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PSYCH 250 Flashcards

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0
Q

What are 3 reasons as to why we should study child development?

A
  1. To improve ones own child-rearing
  2. To help society promote the well-being of children in general
  3. To better understand human nature.
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1
Q

What are two positive ways to approach your child’s bad behaviour?

A
  1. Using sympathy

2. By helping them find alternative ways to express their anger

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2
Q

What did Plato believe in regards to child development?

A
  • longterm welfare of society depended on the proper raising of children
  • view the rearing of boys especially challenging for parents
  • emphasized self-control and discipline as the most important goal of education
  • believed children have innate knowledge
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3
Q

What did Aristotle believe in regards to child development?

A
  • longterm welfare of society depended on proper raising of children
  • believed discipline was necessary, but more concentrated on fitting child-rearing to the needs of individual children
  • believed all knowledge comes from experience
  • believe that an infants mind is a “tabula rasa”
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4
Q

What does tabula rasa mean?

A
  • means blank slate

- Aristotle used this to describe infants mind

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5
Q

What is a genome?

A

Is each person’s or organisms complete set of hereditary information

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6
Q

Define epigenetics:

A

Is the study of stable changes in gene expression that are mediated by the environment

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7
Q

Define methylation:

A

A biochemical process that reduces expression of a variety of genes and is involved in regulating reactions to stress

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8
Q

What is a stage theory?

A

Is approaches that propose that development involves a series of discontinuous, age-related phases

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9
Q

What percent of all siblings (including fraternal twins) share and differ in their genes?

A

50/50

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10
Q

Define Internal Validity:

A

Is the degree to which effects observed within experiments can be attributed to the factor that the researcher is testing

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11
Q

Define external validity:

A

Is the degree to which results can be generalized beyond the particulars of the research

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12
Q

What are 3 ways researchers can collect data on children?

A
  1. Interviews
  2. Naturalistic observations
  3. Structured observations
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13
Q

What is a structured interview?

A

Is where all participants are asked the same set of questions

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14
Q

What is a clinical interview?

A

Is where questions are adjusted in accordance with the answers the interviewee provides

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15
Q

Define Structured Observation:

A
  • where researchers design a setting that will elicit behaviour that is relevant to their hypothesis and then observe the differences
  • advantage: it excludes a vast number of environmental variables as the setting is exactly the same for all participants
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16
Q

What is the direction-of-causation problem?

A

Is the concept that a correlation between two variables may stem from both being influenced by some third variable

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17
Q

What is the third-variable problem?

A

Concept that a correlation between two variables may stem from both being influence by some third variable

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18
Q

What is a microgenetic design?

A

Is a method of study in which the same children are studied repeatedly over a short period

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19
Q

What action has been known to be one of the earliest signs of a child understanding another’s mind?

A

Pointing or responding to pointing

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20
Q

What percent of parents still spank their children?

A

50-66% of parents still spank their children

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21
Q

What did John Locke believe in regards to child development?

A
  • He saw children as tabula rasa’s
  • advocated first installing discipline and then gradually increasing the child’s freedom (this is a nurture perspective)
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22
Q

How did Jean-Jacques Rousseau view child development?

A

-argued that parents and society should give maximum freedom from the beginning (nature perspective)

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23
Q

Describe Darwin’s theory of evolution :

A
  • developed baby biography (diary) as a method of studying children
  • this theory still influences research in modern child development in which he attempts to understand where human capacities come from
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24
Q

Key points to Alison Gopnik’s “why do babies think” video:

A
  • a long time ago people believed babies were irrational and completely unaware of others
  • with experiment an 18 month old baby was able to understand others dislikes and likes and give them what they want (fishy crackers over broccoli) where a 15 month old couldn’t distinguish which one the researcher wanted
  • she uses one example as in how crows are smarter than chickens because chickens develop one skill and mature very quickly where a crow isn’t specifically good at anything but experiences a long childhood which is why researchers believe they are so adaptive
  • she states her belief of children being more conscious than adults
  • states that babies aren’t bad at paying attention but rather bad at NOT paying attention as they are absorbing so much new information at one time
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25
Q

From Alison Gopnik’s video what is the evolutionary relevance of childhood?

A
  • is the chicken vs. Crow debate as the crow experiences a longer childhood and therefore results in being more adaptive than a chicken who matures quickly with knowledge of one particular skill
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26
Q

How much longer does a chimpanzee spend in the prenatal stage than humans?

A

A whole year longer

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27
Q

In Alison Gopnik’s video what is the developmental relevance of childhood?

A
  • learn the skills necessary for certain ages and how to survive
  • to understand the way we think we need to study our development within experience and skills
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28
Q

From Alison Gopnik’s video what are some insights we have learned about child development over the last 30 years?

A
  • children are not bad at paying attention they are bad at NOT paying attention
  • children use to be thought of as completely irrational and unaware of others but in all reality are aware of others wants and dislikes at 18 months
  • that babies are perspective takers and try to assist you
  • that you need to think about children in the way you want them to behave.
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29
Q

What are some complications with studying childhood development?

A
  • children are naive and impressionable
  • relies mostly on observation and therefore interpretation
  • with wanting to please children may not know right from wrong
  • BABIES CANT TALK.
  • you need parental consent
  • small sample sizes
  • don’t know what occurs between tests
  • children will react differently with a researcher than with their parents
  • longitude research can be very expensive
  • children develop at different paces
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30
Q

Define epigenesis:

A

Is the emergence of new structure and functions in the course of development
-purpose by Aristotle in the 4th century

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31
Q

What is the order of the biological side to development?

A
  1. Cell division
  2. Cell migration
  3. Cell differentiation
  4. Death
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32
Q

Define the cell division process:

A
  • a.k.a Mitosis

- cell division occurs approx. 12. Hours after fertilization and results in two identical daughter cells

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33
Q

Define the cell migration process:

A

Is the movement of newly formed cells away from their point of origin

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34
Q

Define the cell differentiation process:

A

-after several cell divisions, the cells start to specialize in terms of both structure and function

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35
Q

Define the death process:

A

-is the selective death of certain cells
- also known as Apoptosis
Ex] death of cells in between the ridges in the hand plate that create our fingers

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36
Q

What are factors thar help determine which type of cell the given stem will become?

A
  1. Which genes are “switched” or expressed
  2. Cells location
  3. Hormones
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37
Q

Define what fraternal twins are:

A
  • twins that result when two eggs happen to be released into the Fallopian tube at the same time and are fertilized by two different sperm
  • have only 1/2 their genes in common
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38
Q

Define what identical twins are:

A
  • twins that result from the splitting in half of the zygote, resulting in each of the two resulting zygotes having the exact same set of genes
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39
Q

What is the neural tube?

A

-is a groove formed in the top layer of differentiated cells in the embryo that eventually becomes the brain and the spinal cord

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40
Q

What is the amniotic sac?

A
  • is a transparent, fluid-filled membrane that surrounds and protects the fetus
  • because of this fluid the fetus is able to exercise its tiny, weak muscles relatively un effected by the effects of gravity
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41
Q

What is cephalocaudal development ?

A

-pattern of growth in which areas near the head develop earlier than areas further than the head

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42
Q

What is one of the earliest signs of distinct movement?

A

Hiccups

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43
Q

Define habituation:

A
  • is a simple form of learning that involves a decrease in response to repeated or continued stimulation
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44
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

-is an external agent that can cause damage or death during prenatal development

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45
Q

Describe rapid-eye movement (REM):

A
  • is an active sleep state characterized bt rapid eye movement under closed lids
  • associated with dreaming within adults
  • 50% of newborns total sleep tome and this decreases to 20% by 3-4 Years of age
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46
Q

Describe non-REM sleep:

A

-a quite or deep state characterized by the absence of motor activity or eye movements and regular/ slow brain waves, breathing and heart rate

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47
Q

What does Colic mean?

A

Excessive or inconsolable crying by a young infant for no apparent reason

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48
Q

Describe the features of a low birth weight (LBW) baby:

A
  • has a birth weight of less than 2500 grams

- slightly more than 6% of all Canadian newborns are LBW

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49
Q

Define preformationsim:

A

-suggested miniature, preformed humans lodged inside mtoher’s egg or father’s sperm

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50
Q

What are gametes produced through and how many chromosomes do they contain

A
  • produced through meiosis

- contain 23 chromosomes

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51
Q

Between what ages are males more likely to die than females?

A

15-29 years old

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52
Q

Describe the Travis-Willard hypothesis:

A
  • belief that there are evolutionary mechanisms that influence male and female numbers
  • believed that in bad times, it pays to have daughters over sons- as a female can always find a mate
  • but in good times it’s better to have sons over daughters as mothers can invest in and produce high quality offspring
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53
Q

What 2 things can animal models help us enhance the understanding of human development on?

A
  1. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder

2. Existence of fetal learning (also helping the dismantling of the term “instinct”)

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54
Q

What is the time length and developements within each prenatal stage:

A

Embryo: 4 weeks: primitive heart beating and circulating of blood + arm and leg buds

Fetus:5 1/2- 8 1/2 weeks: differentiation begins in nose, mouth and palate

Fetus: 9 weeks: heart achieves basic heart structure + spine and ribs are visible + major division of the brain

Fetus: 16 weeks: movement increases with some reflexes + external genitalia is developed

Fetus: 18 weeks: greasy coating to protect skin develops

Fetus: 20 weeks: more time with head positioned downwards+ facial expressions components are present +weight gain

Fetus: 28 weeks: brain and lung development increases+ eye can experience REM movement + weight is tripled

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55
Q

When do spontaneous movements begin to occur ?

A

5 weeks after conception

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56
Q

What does swallowing promote?

A
  • normal palate development

- helps in digestion system development

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57
Q

When does vestibular experience function occur?

A

Before birth

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58
Q

When do rest activity cycles emerge?

A

-emerge at 10 weeks and become stable in second half of pregnancy

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59
Q

what can babies learn before they are born?

A

-what their mothers voices sounds like
-learn the tones of the language most often spoke
-

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60
Q

How many fetuses do not make it to birth?

A
  • 1/3 don’t survive till birth

- 2/3 of those rare are miscarriages before the pregnancy was clinically detectable

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61
Q

What is the prenatal sensitive period?

A

3-9 weeks when major organs are developing

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62
Q

Define sensation:

A

Is the processing of basic information from the external world by the sensory receptors in the sense organs

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63
Q

What are cones?

A

-light sensitive neurons tat are highly concentrated in the fovea (central region of the retina)
-involved in seein fine details and colour
-

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64
Q

Describe object expansion:

A

-is a depth cue in which an object occluded increasingly more of the background, indicating that the object is approaching

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65
Q

What is binocular disparity?

A

Si the difference between the retinal image of an object in each eye that results in two slightly different signal being sent to the brain

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66
Q

Describe stereopsis:

A

Is the process by which the visual cortex combines the differing neural signals caused by binocular disparity, resulting in the perception of depth

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67
Q

Describe monocular depth cues:

A

-the perceptual cues of depth (such as relative size and interpretation) that can be precieved by one eye alone

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68
Q

Define intermodal perception

A
  • the combining of information from two or more sensory systems
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69
Q

Describe the stepping reflex:

A
  • a neonatal reflex in which an infant lifts first one leg and then the other in a coordinated pattern like walking
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70
Q

Describe affordances:

A

The possiblities for action offered by object and situations

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71
Q

Define classical-conditioning:

A

Is a form of learning that consists of associating an initially neutral stimulus that evokes a particular reflexive response
-first discovered by Ivan Pavlov within his dog experiments

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72
Q

Define operant conditioning:

A

-learning the relation between one’s own behaviour and the consequences that result from it

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73
Q

Define positive reinforcement :

A
  • a reward that reliably follows a behaviour and increases the likelihood that the behaviour will be repeated
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74
Q

Describe the violation-of-expectancy procedure:

A

A procedure used to study infant cognition in which infants are shown an event that should evoke surprise of interest if it violates something the infant knows or assumes to be true.

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75
Q

What sense is least developed at birth?

A

Visual perception

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76
Q

At what age do infants have similar colour perception as adults?

A

4 months

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77
Q

At what age do infants recognize melodies over individual notes?

A

5 months

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78
Q

Why do movements decrease over the prenatal stages?

A

There is less room to move around

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79
Q

What are 3 reasons to study motor development:

A
  1. Used as a yardstick to see if infants are developing on time
  2. Motor behavior is integral to psychology
  3. Is related to perception and requires coordination
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80
Q

What are 3 adaptive reflexes infants have

A
  1. Rooting
  2. Swallowing
  3. Sucking
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81
Q

At what ages to babies start crawling, walking and climbing stairs?

A
  • 10 months they begin to crawl
  • 1 year they being walking
  • 2 year they begin climbing stairs
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82
Q

What is the major challenge in developmental psychology?

A

BABIES CANT TALK

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83
Q

What is a rich interpretation?

A

Is an adult like interpretation

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84
Q

What is a lean like interpretation?

A

Is an animal-like interpretation with less cognitive attributions

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85
Q

What 4 things do we share a portion of our genes with?

A
  • bears
  • barnacles
  • beans
  • bacteria
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86
Q

Define genotype:

A

Is the genetic material an individual inherits

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87
Q

Define phenotype:

A

Is an observable expression of the genotype, including both body characteristics and behaviour

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88
Q

What’s so chromosome?

A

Molecules of DNA that transmit genetic information

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89
Q

What is DNA:

A
  • deoxyribonucleic acid

- molecules that carry all the biochemical instructions involved in the formation and functioning of an organism

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90
Q

What are genes:

A
  • sections of chromosomes that are the basic unit of heredity in all living things
  • make up only 2% of the human genome
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91
Q

What is an alleles?

A
  • two or more different forms of a gene
  • 1/3 of human genes have two or more different forms
  • they influence the same trait or characteristic, but contribute to different developmental outcomes
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92
Q

What does homozygous mean :

A

Having two of the same allele for a trait

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93
Q

What does heterozygous mean:

A

Having two different alleles for a trait

94
Q

What is polygenetic inheritance?

A

Is inheritance in which traits are governed by more than one gene

95
Q

What is Phenyiketonuria (PKU)?

A

Is a disorder related to a defective recessive gene on chromosome 12 that prevents metabolism of phenylalanine

96
Q

What is a cell body:

A

Contains the basic biological material that keeps the neuron functioning

97
Q

What is a dendrite:

A

Neural fibres that receive input from other cells and conduct it toward the cell body in the form of electrical impulses

98
Q

What is the cerebral cortex:

A

-the “grey matter” of the brain that plays a primary role in what is though to be human like functioning such as seeing, hearing, and writing

99
Q

What is the occipital lobe?

A

-lobe of the cortex that is primarily;y involved in processing visual information

100
Q

What is the temporal lobe?

A
  • is the lobe of the cortex that is associated with memory, visual recognition, and the processing of emotion and auditory information
101
Q

What is the parietal lobe:

A
  • the lobe of the cortex that governs spatial processing and intergrated sensory input with information stored in memory
102
Q

What is the frontal lobe?

A
  • the lobe in the cortex that is associate with organizing behaviour
  • this lobe is thought to be responsible for the human ability to plan ahead
103
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

Is a dense tract of nerve fibres that enable the tw hemispheres of the brain to communicate

104
Q

What is cerebral Lateralization?

A

-the specialization of the hemispheres of the brain for different modes of processing

105
Q

What are event-related potentials? (ERP)

A

-changes in the brains lectern all activity that occur in response to the presentation of a particular stimulus

106
Q

What is plasticity?

A

Is the capacity of the brain to be affected by experience

107
Q

What is experience-expectancy plasticity?

A
  • the process of which normal wiring of the brain is a result of experiences that every human who inhabits any normal environment will have
  • benefit= fewer genes needed to be dedicated to normal developments
  • downside= makes the brain more vulnerable as there is now an expectation and if that is not fulfilled damage may occur
108
Q

What is experience-dependent plasticity?

A
  • the process through which neural connections are created and recognized throughout life as a function of an individual’s experience
109
Q

When is full height achieved for females and males?

A 
Females= 15.5 years
Males= 17.5 years
110
Q

What is a secular trend?

A

These are marked changes in physical development that have occurred over generations

111
Q

What are some critiques to the methodological critique?

A
  • it is perceptual rather than conceptual
  • is cross sectional vs. Longitudinal
  • they use the “looking time” paradigm
112
Q

Critiques of the conceptual view of development

A
  • are they studying the same thing ?
  • impose an adult view
  • believe that the first observation of an action it the indication of mastery of a concept
113
Q

What is empiricism?

A
  • knowledge that comes from experience
114
Q

What is nativism?

A

Knowledge that comes from inside

115
Q

What’s is constructivism?

A

Knowledge that doesn’t come from either inside or outside but rather within interactions

116
Q

What is the nominal fallacy?

A

-thinking you’ve explained a concept by identifying it

-

117
Q

What are some meta theoretical assumptions?

A
  • philosophical assumptions on which theories are based
  • includes dualist and cognitivist assumptions
  • includes enactivism, interactivity, embodied cognition, situated cognition, relational constructivism
118
Q

What is an example of probabilistic epigenesis?

A
  • Gilber Gottlleb duck imperessions
  • research showed how development actual functioned
  • is a metatheoretical model of development
  • no split between genes and environment
119
Q

What is predetermine epigenesis?

A
  • there is a split between environment and genes in order to have an interaction
  • environment is thought to be a trigger
120
Q

What is the developmental systems theory:

A
  • broad theoretical perspective on development, heredity and evolution
  • emphasizes that shared influences of genes, environment, and epigenetic factors: one is no more important than the other
121
Q

Describe the reaction range model:

A
  • developmental outcomes are predetermine by genetics

- says that environment is a trigger and that bounds of development are set by genes

122
Q

What is the norm of reaction model?

A
  • actual finding
  • genetic difference in mice is only expressed under the same developmental conditions under which I was selected and only under this condition is development somewhat predictable
  • environment is not a trigger but an ever-present co-creative factor in development
123
Q

Describe the evolutionary theory:

A
  • belief that genes and development are seperate
124
Q

What des Neo-Darwinism focus on?

A

Adaptations via natural selection

125
Q

What is the deterministic view?

A
  • that genes determine environment
126
Q

What are 3 reasons to study language?

A
  1. Interesting, important aspects of culture, practical implications
  2. Related to the nature of mind knowledge, meaning and thinking
  3. Evolution and human cognition
127
Q

What were John Lockes beliefs?

A
  • a common-sense view of language: words used for recording our though and communications of our thoughts to others
  • nature of language and nature of mind
  • believed that the way children learn words is through labeling
128
Q

When does babbling occur?

A

Approx 6 months

129
Q

Define canonical:

A

-repeated sounds of vowels and consonants

130
Q

Define variegated:

A

These are more complex combos but still not conversations

131
Q

At what age to words being to form

A

1 year

132
Q

When does the holophrastic phase occur

A
  • 10-18 months

- single worded phrases

133
Q

When is it assumed that children know 200 hundred words?

A

By 2 years

134
Q

What is telegraphic phase?

A

After 24 months and that is two worded phrases or more with no real meaning context

135
Q

What are the 4 aspects to language?

A
  1. Phonology
  2. Semantics
  3. Syntax
  4. Pragmatic so
136
Q

What are B.F. Skinners beliefs?

A
  • tried to explain language in terms of behaviourist learning principles such as imitation or shaping
  • associative chain theory: sentences that consist of associations between rival he words in the sentences
137
Q

What were the beliefs of Noam Chomsky:

A
  • he thought synaptic rules are neither learner or innate
  • argues humans learn language because of an innate ability
  • thinks kids grammar isn’t corrected by adults
138
Q

What is positive evidence?

A

Everything a child hearts

139
Q

What is negative evidence

A

-input about which utterances are ungrammatical

140
Q

What is ethology?

A
  • the study of organisms in their natural environment
141
Q

What was Piaget about?

A
  • developed the theory of cognitive development
  • designed simple test to reveal cognitive abilities of children
  • interested in the origins of knowledge
  • believes knowledge is created in childhood and within actions
  • his theory of knowledge is constructivism
  • focused on two main things: adaptation and organization
142
Q

Define assimilation:

A
  • organism understands environment in terms of existing schemes
143
Q

Define accommodation:

A
  • schemes are general so they always need adjustment or accommodation when applied in a particular situation
144
Q

What are the 4 stages Piaget believed to be part of development?

A
  1. Sensorimotor
  2. Pre operational
  3. Concrete operational
  4. Formal Operational
145
Q

Describe Piaget Sensorimotor stage

A
  • ages 0-2
  • infants activities center on their own bodies
  • early goals are concrete
  • their intelligence is bound to their immediate perceptions and actions
146
Q

Describe Piaget’s preoperational stage:

A
  • ages 2-7
  • main development of language and mental imagery
  • symbolic representation occurs
147
Q

Define egocentrism:

A
  • assessed with Piaget’s mountains task
  • this task is used to demonstrate the inability to coordinate perspectives
  • assume others think and see what they see
148
Q

Define Centration:

A
  • conservation of length task
  • children will focus on the stick you move
  • mislead by the appearances
149
Q

Describe Piaget’s concrete operational:

A
  • ages 7-12
  • begin to reason logically about concrete objects and events in this world
  • overcome centration and understand reversibility
  • limited knowledge t real objects – NO abstract thinking
150
Q

Describe Piaget’s formal operations:

A
  • ages 12+
  • reason systematically
  • think abstractly
  • can create hypotheses
151
Q

What are the criticisms of Piaget’s 4 stage theory of development?

A
  • depict children’s thinking as being more consistent
  • children’s exposure to the instruments used in tasks such as the beakers
  • ## that he underestimates children’s abilities
152
Q

What was Vygotsky all about?

A
  • focused on social factors in development
  • was interested in the social origins of mental factors
  • interested in natural and cultural lines of development
  • believes social interactions become the basis for thought
  • believes in private speech
153
Q

Describe private speech:

A
  • when kids talk to themselves

- Piaget stated this was part of the pre-operational stage and he saw it as an immaturity of the mind

154
Q

Describe a dyadic interaction:

A
  • between the infant and parent OR infant and an object

- is face to face

155
Q

Describe a Triachic interaction:

A
  • between self, other and the world
  • early form of communication
  • shared engagements
156
Q

What does social referencing mean?

A
  • when a child looks a their parents face for direction
157
Q

What are 4 things pointing can influence?

A
  1. Proto-imperative
  2. Proto- declarative
  3. Proto- informative
  4. Porto- Interrogative
158
Q

What does proto- imperative mean?

A

-to request something

159
Q

What does proto- declarative mean?

A

To direct attention

160
Q

What does proto- informative mean?

A

To inform

161
Q

What does proto- interrogative:

A
  • means to ask questions
162
Q

Why is pointing (joint attention) important?

A
  • required for language and culture
  • develops ability to share meanings based on the outside world without speaking
  • pointing could represent a dividing line between humans and other apes
  • lack of joint attention could be an early sign of autism
163
Q

What was Tomasello all about:

A
  • believes there are two lines of development (general primate and human unique)
  • believes pointing is a priority socially in nature
  • pointing social first and then becomes an individual thing
  • experiments on infants at 12 months of age
164
Q

What does Tomasello describe as a general primate:

A
  • cognitive capacities and basic understanding of attention
165
Q

What does Tomasello describe as “human unique”

A
  • a motivation to share psychological state
166
Q

What is object permanence:

A
  • the knowledge that objects continue to exist even when they are out of view
167
Q

A-not-B error:

A
  • is the tendency to reach for a hidden object where it was last found rather than in the new location where it was last hidden
168
Q

What is deferred imitation:

A
  • the repetition of other poeple’s behaviour a substantially after it originally occured
169
Q

What is inter-subjectivity?

A
  • is the mutual understanding that people share during communication
170
Q

Describe dynamic systems theory:

A
  • A class of theories that focus on how change occurs over time in a complex different systems
  • view children as ever-changing, well- integrated organisms
  • actions are shaped by children’s remote and recent history
171
Q

How does Freud define the ID?

A
  • earliest and most primitive personality structure
  • it occurs unconsciously
  • operates with the goal of seeking instant gratification
172
Q

Describe Freud’s Oral Stage:

A
  • first stage
  • occurring in the first year
  • where primary source of satisfaction comes orally
173
Q

How does Freud describe the ego:

A
  • second of the personality structures to develop

- it is the rational, logical, problem solving component

174
Q

What is Freud’s anal stage :

A
  • second stage in Freud’s theory
  • lasting from ages 1-3 approx
  • primary source of pleasure is from defecation
175
Q

What is Freud’s phailic stage?

A
  • third stage
  • ages 3-6
  • sexual pleasure is focused on the genitalia
176
Q

Describe Freud’s superego:

A
  • third personality structure to develop

- consists of internalized moral standards

177
Q

Describe the Oedipus complex:

A
  • Freud’s term used to describe the conflict experienced by boys in the phailic period because of their sexual desire for their mother and their fear of retaliation by their father
178
Q

Describe the Electra complex:

A
  • Freud’s term for the conflict experienced by girls in the phailic stage when they develop unacceptable romantic feelings for their father and see their mother as a rival
179
Q

Describe the latency Period:

A
  • fourth stage
  • lasting from ages 6-12
  • sexual energy gets channeled into socially acceptable activities
180
Q

Describe the gentian stage:

A
  • the fifth and final stage
  • beginning in adolescence
  • sexual maturation is complete and sexual intercourse becomes a major goal
181
Q

What is intermittent reinforcement:

A
  • inconsistent response to the behaviour of another person
182
Q

Define what a concept is:

A
  • organizes our experiences

- actually means of how we come to understand the world

183
Q

At what age does the “baby’s are sophisticated video” say infants have a “naive psychology” that involves common sense levels of understanding of other people

A

Age 3

184
Q

What is a Dyadic interaction?

A
  • emotional exchanges
185
Q

What is a Triachic interaction?

A
  • pointing gestures
186
Q

Describe what a “theory of mind” means:

A
  • thinking about the social world

- understanding people in terms of thoughts, beliefs, desires, and intentions

187
Q

Who was Decartes?

A
  • believed in the separation of mind and body
  • ## also that only you can know your own mind
188
Q

By what age do children attribute mental states to others

A

Age 6

189
Q

Describe the theory-theory and its criticism :

A
  • theory that gives “theory of mind” it’s name
  • Sees children as “child scientists”
  • state children form a theory about their own mind and other minds
  • provides a Causual-explanatory framework

-what exactly is a theory?

190
Q

Describe the innate module theory and its criticism:

A
  • is an evolutionary explanation
  • belief that children are born with innate modules for computing mental states
  • is a nativists point of view
  • very deterministic
  • assumption based
  • biased point no perspective taking
191
Q

Describe the stimulation theory and its criticism:

A
  • children don’t need a “theory” because they have their own mind and can imagine themselves in another place
  • does not explain knowledge base therefore maybe it is a mix of theories
  • is introspection really possible if children don’t know about minds yet?
192
Q

What are some facts from Dr. Lewkowics video

A
  • Plato believed knowledge is innate
  • Aristotle believed knowledge is acquired
  • Dr. Lewkowics believes our brain combines our senses together to create information
  • 8-10 months infants begin lip reading and babbling
  • 12 months bilingual children will focus on the mouth as they are struggling to decide what language is what
  • ## he believes knowledge is developmental
193
Q

What are the 5 virtues Erikson describes?

A
  1. Trust vs. Mistrust (hope)- first year
  2. Autonomy vs. Doubt (will)- ages 1- 3 1/2
  3. Initiative vs. Guilt (purpose)- ages 4-6
  4. Industry vs. Inferiority (competence)- ages 6- puberty
  5. Identity vs. Role confusion (fidelity)- adolescence- early adulthood
194
Q

Who was Watson?

A
  • learning theorist
  • founded behaviourism
  • believed children’s development was determined by their social environment
  • posited that learning through conditioning as the primary mechanism of development
  • conducted the “little Albert experiment”
195
Q

Who was skinner?

A
  • focused on importance of attention as a powerful reinforcer
  • highlight difficulty of extinguishing behaviour that has been intermittently reinforced
  • led to a form of therapy known as behaviour modification
196
Q

Who was Bandura?

A
  • emphasizes observation of others and imitation
  • “Bobo doll” experiment
  • place more emphasis on the cognitive aspects of observational learning
  • argued that child-environment influences operate in both directions
  • believed in the importance of self-efficacy
197
Q

Entity theory of intelligence:

A

Posits a response level of intelligence is fixed and un changeable

198
Q

Incremental theory of intelligence:

A
  • suggests intelligence can increase as a function of experience
199
Q

Why are human brains so big?

A
  • the larger the brain size of various primates, the longer the developmental period
  • we don’t have an extra -uterine year
  • this making adaption very easy for us
200
Q

What age does Postman say is the age of adulthood? And why this age?

A

7-17

  • age 7 is when children’s language is well developed
  • Middle Ages lacked literacy and education so children and adults took in and understood the same amount of information
201
Q

During what years did the idea of a childhood become more prominent?

A

1850’s- 1950’s

As the printing press created childhood as it gave a certain age kids were not aloud in factories at.

202
Q

What are the 3 functions of attachment Bowlby and Ainsworth address?

A
  • to maintain proximity and ensure survival
  • to develop feelings
  • to serve as a secure base for exploration
203
Q

What are the 4 types of attachment?

A
  • secure
  • insecure avoidant
  • ambivalent
  • disorganized
204
Q

Define the secure form of attachment

A
  • children will react in exploring the room,
  • making contact with their mom as a base
  • if stranger enters the room and the mother leaves her the infant becomes distressed but easily made happy when mother comes back
205
Q

Describe the insecure- avoidant attachment style:

A
  • will explore the room without involving mom
  • not wary with stranger or lack of mom
  • not distressed when mother leaves infant with a stranger
206
Q

Describe the ambivalent attachment style:

A
  • stay close to mom
  • wary of strangers
  • distressed without mom
  • did not greet mom when she came back into the room
207
Q

Describe the disorganized attachment style:

A
  • combination of avoidant and ambivalent traits
  • inconsistent
  • seem to want to approach mom but also show some fear
208
Q

When is the sensitive period for a child’s attachment?

A

During the first 6 months

209
Q

When does fear around strangers occur?

A

6-7 months

210
Q

What are the 6 primary emotions

A
  • happiness
  • saddness
  • Fear
  • Anger
  • Surprise
  • Disgust
211
Q

What did Thomas and Chess discover in their New York Longitudinal study?

A
  • 40% are easy babies
  • 10 % difficult babies
  • 15% slow to warm up babies
  • and the rest did not fit into a category
212
Q

What is rumination:

A
  • a perspective focus on ones own negative emotions and on their causes and consequences, without engaging in efforts to improve ones situation
213
Q

What Is co-rumination?

A
  • extensively discussion and self disclosing emotional problems with another person
214
Q

What is morality?

A
  • is considered as the set of customs and values that are embraced by a cultural group to guide social conduct
215
Q

How did Freud, Kolhberg/ Piaget, and other behaviourists see morality?

A
  • Freud: saw moral development as an original sin
  • Kohlberg/ Piaget: saw moral development as innate purity where the morality they start out with is not their own
  • Behavioursit: see moral development as a blank slate
216
Q

At what age are infants able to recognize the need for help?

A

At 18 months, where at 14 months they are unable to

217
Q

During the video of Frans de Waal what did he believe were the pillars of morality?

A
  • reciprocity (fairness)

- empathy (compassion)

218
Q

Who was Kohlberg?

A
  • inspired by Piaget
  • focused on moral reasoning
  • against character education
  • presented poeple with a series of hypothetical dilemmas
  • he was concerned with the reasoning behind people’s decision not just the decisions
  • 6 stages of development
219
Q

What are Kohlbergs 6 stages?

A
  1. Obedience And punishment orientation
  2. Individualism and exchange
  3. Good interpersonal relationships
  4. Maintaining the social social
  5. Social contract and individual rights
  6. Universal principles
220
Q

What are the differences between Kohlberg and Piaget

A
  • Kohlberg was more about moral reasoning as role taking or the application of moral principles wher Piaget is more about relationships and perspective taking
  • Piaget believed moral thinking is conscious realization of moral activity where action is first then thought but Kohlberg thought thought occured first then action
221
Q

What are altruistic motives?

A
  • helping others for reasons that initially include empathy or sympathy for others and at later ages the desire to act in ways consistent with ones own conscious and moral principles
222
Q

Describe authoritative parenting

A
  • a parenting style that is high in demanding mess and supportiveness.
  • These parents set clear standards and limits for their children and are firm about enforcing them, whil at the same time allowing their children considerable autonomy within those limits,
  • Are attentive/ responsive
  • Respect + consider child’s perspective
  • Strict
  • Not over bearing
  • Clear standards
  • Firm with enforcment
  • High demanding
  • High supportiveness
  • Allow kids within limitations their autonomy
  • Take children’s perspective
  • Children behaviour
    - More popular
    - More self assured
    - Competent
    - Control their own behaviour
    - Low in problem behvaiour
223
Q

Describe authoritarian parenting:

A
  • a parenting style that is high in demanding press and low in responsiveness
  • Are unresponsive to their children’s needs and tend to enforce their demands by parental power
  • Orientated towards obedience and authority
  • Expect children to comply with their demands without question or explanation
  • High in demanding
  • Low in supportiveness
  • Exercise of parental power and the use of threats and punishments
  • Not too much of perspective taking
  • Orientated towards obedience and authority
  • Expect children to comply without question or explanation
  • Children behaviour
    - Low in social and academic competence in childhood and adolescence
    - Tend to be unhappy and unfriendly
224
Q

Describe the permissive parenting style:

A
  • a parenting style that is high in responsiveness but low in demandingness
  • Responsive to children’s needs
  • Do not require children to regulate themselves or an act in appropriate or mature ways
  • Low in demandingness
  • High in supportiveness
  • Responsive to children’s needs
  • Don’t regulate children’s behaviour or require mature behvaiour
  • Children behaviour
    - Impulsive
    - Lacking self control
    - Low in school achievement
    - Engage in more school misconduct and drug us than those with authoritative parents
225
Q

Describe the rejecting- neglecting parenting style:

A
  • a disengaged parenting style that is low in both responsiveness and demandingness
  • Do not set limits for or monitor their children’s behaviour
  • Not supportive
  • They tend to be focused on their own needs rather than their children’s needs
  • Low in supportiveness
  • Low in demands
  • Tend to focus on their own needs
  • Don’t set limits for or monitor thier children’s behavior
  • Childs behaviour
    - Have attachment problems
    - Poor peer relationships
    - Tend to show antisocial. Behaviour
    - Poor self regulations
    - Internalizing problems
    - Substance abuse
    - Risky sexual behvaiour
    - Low academic and social competence
226
Q

What are the two main functions of families?

A
  • to ensure survival of offspring

- to provide children means to acquire the skills to be economically successful

227
Q

Describe developmental systems theory:

A
  • individually based

- genes play the largest role but not only thing

228
Q

Describe the bioecological model:

A
  • individual in relation to various levels of social and ecological factors
  • members influence eachother directly
  • dynamics change as children grow
229
Q

What are the 2 important dimensions of parenting styles?

A
  1. Degree of parental control

2. Demandingness

230
Q

What are some of the economic family changes in Canada?

A
  • age at first marriage
  • Parental work outside the home
  • Age at birth of first child
  • Divorce rate
  • Number of out-of-wedlock- births
  • Rate of one-parent and step families
  • childbearing in adolescence has declined signifificantly in Canada since 1974
231
Q

What percent of mothers with children under the age of 6 were employed in a 2011 study?

A

56%

232
Q

What percent of mothers with children ages 6-17 were employed in a 2011 study?

A

76%

PSYCH 250 (1 decks)

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