives an explanation to patient about their experience but the weakness is that it might label them and cause stigma, dsm used to be more categorical in nature which the boxes may not reliably be met and people present in diff ways and still is but a dimensional way of viewing disorders may be more appropriate
110
Q
  1. What kind of referral qs can be answered?
A
  1. Diagnosis, causes, course or prognosis, treatment, degree of impairment, and strengths and weaknesses
111
Q
  1. Assessment techniques should be…
A
  1. Psychometrically sound for client’s pop., reliable and valid for problem areas, brief and practical for the setting, time available, client’s capcitity
112
Q
  1. What are the objectives in clinical interview to dev. Biopsychosocial understanding of a client?
A
  1. To identify client’s chief complaint and therapy goals, obtain sense of clients interpersonal style and skills + personal history, anc evaluate life situation and functioning
113
Q
  1. Advantages and disadvantages of structured and semi-structured interviews?
A
  1. Used for establishing diagnosis, ensures necessary qs are asked in a logical sequence, minimizes sources of variability that could make diagnosis unreliable, rules for using info obtained to assign diagnosis. Weaknesses are it is lengthy, requires training, doesn’t allow shortcuts, rigid structure limits rapport and question persist about validity
114
Q
  1. What types of interviews are there?
A
  1. Broad – clinical interview DSM-5, imited – anxiety and related, specific – CAPS for ptsd
115
Q
  1. What is the HRS?
A
  1. Based on hospital pop, has 17, 21, and 24 item versions, somatic behave and anxiety features, assesses severity, clinician conducts interview and rates person on items
116
Q
  1. Self-report vs clinician diagnosis
A
  1. Self-report issues are that people w chronic depression and reactive depression rate themselves higher than they are, also impairment and functioning should be assessed as well as symptoms
117
Q
  1. Assessment of anxiety BDA-II
A
  1. 21 item scale of symptom freq, captures cog and somatic symptoms, some argue it measures panic more than anxiety and people do score higher who have PD, panic, subjective which is unable to relax, neurophys like shakiness and dizziness, and autonomic like flushed and sweat
118
Q
  1. Yale brown ocd scale entails what?
A

time occupied, frequency, interference in social settings, degree of resistance, and percieved control w they defione and give examples, go through a symptom checklist and have a clinician rating scale of 10 items

119
Q
  1. What is Timeline follow back?
A
  1. calendar drinking estimates, picture of alco consumption, hours spent consuming and changes in drinking,
120
Q
  1. What are the 4 methods of mental state exam?
A

Observation, exploration of mood, insight, thoughts and judgement, conversation that is casual and they are unaware of being assessed, and testing

121
Q
  1. What is labile?
A
  1. Going from one extreme to another in one conversation
122
Q
  1. What is circumstantiality?
A
  1. Vague, overdetailed and digressive
123
Q
  1. What is tangentiality?
A
  1. Logical but digresses
124
Q
  1. What is congruency?
A
  1. Appropriate - Congruent is when they are appropriate for what they’re talking about, not laughing while sad which would be incongruent
125
Q
  1. What does affect concern?
A
  1. Autonomic, expression, posture, movement and tone
126
Q
  1. What is euthymic?
A
  1. Normal or calm mood
127
Q
  1. What is flight of ideas?
A
  1. Flight of ideas, switching to new train of thought triggered often by previous sentence
128
Q
  1. What is loosening of associations?
A
  1. Logical leaps in convo that are bizarre
129
Q
  1. What is the Vineland Adaptive behaviour scales?
A
  1. Adaptive behaviour assessing daily life functioning , communication, motor skills, maladaptive behave and social skills to assess for intellectual or developmental disorders
130
Q
  1. What is the behavioural avoidance test?
A
  1. Identify fear cues, determine fear intensity when exposed to phobic situation, have to select from a hierarchy situations which the client must carry out to test
131
Q
  1. What is the social performance rating scale?
A
  1. Very high is rigid and fidgeting, throat clearing, stuttering, inappropriate laughter, basically uncomfortable and not paying attention – but progressively less so and more relaxed in lower levels
132
Q
  1. What is a daily record of dysfunctional thoughts?
A
  1. Describes the situation, the belief when it occurred, the level of anxiety and how they challenged it, and to the extent percentage wise how much they believed it
133
Q

Other scales for depression?

A

Edinburgh - 10 items, if score 9 full assess, geriatric in yes/no format, children’s depression scale age 9-16, parent teacher and medical practitioner forms, hospital depp and anx scale 14 item, depress med ill

134
Q

Mania scales?

A

mania rating scale covering activity, flight of of thoughts, mood, hostility, voice volume, and young mania scale (both clinitian rating scales), and self-report - goldberg mania, and hypomanic checklist

135
Q

What are some OCD scales?

A

Padua inventory - harm thoughts, impulses about harm, contamination and washing, checking, dressing and groming, OC inventory - same but also hoarding and neutralising, obsessive beliefs questionnaire and interpretations of intrusions - 87 items, dysfunctional assumptions in 6 domains, iii - importance, control, and responsibility

136
Q

SP scales?

A

Social Phobia scale, social interaction anxiety, and social interaction self-statement going up 20, 20, then 30 in item length

137
Q

Substance abuse scales?

A

Tweak (women), crafft (youth), AUDIT (alcohol screen), and timeline followback

138
Q

Difference between men and women w substance abuse disorders?

A

More women then men had anxiety or mood disorder come first

139
Q

Tweak substance

A

tolerance, people worrying or complaining, drinking first thing in morning (eye-opener), , blackouts, feeling the need to cut down

140
Q

CRAFFT (youth) substance scale

A

C - driven a Car, R do you do it to Relax, A do you do it alone, and F do you forget things you do while drunk, f do your friends and fam tell you to cut down and T do you get into trouble while drinking or using drugs

141
Q

AUDIT scale

A

Australian scale, asks about standard drink., how many you tend to have a day, memory issues, anyone concerned

142
Q

What is global dev. delay?

A

children under 5 that display difficulties in various areas of skill dev but are too young to recieve a formal diagnosis, unable to sit and concentrate as are young children which makes it difficult, children w delay may not recieve intellectual dis. diag.

143
Q

WHat is used to diagnose ID?

A

Wechsler - WPPSI-IV and WISC-V, and also the Stanford-Binet, must be 2 sd under mean, score of 70 and below

144
Q

What do the appearance and attitude aspects of the MSE cover?

A

Physical such as age, sex, ethnicity, height, weight, and nutritional status AND dress such as hygiene, grooming and smell AND behaviour such as consciousness, alert or drowsy, degree of arousal, posture, manner AND motor activity such as increase or decrease of movement AND attitude such as cooperative, friendly, open and involved

145
Q

What does mood cover on the MSE?

A

Whether a person is euthymic, dysphoric, euphoria, angry, apprehensive and apathetic

146
Q

What does stability of mood entail?

A

Does it stay the same, is it reactive or do they not react when they should, is it spontaneous, is their mood intense or shallow, does their mood last hours or weeks

147
Q

What is responsivity in the MSE?

A

Whether they respond or are non reactive eg could indicate depression, schizophrenia, trauma or shock

148
Q

What does speech and language entail in the MSE?

A

The rate of speech, the information, articulation, volume and quantity whether there is mutism, poverty of speech, pressured or rapid speech. Whether it is fluent or not. Whether their reading, writing and comprehension is normal

149
Q

What is content of thought?

A

General themes that are occupying their mind

150
Q

What types of content of thought are there?

A

Persecutory, grandiose, somatic, reference, whether they believe their thoughts control or influence them or they’re passive, nihilistic that they or others or the world does not exist, jealous, and religious

151
Q

What is perception on the MSE?

A

Whether there are hallucinations/disturbance such as auditory, visual, tactile, smell. Derealisation, depersonalisation.

152
Q

What is orientation on the MSE?

A

Where you are, who you are, what time it is

153
Q

What are attention, concentration and memory on MSE?

A

Working memory, normal individuals can remember 6-8 in forward and 5-6 in backward. Whether memory for long term and short is intact.

154
Q

What are speed tests vs power

A

Speed tests have a limit and you have to get through as many questions as you can whereas power have no time limit and are challenging tasks

155
Q

What are other types of assessment to get data?

A

Retrospective - assessing past history, remote for when they aren’t in proximity, ecological - apps, can evaluate problems as they occur, collaboration - assessor and assessee work together from contact to feedback, therapeutic - element of therapy in process, encouraging understanding of self, dynamic - evaluate intervention evaluate, as alternate when a test needs to make adjustments for people W particular needs

156
Q

Interpreting performance on WAIS IV

A

Most reliable to least, full scale IQ, factor indexes from vci pri wmi psi, subtest deviations within composite scores, subtests compared to other subtests, interpretation

157
Q

Thematic test

A

30 picture cards to evoke a response, clinician picks ones the are relevant, assessee tells what lead up to the picture like in Daria, notes about response and behaviour, analysis requires a lot of training, examiner can change admin of test so it varies. Needs - behaviour determinants arising from individual and press - behaviour arising due to environment. Problems W norms and cross cultural. Good for assessing cog in children and builds rapport

158
Q

What is the standard error of measurement?

A

measure of precision in an observed test score, the higher the reliability of the test, the lower the SEM. SEM = sd of sample / (1- reliability coefficient from reliability test)

159
Q

What is the standard error of the difference?

A

Measures how large a difference in scores would be statistically sig (test must be on the same scale)

160
Q

What can be done to reduce the standard error?

A

Make sure the conditions in the environment of your testing such as noise levels, lighting, assessor etc. are consistent

161
Q

What are things to consider when choosing what test to use for reliability?

A

Whether it’s a speed or power test (power tests have uneven weight of items so they are supposed to be harder at one end then the other, hence not consistent), are the items homogenous or heterogeneous, is the trait dynamic or static, whether range of scores is restricted or not, is or is not criterion referenced

162
Q

What is convergent validity?

A

How much a new test relates to an older test

163
Q

What is content validity?

A

Whether a test samples behaviour representative of the universe of behaviour it was designed to. It can change over time due to understanding of the construct in theory and also can be culturebound

164
Q

What is a test blueprint?

A

A plan of the info covered in the test items, no. of each covering each area, the organisation etc.

165
Q

What is the principal of propriety referring to?

A

competence, collaborating w others to benefit clients, keeping records, providing service to benefit and not harm, the clients + public + profession take precedence over self-interest, research, accepting other’s clients

166
Q

What is the principal of integrity?

A

Reputable behaviour, conflict of interest, not exploiting the client, being aware of your power over a vulnerable individual, honesty,

167
Q

What is respect for the rights of people?

A

Justice, respect, informed consent, privacy, confidentiality, release of info to clients, and collection of info from other parties

168
Q

Carrol’s hierarchical theory involves three other theories, what are they?

A

Spearman’s g, Thurstone’s multiple factor, and the Cattel-Horn model

169
Q

What do the Bayley scales test?

A

They’re for infants, they test the ability to follow something w their eyes, rolling over,, and imitating gestures and understanding object permanence

170
Q

What traits or constructs are associated with higher intelligence?

A

Drive, aggressiveness with peers, need for achievement, self-confidence, impulsiveness, agreeableness w peers, and emotional stability

171
Q

What traits or constructs are associated w lower intelligence?

A

Passivity and dependence

172
Q

What was the first intelligence test?

A

Simon-Binet

173
Q

What is the structure of the Stanford-Binet?

A

Fluid int, cryst. int, quantative knowledge, visual processing, short term mem

174
Q

What is the range in int scores mean?

A

69 and below (extremely low), 70-79 (borderline), 80-89 (low ave), 90-109 (ave), 110-119 (high ave), 120-129 (superior), 130+ (very superior)

175
Q

Digit span - what are normal scores and what do the forwards and backwards spans test for?

A

Forwards tests short term and backwards is working memory. 7 items minus or plus 2 is normal for forwards and the backwards span is usually two less than the forwards score.

176
Q

What is self-concept differentiation?

A

The degree to which someone has different self-concepts in different roles

177
Q

What did George Engel propose?

A

bipyschosocial method

178
Q

What is Beck depression inventory?

A
  1. 4 statements of increasing severity, self-dislike, failure, suicide and somatic like crying and sleeping problems, based on psychotherapy patients, based on the last two weeks, based on white middle aged women so may not be representative, good reliability and validity
179
Q

What is CAGE?

A

alcohol use assessment: need to CUT down, get ANNOYED by criticism for drinking, feel GUILTY, and feel the need to have a drink first thing in the morning EYE OPENER

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