Psych Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of memory disturbances?

A

Memory disturbances:
* Topographical - inability to orientate oneself
* Autobiographical/episodic (extrinsic memory) - specific events and issues related to onself
* Procedural (instrinsic memory) - memory/knowledge of “how to do things” aka unconscious motor skills like driving
* Semantic memory - “knowledge base” and is unrelated to specific experiences or events

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2
Q

What do the following mean?
1. Perseveration
2. Confabulation
3. Déjà vu
4. Ganser’s syndrome
5. Jamais vu

A
  1. Perseveration - an appropriate response to a stimulus the first time but then giving the same reponse incorrectly to a different second stimulus (almost exclusively in organic brain disease). This can be verbal or motor
  2. Confabulation - phenomenon whereby false memories occur and results in incorrect answers being given
  3. Déjà vu - phenomenon whereby the person feels the sense of familiarity of having encountered an event before, even though this is a new experience for them. Can be seen as a feature of frontal lobe epilepsy but can also be present in non-pathological states
  4. Ganser’s syndrome - unusual phenomenon whereby people give ‘approximate’ answers, among other symptoms, such as, ‘How many legs does a cow have?’ ‘Five’. It has caused considerable debate as to whether it represents an organic psychotic disorder or a dissociative disorder.
  5. Jamais vu - sensation that a familar event or place has never been encountered before
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3
Q

What is an illusion and what do these specific illusions mean?

  1. Affect illusion
  2. Completion illusion
  3. Pareidolic illusion
A

An illusion is a misinterpretation of a perception (unlike a halluciation where a new perception is experienced in the absence of a stimulus). These are usually not pathological.

Affect illusion - perception is altered depending on the mood state (i.e. frightened woman waking up from sleep and misinterprets a hanging gown as an attacker)

Completion illusion - lack of attention and a perception is incorrectly interpreted (i.e. skipping over a misprint in a book because you are tired)

Pareidolic illusion - shapes being seen in other objects (i.e. seeing animals in cloud formations). These become more vivid with concentration.

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4
Q

What is a hallucination and what do these specific hallucinations mean?

  1. Visual hallucination
  2. Tactile hallucination
  3. Extracampine hallucination
  4. Functional hallucination
  5. Hypnagogic hallucination
  6. Hypnopompic hallucination
  7. Reflex hallucination
A

A halluciation where a new perception is experienced in the absence of a stimulus

Visual hallucination - seeing something in the absence of a stimulus

Tactile hallucination - tactile (touch) sensation in the absence of a stimulus

Extracampine hallucination - false perceptions that occur outside the limits of a person’s normal sensory field (i.e. saying you are hearing other people speaking in another country)

Functional hallucination - where a hallucination is only experienced when an external stimulus is present in the same modality (i.e. hearing voices when listening to classical music)

Hypnagogic hallucination - hallucinations that occur on falling asleep

Hypnopompic hallucination - hallucinations that occur on waking up

Reflex hallucination - similar to functional but the stimulus is a different modality to the hallucination (e.g. woman with schizophrenia hearing voices every time her child looks at her)

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5
Q

How do you differentiate the following?
1. Delusional perception
2. Authochthonous delusion
3. Autoscopy
4. Delusional atmosphere
5. Delusional memory

A

Delusional perception - occurs when a normal perception is invested with a delusional meaning - gives it a whole new false and bizzare meaning (i.e. seeing a magazine cover and now believing a cult is trying to kill them)

Authochthonous delusion - one that arises out of the blue (and unlike delusional perception is not attached to a real stimulus). It should be distinguished from secondary delusions in which the beliefs are understandable in the context of the sufferer’s mood or history (e.g. a mood-congruent depressive delusion). A primary delusion is by definition un-understandable in any context

Autoscopy - sensation of seeing oneself, although aetiology and psychopathology is controversial

Delusional atmosphere - aka delusional mood. It refers to the state of perplexity or bewilderment in which sufferers feel that something is ‘going on’ but without being able to state exactly what. It often occurs prior to a delusion forming and the sufferer will often describe feeling odd and that everything around them has new ‘meanings’ and significance to them in particular

Delusional memory - when patients recall a memory from the past and interpret it with a delusional meaning

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6
Q

Schneider’s first rank symptoms

A

Delusional perceptions
Running commentary
Somatic passivity
Thought alienation - withdrawal and insertion
Thought broadcasting
Auditory hallucinations

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7
Q

What do the following speech abnormalities mean?

Logoclonia
Alogia
Dysarthria
Echolalia
Neologism

A

Logoclonia - the repetition of the last syllable of a word repeatedly (often seen in Parkinson’s). This is different aetiology to stammering or tics seen in Tourette’s

Alogia - extreme poverty of speech with “not having any words”. Commonly seen in severe negative schizophrenia or dementia

Dysarthria - difficulty in the manufacture of speech, commonly due to structural lesions to the vocal cords or brainstem

Echolalia - phenomenon where words/sentences that the patient hears are repeated back, sometimes continuously and incessantly. Often seen in organic causes like dementia or brain injury but also functional disorders like schizophrenia

Neologisms - creation of new words with specific meaning to them, usually linked to delusional beliefs

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8
Q

What are night terrors?

A

They are not the same as nightmares and they do not occur in REM sleep.

The sufferer (usually children) does not remember any bad dreams but will awake from sleep in a state of abject terror and confusion, often shouting and sometimes lashing out.

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9
Q

What is catatonia and what are its associations?

A

Catatonia is a state of either stupor in which the patient is entirely unresponsive or excited - it is associated with schizophrenia and many other conditions.

Catalepsy - limbs become rigid and some limbs move into unusual positions even if they are extremely uncomfortable (NOT TO BE CONFUSED WITH CATAPLEXY which is when there is a sudden and transient loss of muscle tone resulting in collapse)

Echolalia

Negativism - patients do the automatic opposite of what they are asked to do - patients are not ususally resisting instructions/movements but are actually attempting to perform the opposite instruction/movement

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10
Q

Do delirium tremens patients experience formication?

A

No, they may complain of visual hallucinations of small insects but formincations (the sensation of insects crawling over one’s skin) is usually seen in cocaine intoxication

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11
Q

What is chronic alcohol dependence associated with?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency as a result of poor nutritional intake and a direct toxic effect of alcohol on bone marrow.

It is also associated with thrombocytopenia (as a result of vitamin B12 and folate deficiency), hypoglycaemia and hypokalaemia

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12
Q

How do you mange delirium?

A

There is usually an acute confusional state with a recognised cauitive factor (i.e. infection), the patient is usually older age and has fluctuating confusion

The first step is conservative management (i.e. side room, keeping light levels appropriate to the time of day, repeated reassuring - anything that would improve orientation of the patient)

If medication is needed, then you would consider low-dose antipsychotics like haloperidol (typical antispychotics with fewer anticholinergic effects)

Bezodiazepines are 2nd line agents but patients are prone to respiratory depression and “paradoxical excitation”

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13
Q

What are the psychiatric side effects of corticosteroid use?

A

Mania is the main side effect (steroid psychosis) but there can also be depression (less common), and the two can co-exist.

Depression can result from acute or chronic use, or discontinuation of corticosteroids - mediation by the HPA axis (for example depression is a common symptom in Cushing’s disease, as a result of chronic hypercotisolism)

*It can also cause delirium

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14
Q

What are signs of frontal lobe injury?

A

The frontal lobe is extremely vulnerable in traumatic brain injury - it often involves personality changes:
1. Inappropriate or “fatuous” affect
2. Lability and irritability of mood
3. Hypersexuality
4. Hyperphagia or overeating
5. “Childishness” or prankish josking (akak Witzelsucht)
*There is usually no insight into this change in behaviour

Other changes include poor concentration and “forced utilisation” - a strange phenomenon when patients will use objects they see in front of them irrespective of whether they need to use them or not, e.g. patients may get undressed and go to bed on entering a bedroom in the middle of the day despite not being tired. There may also be the emergence of primitive reflexes, such as the grasp reflex.

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15
Q

What is the role of the basal ganglia?

A

It is the deep grey matter (subcortical) structure with strong connections to the cortex and thalamus. It is mostly involved in complex roles in motor behaviour, but can present with neuropsychiatric symptoms due to their strong connections to the frontal cortex.
However, these are usually associated with ‘negative’ symptoms such as slowing of movement and lack of spontaneity. There is also an increase in obsessional symptoms (basal ganglia are thought to be heavily involved in the pathogenesis of OCD)

Contusions are unlikey given the anatomical location but it is very susceptible to cerebral hypoxia

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16
Q

What is the limbic system and what is its function?

A

The limbic system involves deep structures such as the hippocampus, parahippocampal gyrus, the amygdala, the fornix, cingulate gyrus and the thalamus.

They have varied functions, but are principally involved in pleasure responses and memory. Injury to the limbic system would usually result in amnesia.

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17
Q

What are lesions of the parietal lobe associated with?

A

They are associated with visuo-spatial deficients:

Agnosia - inability to recognise objects
Dyspraxia - inability to coordinate motor activites
*There may also be dysphasias (motor or sensory)

Grestmann’s syndrome is a parietal lobe injury with 4 components:
‘Left-right’ disorientation
Dyscalculia (inability to perform arithmetical tasks)
Finger agnosia (inability to distinguish the fingers on the hand)
Agraphia (inability to write)

Non-dominant parietal lobe injuries may lead to body image disturbances, such as ‘anosognosia’ (inability to recognise injury to a particular limb) or ‘hemisomatognosia’ (the feeling that one side of the body is missing)

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18
Q

How do occipital lobe injurys present?

A

There are complex visual disturbances with vivid visual hallucinations

Anton’s syndrome = bilateral occipital lobe injury that renders the patient cortically blind but they have no insight and continue to affirm adamantly that they can see

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19
Q

What are signs of Wilson’s disease?

A

Neuropsychiatric signs:
* Aggression
* Reckless behaviour
* Disinhibition
* Self-harm
* Tremor
* Writhing arm movements

General signs:
* Jaundice
* Kayser-Fleischer rings (also seen in PBC)

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20
Q

How does young onset Parkinson’s present?

A

It is extremely rare (~5/100,000 under 40y)

Patient swill present with classic PD but will have more dystonic symptoms

Depression may occur but dementia is extremely rare (unlike in classical PD)

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21
Q

What is the most common psychiatric manifestation following a stroke?

A

Depression

*Make sure not to miss in aphasic patients

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22
Q

What are the typical symptoms of third ventricle wall/floor tumours?

A

Amnesia
Confabulation

You also ger symptoms of hypersomnia, hyperphagia, pyrexia and polydipsia (due to close proximity of the thalamus and hypothalamus)

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23
Q

How does niacin - B3 (pellagra) deficiency present?

A

Triad of:
* Gastrointestinal disturbnace - anorexia, diarrhoea and gastritis
* Dermatological symptoms - symmetrical, bilateral bullous lesions in sun-exposed areas
* Heterogenous constellation of psychiatric symptoms - apathy, depression, irritability (in later stages it can resemble delirium, psychosis or Korsakoff-like presentation)

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24
Q

How does Pick’s disease present?

A

It is a frontotemporal dementia that presents in the sixth decade of life (much earlier than other neurodegenerative disorders).

It presents with behaviour and personality changes before amnesic symptoms. These can include disinhibition, aggression, antisociality or the reverse of apathy

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25
Q

How does acute intermittent porphyria present?

A

Abdominal pain
Arm weakness
Diminished reflexes
Agitation
Auditory hallucinations

*It is a haem metabolism disorder resulting in the build-up of porphyria and their precuroses.

Attacks can be precipitated by menstruation, alcohol, poor nutrition and certain drugs like OCP

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26
Q

What are the different common types of schizophrenia?

A

Hebephrenic (aka disorganised) - predominance of thought disorder and affective symptoms (usually fatuous and childlike). Social withdrawal is common. Delusions and hallucinations are present but these are usually fragmented and not the most striking feature. Negative symptoms tend to develop early and quickly, and for this reason this subtype is considered to have a poor prognosis.

Catatonic - characterised as psychomotor disturbances or catatonic behaviour. This is often stupor or florid over-activity. There are often unusual symptoms such as automatic obedience, in which people will follow a command without questioning, or the opposite (negativism). In severe cases, people may take on odd postures for long periods, or the limbs may be moved into positions and will remain there (waxy flexibility).

Paranoid (“classical” type) - dominated by delusions and hallucinations. Thought disorder is less common.

Residual - late-stage schizophrenia in which the syndrome of ‘positive’ symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder) are replaced by predominately ‘negative’ symptoms (apathy, social withdrawal, avolition, blunting of affect, poverty of speech, self- neglect).

Simple - efined by ICD-10 as ‘the insidious development of oddities of conduct, inability to meet the demands of society, and decline in total performance’. There are usually no overt psychotic symptoms.

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27
Q

What is the pathophysiology of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?

A

It is as a result of antipsychotic medication use and is thought to be the result of dopamine blockade in the hypothalamus (pyrexia) and nigrostriatal pathway (extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremor and rigidity).

Peripheral blockade can cause changes in skeletal muscle contractility, which may exacerbate stiffness and cause muscle breakdown (with the consequent risk of rhabdomyolysis and renal failure).

It is an emergency where the antipsychotic should be stopped and supportive treatment (especially to ensure cardiovascular stability) needs to be considered

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28
Q

Which one confers with a positive prognostic feature of schizophrenia?
* Absence of mood symptoms
* Being male
* Being young
* Poor initial response to treatment
* Rapid onset of symptoms
* Lack of social networks
* Being single
* Poor pre-morbid educational attainment
* Predominately negative symptoms
* Long duration of illness before treatment

A

Rapid onset of symptoms

*All the others are poor prognostic features of schizophrenia!!

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29
Q

Which of the following is a not side effect of antipsychotic treatment?
* Akathisia
* Convulsions
* Hypotension
* Renal failure
* Tachycardia

A

Renal failure (most antipsychotics are hepatically metabolised - kidneys only affected in rhabdomyolysis caused by NMS)

Pathophysiology of side effects:
Akathisia - EPSEs
Convulsions - seizure threshold lowered
Hypotension - adrenergic blockade
Tachycardia - alongisde cardiac arrythmias and prolonged QT intervals

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30
Q

What is depressive stupor?

A

It is a rare presentation of depressive disorder where there is mutism and akinesis (lack of movements).

Depression with severe psychomotor retardation can lead to dehydration and pressure sores and should be treated urgently.

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31
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of brucellosis?

A

Fevers
Headaches
Fatigue
Pain
Depression

It is a contagious zoonosis transmitted via unpasteurised goat’s milk or through contact with infected animals

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32
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?

  • Methyldopa
  • Atenolol
  • Ibuprofen
  • Prednisolone
  • Amlodipine
A

Methyldopa - The side effects of methyldopa include depression, suicidal ideation and nightmares

Corticosteroids such as prednisolone, hydrocortisone and dexamethasone are associated with mania but may also cause depression. Some beta-blockers which cross the blood–brain barrier, such as propranolol, may cause depression but atenolol does not. Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is rarely associated with depression. Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker, indicated for the treatment of hypertension. Depression is an occasional side effect of calcium channel blockers.

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33
Q

What are the psychiatric associations of neurosyphilis?

A

Psychosis
Mania
Depression

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34
Q

What are risk factors for depression?

A

Family history
Female gender
Childhood abuse
Poverty
Social isolation

*No relation with old age. Higher education is a protective factor

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35
Q

What is nihilism?

A

It is a psychological feature of depression characterised by an overwhelming feeling of hopelessness and negativity, which may amount to delusional intensity

Other psychological features of depression that can occur concurrently are low mood, anhedonia, hopelessness, guilt, poor concentration, irritability, low self-esteem and suicidal thoughts

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36
Q

What are the symptoms of anxiety?

A

Somatic (physical) - due to autonomic arousal:
* gastrointestinal - dry mouth, epigastric discomfort, diarrhoea
* respiratory - SOB, hyperventilation
* CVS - palpitations, tachycardia
* genitourinary - urgency, impotence, menstrual disturbances
* neuro - tremor, sleep disturbance, headache

Psychological:
* intense worries or fear
* irritability
* hypersensitivity to noise
* poor concentration

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37
Q

What is the role of beta blockers in social phobia?

A

Despite not having any role in tackling the source of the phobia, they are used for symptomatic relief in unavoidable stressful social situations

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38
Q

What is PANDAS?

A

Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infections - an autoimmune reaction following from beta-haemolytic streptococcal infections in children.

The neuropsychiatric consequences include obsessive-compulsive symptoms and tic disorders

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39
Q

What pathological finding on brain MRI is most inkeeping with Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Hippocampus atrophy is the main finding

  • You can also get generalised cerebral atrophy and enlarged ventricles
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40
Q

Which compound has an effect on the symptoms of dementia?

  • Serotonin
  • Dopamine
  • Acetylcholine
  • Histamine
  • GABA
A

Acetylcholine - has an effect on cognition in dementia

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41
Q

What is the common presenting triad in Lewy body dementia?

A

Visual hallucinations
Fluctuating cognitive impairment
Parkisonism

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41
Q

Which of the following would suggest a diagnosis of depression rather than dementia in a patient presenting with memory loss?

  • Delusions
  • Fluctuating conscious level
  • Low mood
  • Poor verbal fluency
  • Excessive worry over memory loss
A

Excessive worry over memory loss

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42
Q

What is somatisation?

A

It is the dispacement of psychological distress such as depression into physical symptoms. This is commonly seen in the depressed elderly as a way of alleviating their distress.

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43
Q

What are relative contraindicatiosn for ECT?

A

There are very few but some contraindications include:
* heart disease
* raised ICP
* Poor anaesthetic risk

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44
Q

How does late-onset bipolar affectve disorder present?

A

It is commonly in patients above the age of 50, presenting latently following many years of severeal depressive episodes

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45
Q

What is very late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis (VLOSLP)?

A

It typically affects women more than men, and sufferers often have no personality or congnitive problems.

Delusions can take any form, but it is very common for sufferers to describe ‘partition delusions’, in which solid structures become permeable to people or substances.

Antipsychotic response is relatively poor, with formal psychological interventiosn offering more relief.

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46
Q

How does chronic alcohol use and dependence present?

A

Alcohol dementia with many different pathologies:
* Irreversible cognitive problems
* Predisposition to cerebrovascular disease, head injury (and subsequent Alzheimer’s disease)
* Korskoff’s syndrome

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47
Q

What should you be weary of in new presentation of hypercalcaemia?

A

Malignancy where there is producted or PTHrp

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48
Q

Which of the following statements is true about medicines in older age?

  • Antipsychotics are the drugs of choice for behavioural disturbance in dementia
  • Fat-soluble drugs (such as diazepam) will have a longer duration of action because of increased body fat in older people
  • Lithium doses in older people should generally be lower because the liver cannot excrete it as efficiently
  • Older people are less sensitive to the effects of benzodiazepines
  • Tricyclic antidepressants will not cause constipation in older people because of a general increase in gut motility
A

Fat-soluble drugs (such as diazepam) will have a longer duration of action because of increased body fat in older people - older people have a higher body fat content and less body water so there is an increased volume of distribution

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49
Q

In personality disorders, what does ICD-10 state is required?

A

ICD-10 specifies that the individual’s inner experiences or behaviour must be manifest in more than one of the following areas (but not necessarily all):
* Cognition
* Affectivity
* Control over impulses
* Manner of relating to others

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50
Q

How many factors are there to describe personality?

A

5 (OCEAN)

Openess to experience
Conscientiousness
Extraverson/intraversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism

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51
Q

Which of the following is least likely to predict dangerous behaviour?

  • Co-morbid mental disorder
  • Co-morbid substance abuse disorder
  • Juvenile delinquency
  • Pathological lying
  • Superficial charm
A

Co-morbid mental disorder

Even though co-morbid mental disorder can increase dangerouness (i.e. the presence of violent command hallucinations, high levels of
perceived threat in paranoid states), overall there is very little violence directly attributable to mental illness

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52
Q

How is Freud’s model to understand our instincts and drives divided?

A

Id - unconscious part of the mind that contains innate instincts such as sexuality and aggression

Ego - conscious part of the mind that composes rational thinking and balances the needs of the individual against the demands
of the outside world

Superego - analagous to what we might call ‘conscience’ and contains
our moral rules. Freud believed it developed from our identification with
authority figures and is part conscious, part unconscious

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52
Q

What different types of defence mechanisms are there?

A

Denial - refusal to accept reality despite all logical evidence.

Repression - unconscious exclusion of painful desires, thoghts or fears.

Idealisation - perceiving another individual as having more positive traits or qualities than they may actually possess (part of splitting)

Splitting - an individual perceives things as either all good (idealisation), or all bad (devaluation). Often seen in EUPD

Regression - the individual revers to an earlier stage of development in order to avoid stressful events. This is thought to occur in those stuck at a particular stage of psychosexual development

Sublimation (mature defence mechanism) - transformation of negative emotions or situations into positive feelings or behaviours

Dissociation - modification of one’s personality or identity in order to avoid distress (in severe forms, known as dissociative identity disorder)

Projection - ascribing one’s own thoughts, fears, attributes or emotions to the external world, usually another person, while denying them as one’s own (used to decrease anxiety)

Projective identification - ‘self-fulfilling prophecy’ whereby in projected emotions or feelings, the recipient begins to alter their behaviour in order to make the behaviour ‘real’

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53
Q

What is CBT?

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy

A type of talking therapy usually short-term and practical that aims to change the way individuals think or behave with regrds to themselves and others, by exploring erroneous patterns of thoughts, feelings and behaviours

Focuses on ‘here and now’ to a greater extent than psychodynamic psychotherapy, with the therapist uncovering ‘core beliefs’ the individual may hold about themselves or the world

This differs from psychotherapy which focusses on looking at deep-rooted problems as a result of past trauma or stresses, including in the individual’s childhood development

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54
Q

Which of the following statements regarding CBT is false?
* CBT may be carried out without a full qualification in CBT
* CBT may make reference to early childhood experiences
* CBT is more effective than medication for generalised anxiety disorder
* CBT is not useful in dementia
* CBT may involve family members

A

CBT is not useful in dementia

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55
Q

What is the difference between erectile dysfunction, sexual aversion disorder and hypoactive sexual desire disorder?

A

Erectile dysfunction - inabibility to develop or maintain an erection during intercourse. Causative factors include previous negative experiences (leading to performance anxiety), drugs, alcohol, stress and fatigue

Sexual aversion disorder - depressed sexual desire

Hypoactive sexual desire disorder - milder version of aversion disorder, associated with a lack of interest in sex

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56
Q

What is Wittmaack-Ekbom syndrome?

A

Also known as Restless Leg Syndrome

There are uncomfortable, often painful sensations in the legs, which are relieved by movement. The condition is either idiopathic or familial in most cases. It is associated with a number of medical conditions including rheumatoid arthritis, uraemia and iron deficiency anaemia.

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57
Q

What is Kleine-Levin symdrome?

A

It is characterized by distinct periods of extreme somnolence and excessive hunger. Males are far more affected than females. Other symptoms which may manifest include sexual disinhibition,
confusion, irritability, euphoria, hallucinations and delusions.

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58
Q

Define hypnic jerks

A

They occur at the onset of sleep and are associated with contractions of the limbs, neck or body. When wakened by the jerks there is a characteristic feeling of falling into space

59
Q

Which of the following is not a recognised complication of sustained anorexia nervosa?
* Bradycardia
* Heart failure
* Hypercholesterolaemia
* Parotid gland enlargement
* Thrombocytosis

A

Thrombocytosis - you would expect thrombophilia.

60
Q

What are characteristics of harmful use (of substances)?

A

Continued over a long period (at least 1 month) despite damage to the user’s physical or mental health

Occupation and family are often severely affected, with the patient downplaying the severity

61
Q

How does complicated withdrawal differ from (normal) withdrawal symptoms?

A

Complicated withdrawal is when the withdrawal state is associated with delirium, seizures or psychotic features.

Normal withdrawal includes features specific to individual drugs and can include both physical symptoms (e.g. appetite change and fatigue) and/or psychological symptoms (e.g. anxiety and depression) - these are relieved by reinstatement of the substance.

62
Q

Why is procyclidine contraindicated in myasthenia gravis?

A

Procyclidine is an antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) agent used in Parkinson’s disease and to treat EPSEs of antipsychotic medication

Thsis is contraindicated in MG as it is an autoimmune neurological disorder caused by anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction - this would worsen the condition

63
Q

What is Asperger’s syndrome?

A

Now thought to be on the same spectrum of disorders as autism (autism spectrum disorder), it is a condition that shares several similarities - abnormalities in social interactions, intense interest in a restricted range of behaviours or activites and motor clumsiness

However, there is usually no marked languaged delay or cognitive difficulties (unlike in autism)

64
Q

How does conduct disorder differ from oppositional defient disorder (ODD)?

A

ODD may progress to a more frank conduct disorder, it usually manifests in younger children and is characterised by disobedient and disruptive behaviour, but without the frank aggression and violence (seen in conduct disorder)

Conduct disorder is also thought to be strongly associated with adult dissocial personality disorder (psychopathy)

65
Q

What are appropriate treatments for the management of conduct disorder?

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy
Family therapy
Methylphenidate
Parent management training

66
Q

Which of the following statements regarding learning disability is correct?

  1. Epilepsy is over-represented in patients with learning disability
  2. Mild learning disability is usually defined by an IQ between 35 and 49
  3. The point prevalence of schizophrenia in people with learning disability is equal to that of the general population
  4. Suicide is more common in people with learning disability than the general population
  5. A person with learning disability cannot consent to treatment for medical conditions
A

Epilepsy is over-represented in patients with learning disability (1 is correct). The same can be said for schizophrenia (hence 3 is wrong).

Mild learning disability is between 70 and 50. Moderate is between 49 and 35. Severe is under 34 (so 2 is wrong).

Suicide is less common in people with moderate and severe learning disabilities (4 is wrong) . However self-injurous behaviours are common in learning disability and can increase with severity of disability.

While capacity must be carefully assessed when consenting someone with learning disability for medical treatment, by no means does this mean that a learning disability
automatically assumes incapacity. Capacity is decision-specific and must be assessed each time a decision is required (5 is wrong)

67
Q

Which of the following regarding trisomy 21 is correct?
1. Alzheimer’s disease is more common in people with Down’s syndrome than the general population
2. Mosaicism is responsible for approximately 20% of cases of Down’s syndrome
3. Not all cases of trisomy 21 will result in learning disability
4. People with Down’s syndrome cannot live independently
5. People with Down’s syndrome have a lower incidence of anxiety than the general population

A

Alzheimer’s disease is more common in people with Down’s syndrome than the general population - for those that survive to their 60s, at least 50% will show clinical evidence of dementia (as the amyloid precursor protein is encoded on Chromosome 21)

Mosaicism as opposed to non-dysjunction only accounts for 1-2% of Down’s cases (2 is wrong)

All trisomy 21 people will have some degree of learning disability (3 is wrong)

4 is wrong - they may require more support but are still able to live independently

People with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of most psychiatric disorders, including anxiety problems (5 is wrong)

68
Q

What is Section 2?

A
  • admission for assessment for up to 28 days, not renewable
  • an Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or rarely the nearest relative (NR) makes the application on the recommendation of 2 doctors
  • one of the doctors should be ‘approved’ under Section 12(2) of the Mental Health Act (usually a consultant psychiatrist)
  • treatment can be given against a patient’s wishes
69
Q

What is Section 3?

A
  • admission for treatment for up to 6 months, can be renewed
  • AMHP along with 2 doctors, both of which must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours
  • treatment can be given against a patient’s wishes
70
Q

What is Section 4?

A
  • 72 hour assessment order
  • used as an emergency, when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay
  • a GP and an AMHP or NR
  • often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at hospital
71
Q

What is Section 5(2)?

A

a patient who is a voluntary patient in hospital can be legally detained by a doctor for 72 hours

72
Q

What is Section 5(4)?

A

similar to section 5(2), allows a nurse to detain a patient who is voluntarily in hospital for 6 hours

73
Q

What is Section 17a?

A
  • Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order)
  • can be used to recall a patient to hospital for treatment if they do not comply with conditions of the order in the community, such as complying with medication
74
Q

What is Section 135?

A

a court order can be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety

75
Q

What are side effects of ECT?

A

Short-term:
* Headache
* Nausea
* Muscle aches
* Cardiac arrhythmia

Long-term:
* Impaired memory (retrograde > anterograde)

76
Q

How do you treat akathisia?

A

Low-dose propanolol or lorazepam

77
Q

Presentation of opioid withdrawal

A

Generalised muscle and joint pains
Abdominal cramps
Fever
“Everything runs” - diarrhoea, vomiting, lacrimation, rhinorrhoea
Agitation with dilated pupils and goosebumps

78
Q

Presentation of benzodiazepine withdrawal

A

Sweating
Insomnia
Headache
Tremor
Tinnitus
Nausea
Psychological features - anxiety, depression, panic attacks

79
Q

Presentation of cocaine intoxication

A

Euphoric feeling
Tachycardia
Nausea
Hypertension
Dilated pupils
Hallucinations

80
Q

Presentation of cocaine withdrawal

A

Two phases

First phase: “crash” - depression, exhaustion, agitation and irritability

Second phase: Increased cravings, irritability, lack of energy, poor concentration, insomnia, slowed activity

81
Q

What class of drug is mirtazipine?

A

Noradrenergic and specific serotoninergic antidepressant (NaSSA)

It improves sleep and stimulates appetite

82
Q

What is an extracampine hallucination?

A

Hallucination that exceeds the limits of a normal senosry field i.e. hearing a voice projected form Mars

83
Q

What is a pareidolic illusion?

A

When meaningful images are perceived from a vague stimulus (e.g. seeing a face in a fire)

84
Q

What psychotherapies can be offered in anorexia nervosa in adults?

A
  • Eating disorder-focused CBT
  • Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA)
  • Specialist Supportive Clinical Management (SSCM) - more practical than MANTRA

*If the above don’t work, then consider focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT)

85
Q

What pharmacological treatment can be given in Alzheimer’s?

A

First line: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, glantamine)

Second line: NMDA antagonist (memantine)

86
Q

What is used to assess the severity of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol scale (CIWA-Ar)

87
Q

What is the triad of Wernicke’s encepahlopathy?

A

Opthalmoplegia
Ataxia
Confusion

88
Q

What is the triad in Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Amnesia (especially anterograde)
Confabulation
Psychosis

*This is irreversible

89
Q

What are the following sexual preferences (paraphilias)?

Fetishism
Sadism
Masochism
Bondage

A

Fetishism - arousal on an inanimate object
Sadism - gratification by inflicting pain on a partner
Masochism - gratification by being humiliated or being in pain
Bondage - practice that involves tying/restraining a partner

90
Q

What is the triad of clinical features in PTSD?

A

Re-experiencing
Avoidance
Autonomic hyperarousal

91
Q

What is an overvalued idea?

A

A reasonable idea that is pursued beyond the bounds of reason - i.e. thinking about redoing a garden is reasonable, but quitting a job to do this is unreasonable

92
Q

What is flumazenil?

A

GABA antagonist that is used to reverse the efects of benzodiazepine overdose.

93
Q

What are pseudo-hallucinations in grief reactions?

A

These difer from true hallucinations as the patient has insight that the hallucinations are not real

94
Q

What is an acute and transient psychotic disorder?

A

Abrupt onset of delusions, hallucinations and incoherent speech that is precipitated by an acute stressful event (approximately 1-2 weeks prior)

The time interval between the first appearance of any psychotic symptoms and the presentation of the fully developed disorder should be <2weeks, with no evidence of drug use or organic disease

Full recovery is often within days or weeks, but cna take up to 3 months

95
Q

Match the psychotherapy to the correct explanation:

  1. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
  2. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR)
  3. Congnitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)
  4. Dialectal Behaviour Therapy (DBT)
  5. Mentalisation-based Therapy

A - It will teach you how your thoughts, feelings, and behaviours influence each other and that negative thoughts and feelings can trap you in a vicious cycle

B - It involves making side-to-side eye movements by following the movement of the therapist’s finger while recalling traumatic events

C - It involves exploring the relationship between the therapist and client and allows you to understand how the past influences current behaviour

D - It teaches you how to accept who you are and how to deal with difficult emotions by recognising them and challenging them

E - It teaches you how to think about thinking and examine your own thoughts and beliefs and assess whether they are useful or realistic

A

1C
2B
3A
4D
5E

96
Q

Side effects of SSRIs

A

Common:
* Drowsiness
* Nausea
* Dry mouth
* Insomnia
* Constipation/Diarrhoea
* Headache
* Blurred vision
* Sexual dysfunction - reduced libido, anorgasmia, erectile dysfunction

Rare:
* Alopecia
* Movement disorders
* Hyponatraemia
* Serotonin syndrome

97
Q

Presentation of benzodiazepine overdose

A

Drowsiness
Ataxia
Dysarthria
Nystagmus
Respiratory depression

*Treat with flumazenil

98
Q

What should you consider when withdrawing benzodiazepines?

A

Switch patients from short-acting benzodiazepines (i.e. tenazepam) to a long-acting one (e.g. diazepam) with the dose gradually reduced over a number of weeks

99
Q

What do you do when fluoxetine does not work after 12 weeks in OCD?

A

Trial an alternative SSRI or clomipramine (TCA)

100
Q

What IQ tests are there in children?

A

Aged 2-7: Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI)

Aged 6-16: Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC)

101
Q

What are the categories of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC)?

A

Mild: 50-70
Moderate: 35-49
Severe: 20-34
Profound: <20

102
Q

Which blood test would you see in anorexia nervosa?

  1. High cortisol, high growth hormone, low cholesterol, low amylase
  2. High cortisol, high growth hormone, high cholesterol, low amylase
  3. High cortisol, low growth hormone, low cholesterol, high amylase
  4. Low cortisol, low growth hormone, high cholesterol, high amylase
  5. High cortisol, high growth hormone, high cholesterol, high amylase
A

5
High cortisol - stress hormone to stimulate gluconeogenesis
High growth hormone - stimulates gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and protein synthesis
High cholesterol - not understood but thought to be due to increased cholesterol ester transfer protein activity
High amylase - elevated after repeated bouts of purging

103
Q

How do you classify insomnia?

A

Primary - no identifiable comorbidity
vs.
Secondary - resulting from another condition

OR

Short-term (<4 weeks)
vs.
Long-term (>4weeks)

104
Q

How do you manage short-term insomnia?

A

Sleep hygiene advice - relaxing before bed, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding daytime napping, avoiding caffeine, nicotine and alcohol

Hypnotics (if severe and only for 2 weeks with a review) - consider short-acting benzodiazepines (e.g. tenazepam) or non-benzodiazepine ‘Z-drugs’ (e.g. zopiclone)
*Diazepam can be used if there is insomnia associated with daytime anxiety

105
Q

What is the treatment for long-term insomnia?

A

Sleep hygiene review
Hypnotic drug (not recommended) can be used up to 4 weeks
Cognitive or behavioural interventions (e.g. CBT, relaxation training, sleep restriction therapy and stimulus control therapy)
If >55yo can consider modified-release melatonin for up to 13 weeks

If all fails, refer to sleep clinic

106
Q

What are screening tools for social phobia?

A

Social phobia inventory (SPIN)
Liebowitz social anxiety scale

107
Q

What is the most appropriate SSRI to prescribe in a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease?

A

Sertraline

108
Q

Management of paracetamol overdose

A

If presents within 1 hour of ingestion, consider activated charcoal (to reduce paracetamol absorption)
Measure plasma paracetamol levels at 4 hours after ingestion (if possible) to decide whether IV N-acetylcysteine infusion is necessary or not

*Can consider gastric lavage but this is rarely done

109
Q

Treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Stop the causative agent immediately
Supportive treatment - fluids, cooling blankets, DVT prophylaxis

Medications for:
*Agitation - lorazepam
*Malignant hyperthermia - dantrolene
*Dopamine blockade - bromocriptine

110
Q

What are the 4 subgroups of conduct disorder behaviours?

A

Aggression to people and animals: bullying, fighting, cruelty to animals, sexual assault

Destruction of property: fire-setting, vandalism

Deceitfulness or theft: shoplifting, breaking and entering

Serious violation of rules: truancy, staying out late

*For a diagnosis of conduct disorder, at least 3/4 subgroups need to be present for at least 12 months

111
Q

What are risk factors for conduct disorder?

A

Urban upbringing
Mental health conditions
Low socioeconomic status
Harsh and inconsistent parenting
Parental substance abuse

112
Q

What medications are used in alcohol withdrawal to prevent relapse?

A

1st line (anti-craving): acamprosate or naltrexone

2nd line: disulfiram (acetyl dehydrogenase inhibitor which causes patients to feel sick immediately after drinking)

113
Q

What can you give in assisted withdrawal of opioids?

A

Methadone (oral liquid): μ-opioid receptor agonist with a long half-life

Buprenorphine (sublingual): μ-opioid partial agonist

—————————

Lofexidine and clonidine are alpha2 agonists and can be considered if the above are unacceptable or if the dependency is mild

114
Q

What are the side effects of lithium?

A

LITHIUM

Leucocytosis
Insipidus (nephrogenic)
Tremor
Hypothyroidism
Increase Urine
Mothers (teratogenic)

Others: GI upset, weight gain, T-wave inversion, eyebrow hair loss

115
Q

How do you assess for learning disabilities?

A

Intellectual impairment using WAIS III (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale)

Adaptive/social functioning using ABAS II (Adaptive Behaviour Assessment System)

Screen for presence of symptoms in childhood history

116
Q

What are antenatal causes of learning disability?

A
  • Intrauterine infections - CMV, rubella, syphilis
  • Intoxication (maternal) - alcohol, cocaine, lead, smoking
  • Physical damage - injury, radiation, hypoxia
  • Endocrine - Hypothyroidism, Hypoparathyroidism, diabetes
117
Q

What are perinatal causes of learning disability?

A
  • Late pregnancy maternal conditions - placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, bleeding
  • Birth and newborn complications - birth trauma, hypoxia, hypoglycaemia, intraventricular haemorrhage, kernicterus, neonatal infections
118
Q

What are postnatal causes of learning disability?

A
  • Injury - accidental or non-accidental
  • Infections - meningoencephalitis
  • Intoxication - lead, drugs
  • Early physical disorders - brain tumours, vascular events
  • Malnutrition - protein-energy insufficiency, iodine deficiency
119
Q

What are genetic causes of learning disability?

A
  • Dominant genes - neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, myotonic dystrophy
  • Recessive genes - phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, urea cycle disorders
  • Chromosomal abnormalities - Down’s, Klinefelter’s, Turner’s
  • X-linked disorders - Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Fragile X syndrome
  • Genomic imprinting - Prader-Willi, Angelman’s
120
Q

How can you describe thought disorders in a MSE?

A

Thought form:
* Speed of thoughts (racing, slow)
* Coherence of thoughts (tangential, flight of ideas, thought block)

Thought content:
* Delusions
* OCD thoughts
* Suicidal thoughts
* Violent thoughts
* Overvalued ideas

Thought possession:
* Thought insertion
* Thought withdrawal
* Thought broadcasting

121
Q

What medication should be avoided in cocaine-induced myocardial infarction?

A

Beta blockers as they may cause further coronary vasospasm due to unopposed alpha blockade

122
Q

What is Couvade syndrome?

A

Sympathetic pregnancy, is a condition in which a pregnant woman’s partner begins to experience symptoms that mimic pregnancy. The symptoms can include nausea, weight gain, disturbed sleep patterns and even, in some cases, labour pains and postpartum depression.

123
Q

What is the pupillary sign in tertiary syphilis?

A

Argyll Robertson pupils - acommodations but do not react

124
Q

What is the difference between a somatic delusion and a referential delusion?

A

Somatic delusion = fixed belief that is related to the ptient’s health or bodily function

Referential delusion = beliefs that ordinary events have hidden meanings relating to the person (e.g. secret mesages through the TV)

125
Q

What is progessive supranuclear palsy?

A

Parkinson’s plus syndrome that presents similarly to Parkinson’s disease but is also classically associated with an upgaze palsy

126
Q

What are Parkinson plus disorders?

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy
Corticobasal degeneration
Multiple system atrophy
Dementia with lewy bodies

127
Q

What is the name of the questionnaire used to assess the severity of OCD?

A

Yale-Brown

128
Q

What should you trial if lithium is not tolerated in long-term management of bipolar disorder?

A

Sodium valproate.

Then consider olanzapine or quetiapine

129
Q

What is the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EDPS)?

A

Ten-item questionnaire that is self-administered. Women are asked to describe their feelings over the last 7 days, typically a score of 12 or above indicates that the patient is likely to be suffering from PND.

*Patient must be at least 2 weeks postpartum

130
Q

What is the difference between Persistent Grief Disorder (PGD) and Persistent Complex Bereavement Disorder (PCBD)?

A

PGD = when symptoms persist over 6 months which dinstinguishes it from normal grief reaction. Patients also often exhibit preoccupation with the deceased and feelings of guilt or self-blame.

PCBD = when symptoms present for over 12 months and patients often express a desire to die “to be with their loved ones”

131
Q

What are complications of epilepsy?

A

Bio:
* Status epilepticus may result in long term damage
* May injure self durin seizure
* Side effects of anti-epileptic medication

Psycho:
* Impact on learning and education
* Impact on mental wellbeing

Social:
* DVLA
* Triggers e.g. flashing lights may prevent certain activities
* No swimming alone

132
Q

Different types of epilepsy

A

Generalised:
* Absence
* Myoclinic
* Tonic
* Tonic-clonic

Focal:
* Frontal
* Temporal
* Occipital
* Parietal

133
Q

What are the 5 As of Alzheimer’s?

A

Aphasia
Agnosia
Amnesia
Ataxia
Anomia

134
Q

What should you do when switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI?

A

Withdraw completely, leave a wash-out period of 4-7 days, start low-dose alternative SSRI

135
Q

21 y/o woman admitted to psych ward for an acute episode. She has been prescribed Amisulpride for the past 3 weeks and is now worries she is pregnant because she has missed her period, however her pregnancy test is negative. Which blood test should be requested in addition to routine bloods?
a. Luteinising hormone
b. Progesterone
c. Prolactin
d. Thyroid stimulating hormone
e. Triglycerides

A

Prolactin

Amisulpride is an antipsychotic medication that can increase levels of prolactin, a hormone responsible for milk production in breastfeeding women. Elevated levels of prolactin can lead to changes in menstrual cycles and cause amenorrhea (absence of menstruation).

136
Q

What is the temporal lobe involved in and what condition is related to temporal lobe dementia?

A

The temporal lobe, specifically the medial temporal lobe structures, including the hippocampus, is crucial for memory formation and retrieval. It plays a significant role in the consolidation of new memories and the retrieval of past memories.

Alzheimers presents with hippocampus atrophy which is related to episodic memory

137
Q

28 y/o man is given regular medication for BPAD and has also been taking Naproxen for a sports injury. He presents to A&E with ataxia, confusion, and tremor. Which medication has most likely caused his symptoms?
a. Carbamazepine
b. Lithium
c. Olanzapine
d. Sertraline
e. Sodium valproate

A

Lithium - this is a case of lithium toxicity

Coarse tremor
Hyperreflexia
Nystagmus
CNS (seizures, ataxia)
GI (N&V)

138
Q

20 y/o man with schizophrenia tells his support worker that the TV news presenter talks about him. What psychotic phenomenon is he describing?

A

Delusion of reference

139
Q

35 y/o man presents to A&E agitated and requesting medication. He has mild tremor, cool and clammy skin, and goosebumps (piloerection). Ambulance staff found him in the street with an empty bottle of cider. Temperature 36.8, BP 140/100, HR 100. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Alcohol intoxication
b. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
c. Opiate intoxication
d. Opiate withdrawal syndrome
e. Tricyclic antidepressant intoxication

A

Opiate withdrawal syndrome

He is requesting medication which is in-keeping with opiate seeking behaviour.

The alcohol is a red herring

140
Q

58 y/o man attends addiction services for initial alcohol dependence assessment. He regularly attends A&E following overdose attempts. He requests detoxification. He lives alone with few social contacts and has poorly controlled asthma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
a. CBT
b. Community detoxification
c. Disulfiram
d. Inpatient detoxification
e. Motivational interviewing

A

Motivational interviewing

141
Q

John is a 78 year old male who was admitted 2 days ago with a productive cough and consolidation on his chest x-ray. On admission he was confused, and his next of kin report he is off his baseline. Over the next few days his confusion appears to fluctuate and he has at times become anxious reportedly seeing snakes on the ward. Nurses call you as John has become increasingly agitated and has removed his IV required for his antibiotics. He is shouting and wandering trying to get off the ward. The nurse informs you they have tried verbal de-escalation techniques.

You review John’s notes and find he is allergic to nitrofurantoin. His regular medication includes aspirin, ramipril, levo-dopa and metformin. He is being treated with IV co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin. What is the most appropriate management?

500 mcg Haloperidol PO
0.5 mg Lorazepam PO
Ask nurses to re-insert cannula with use of mittens
500mcg Haloperidol IM
0.5 mg Lorazepam IM

A

0.5 mg Lorazepam PO

*He cannot have haloperidol due to his previous diagnosis of PD (he is on levodepa). You should also always try oral medication before IM.

142
Q

What is the chance of puerperal psychocis recurrence?

A

1 in 2 (according to NHS website)

143
Q

What is the presentation of atypical anorexia nervosa?

A

Same presentation as normal anorexia nervosa but with normal weight and BMI and no amenorrhoea

144
Q

How long after starting a SSRI should a patient be reviewed?

A

If <25 yrs: 1 week (due to increased risk of suicidal ideation in younger patients)

If >25yrs: 2 weeks

145
Q

What does the mental capacity act involve?

A

Understanding
Retaining
Weighing
Communicating

146
Q

What is the treatment of Lewy Body Dementia?

And what is contraindicated?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (Donepezil or Rivastigmine)

Do not offer antipsychotics as this can worsen symptoms and increase the risk of cerebrovascular disease!!

147
Q

What is used to treat hypersalivation in clozapine patients?

A

Hyoscine