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PSY141 > PSY141 Exam Questions > Flashcards

PSY141 Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

__________ was the first to define psychology as the science of behaviour:
a. B. F. Skinner
b. John B. Watson
c. William James
d. Edward Titchener

A

b. John B. Watson

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2
Q

As a modern science, modern psychology primarily strives for:
a. universal laws, that is to explain all people in the same way
b. culturally specific laws, that is to explain people in terms of the culture and society in which they are born
c. general laws, that is it cannot explain an individual, only a population
d. moral laws, that is it attempts to explain what we should do

A

a. universal laws, that is to explain all people in the same way

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3
Q

The Theory of Multiple Intelligences was proposed by:
a. Howard Gardner
b. Robert Sternberg
c. Charles Spearman
d. Louis Thurstone

A

a. Howard Gardner

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4
Q

Dr Tehan conducts basic research on the influences of ageing on memory. It is most likely that Dr Tehan is a _____________ psychologist.
a. health
b. clinical
c. behavioural
d. cognitive

A

d. cognitive

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5
Q

The idea that dysfunctional thinking underlie psychological disorders is the:
a. behavioural theory of psychological disorders
b. cognitive theory of psychological disorders
c. belief systems theory of psychological disorders
d. humanistic theory of psychological disorders

A

b. cognitive theory of psychological disorders

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6
Q

In general, people store two kinds of information in long-term memory:
a. everyday and semantic
b. everyday and episodic
c. episodic and semantic
d. procedural and declarative

A

d. procedural and declarative

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7
Q

Within a neuron, the direction of the nerve impulse moves from:
a. axon to cell body to dendrites
b. dendrites to axon to nucleus
c. dendrite to cell body to axon
d. axon hillock to dendrites to terminal buttons

A

c. dendrite to cell body to axon

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8
Q

Neurocognitivists claim that the hindbrain and midbrain play an important role in
a. conscious awareness
b. unconscious processes
c. subjective awareness of mental processes
d. conscious arousal

A

d. conscious arousal

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9
Q

According to cognitive neuroscience, the difference between perception and sensation is:
a. perception refers to the physical stimulation of sensory organs, while sensation refers to the brain organising information
b. perception refers to the brain organising information, while sensation refers to the physical stimulation of sensory organs
c. perception is our subjective interpretation, while sensation is what is actually there
d. perception is an image, while sensation is a feeling

A

b. perception refers to the brain organising information, while sensation refers to the physical stimulation of sensory organs

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10
Q

When you listen to music, the sound waves are converted into neural impulses for your brain to process. This is called:
a. transformation
b. sensory transmission
c. perceptual coding
d. transduction

A

d. transduction

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11
Q

Operant Conditioning was first proposed by:
a. J. B. Watson
b. B. F. Skinner
c. Ivan Pavlov
d. Edward Thorndike

A

b. B. F. Skinner

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12
Q

According to neurocognitivist approach the most important areas for language are:
a. Wernicke’s and Broca’s area
b. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and ventromedial prefrontal cortex
c. the medulla oblongata and the hypothalamus
d. the homunculus and the pineal gland

A

a. Wernicke’s and Broca’s area

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13
Q

Erikson was one of the first theorists to take the notion of development beyond adolescence seriously. He describes the developmental tasks confronting young adults as:
a. identity versus identity confusion
b. intimacy versus isolation
c. industry versus inferiority
d. generativity versus stagnation

A

b. intimacy versus isolation

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14
Q

According to the ______ model, people with an underlying vulnerability may develop a psychological disorder under stressful circumstances.
a. cause-effect
b. diathesis-stress
c. nature-nurture
d. drive-homeostasis

A

b. diathesis-stress

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15
Q

Everything has been going wrong for John. No matter what he tries, it does not seem to make any difference. Therefore, he has given up trying. John’s behaviour is an example of:
a. avoidance learning
b. paradoxical conditioning
c. stimulus generalisation
d. learned helplessness

A

d. learned helplessness

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16
Q

According to Darley and Latané, one reason why people fail to help a stranger in distress is:
a. ethical hedonism
b. bystander intervention
c. dispersal of accountability
d. diffusion of responsibility

A

d. diffusion of responsibility

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17
Q

The Milgram Experiments were designed to investigate:
a. obedience
b. conformity
c. group processes
d. social identity

A

a. obedience

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18
Q

The theory that states attitudes are derived from behaviour, rather than vice versa, is called:
a. behavioural attitude theory
b. self-perception theory
c. consequence theory
d. reward theory

A

b. self-perception theory

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19
Q

The Stanford Prison experiment:
a. was conducted by Zimbardo and was used as evidence that we conform to social roles
b. was conducted by Milgram and was used to as evidence that we obey authority
c. was conduced by Asch and was used to as evidence that we conform to peers
d. was conducted by Darley and Latané and was used as evidence of a bystander effect

A

a. was conducted by Zimbardo and was used as evidence that we conform to social roles

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20
Q

Tests that attempt to quantify psychological attributes, such as personality traits or intellectual abilities, are referred to as:
a. psychometric instruments
b. intelligence tests
c. phrenological measures
d. personality inventories

A

a. psychometric instruments

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21
Q

Liam lives in a residential college where they have pizza every Tuesday night. To make it seem like a special occasion, the tables are covered with dark red tablecloths. Unfortunately, Liam was sick one Tuesday night after eating pizza. Now, whenever he sees a dark red tablecloth, he feels nauseous. What is the conditioned stimulus?
a. feels nauseous
b. pizza
c. Tuesday night
d. dark red tablecloth

A

d. dark red tablecloth

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22
Q

Based on social learning theory, which of the following would be the most effective motto to present to a class for parents who want their children to adopt their standards of behaviour?
a. silence is golden
b. follow my lead
c. do as I say, not as I do
d. because I said so

A

b. follow my lead

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23
Q

According to Kohlberg, at the third level of moral development, postconventional morality, morality is:
a. abstract, self-defined principles
b. defined by the desire to avoid punishment or obtain reward
c. defined by what they have learned from others, especially authority figures
d. based on the need to maintain law and order.

A

a. abstract, self-defined principles

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24
Q

The first few hours after hatching are a critical period for goslings because:
a. they are most vulnerable to predators at that time
b. they must quickly initiate the swimming reflex in order to survive
c. they are biologically prepared to follow whatever moving object they see
d. all of the options listed

A

c. they are biologically prepared to follow whatever moving object they see

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25
Q

Which of the following best exemplifies chunking?
a. Jane remembers the name of her best friend’s mother - an unusual family name - by creating a song in which she sings the syllables of the name to a familiar tune from her childhood
b. Anna recalls important facts for an upcoming history exam by ‘hanging’ each piece of information on a ‘peg’ - in this case, a number - while visualising the fact creatively
c. Alex is able to immediately remember four new phone numbers by recognising that each begins with a familiar exchange, and the final digits of each number represent a familiar date in history
d. Brooke remembers her lines for a school play by memorising one speech at a time, then attaching the speech to a visual image that somehow captures the essence of what she is saying

A

c. Alex is able to immediately remember four new phone numbers by recognising that each begins with a familiar exchange, and the final digits of each number represent a familiar date in history

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26
Q

Psychology is best defined as:

a. The study of mental illness and its treatments
b. The scientific study of mental processes, behavior, and the interaction between them
c. The study of how society influences human behavior
d. The practice of therapeutic interventions to improve well-being

A

b. The scientific study of mental processes, behavior, and the interaction between them

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27
Q

Which of the following areas does psychology explore?

a. Behavior, mental processes, and biological influences
b. Only behavior and observable actions
c. Mental health exclusively
d. Social constructs independent of biology

A

a. Behavior, mental processes, and biological influences

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28
Q

The emergence of psychology as a scientific discipline is most closely associated with:

a. The publication of Freud’s The Interpretation of Dreams
b. Wilhelm Wundt establishing the first psychology laboratory in 1879
c. Charles Darwin’s work on evolution
d. The rise of behaviorism in the 20th century

A

b. Wilhelm Wundt establishing the first psychology laboratory in 1879

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29
Q

What marked the transition from philosophical thought to scientific psychology?

a. Experimental methods to study mental processes
b. The emphasis on introspection without experiments
c. Focus on therapeutic techniques
d. Theories of unconscious drives

A

a. Experimental methods to study mental processes

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30
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major theoretical perspective in psychology?

a. Biological perspective
b. Cognitive perspective
c. Political perspective
d. Sociocultural perspective

A

c. Political perspective

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31
Q

The cognitive perspective focuses on:

a. The influence of brain structures on behavior
b. How people perceive, process, and remember information
c. The role of unconscious conflicts
d. The impact of external stimuli on observable behavior

A

b. How people perceive, process, and remember information

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32
Q

Structuralism, as a psychological approach, focuses on:

a. Understanding the purpose of mental processes in adaptation
b. Breaking down mental processes into basic components through introspection
c. Observable behaviors and their reinforcement
d. Unconscious drives and conflicts

A

b. Breaking down mental processes into basic components through introspection

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33
Q

Functionalism differs from structuralism by emphasizing:

a. The elements of consciousness
b. The practical role of mental processes in adapting to the environment
c. The introspective study of sensations
d. The experimental study of emotions

A

b. The practical role of mental processes in adapting to the environment

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34
Q

The psychodynamic perspective emphasizes:

a. Observable behaviors and reinforcement
b. The role of unconscious motives, conflicts, and past experiences in behavior
c. The influence of social and cultural factors on development
d. Biological mechanisms driving cognition

A

b. The role of unconscious motives, conflicts, and past experiences in behavior

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35
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with the psychodynamic perspective?

a. Defense mechanisms
b. The unconscious mind
c. Operant conditioning
d. Early childhood experiences

A

c. Operant conditioning

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36
Q

The free-will perspective in psychology suggests that:

a. Behavior is completely determined by environmental and genetic factors
b. Individuals actively choose and control their actions
c. Behavior is influenced by unconscious processes
d. All behavior is predetermined by societal norms

A

b. Individuals actively choose and control their actions

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37
Q

The determinism perspective argues that:

a. Behavior is a result of conscious decisions
b. Free choice plays a significant role in shaping actions
c. Behavior is shaped by prior causes, such as genetics and environment
d. Individuals act independently of biological or social influences

A

c. Behavior is shaped by prior causes, such as genetics and environment

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38
Q

Which of the following is a subdiscipline of psychology?
a. Clinical psychology
b. Political psychology
c. Economic psychology
d. Agricultural psychology

A

a. Clinical psychology

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39
Q

The subdiscipline of developmental psychology focuses on:

a. Treating psychological disorders
b. Understanding how people grow and change throughout life
c. The influence of society and culture on individuals
d. Diagnosing neurodevelopmental conditions

A

b. Understanding how people grow and change throughout life

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40
Q

Intrinsic motivation is driven by:

a. External rewards such as money or praise
b. Internal satisfaction or interest in the activity itself
c. The need to avoid punishment
d. Social approval from peers

A

b. Internal satisfaction or interest in the activity itself

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41
Q

Extrinsic motivation is characterized by:

a. Pursuing activities solely for personal growth
b. Engaging in behaviors to obtain external rewards or avoid punishments
c. Participating in activities out of curiosity and enjoyment
d. A lack of interest in achieving goals

A

b. Engaging in behaviors to obtain external rewards or avoid punishments

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42
Q

Performance-based motivation focuses on:

a. Developing competence and mastering new skills
b. Achieving goals to demonstrate ability and gain recognition
c. Pursuing tasks for enjoyment and personal growth
d. Minimizing the risk of failure

A

b. Achieving goals to demonstrate ability and gain recognition

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43
Q

Mastery-based motivation is characterized by:

a. Striving to outperform others
b. A desire to improve skills and gain knowledge, regardless of outcomes
c. Avoiding challenges to maintain self-esteem
d. Seeking external validation for achievements

A

b. A desire to improve skills and gain knowledge, regardless of outcomes

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44
Q

According to Maslow, the first level of the hierarchy consists of:

a. Self-actualization needs
b. Esteem needs
c. Physiological needs
d. Social needs

A

c. Physiological needs

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45
Q

In Maslow’s hierarchy, self-actualization refers to:

a. The desire for belonging and connection
b. The pursuit of achieving one’s full potential and creativity
c. The need for security and stability
d. Building relationships and friendships

A

b. The pursuit of achieving one’s full potential and creativity

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46
Q

Emotions are best described as:

a. Random physiological reactions to external stimuli
b. Complex patterns of physiological arousal, cognitive interpretation, and behavioral expression
c. Solely psychological phenomena unrelated to behavior
d. Cultural constructs with no biological basis

A

b. Complex patterns of physiological arousal, cognitive interpretation, and behavioral expression

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47
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of emotion?

a. Cognitive appraisal
b. Behavioral expression
c. Physiological arousal
d. Long-term mood states

A

d. Long-term mood states

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48
Q

The James-Lange theory of emotion suggests that:

a. Emotion arises from physiological arousal and behavioral reactions
b. Cognitive interpretation occurs before emotional experience
c. Emotions and physiological reactions occur simultaneously
d. Emotions are based solely on cultural learning

A

a. Emotion arises from physiological arousal and behavioral reactions

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49
Q

The Schachter-Singer two-factor theory of emotion emphasizes:

a. The role of unconscious conflicts in emotional development
b. Cognitive labeling of physiological arousal to identify emotions
c. Direct connections between stimuli and emotional responses
d. The simultaneous experience of emotion and arousal

A

b. Cognitive labeling of physiological arousal to identify emotions

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50
Q

Which of the following best describes how a neuron functions?

a. Neurons communicate through the exchange of chemicals in the synapse and electrical signals along the axon.
b. Neurons work independently and do not require synaptic communication.
c. Neurons generate responses through direct muscle stimulation.
d. Neurons transmit signals only in one direction without any feedback.

A

a. Neurons communicate through the exchange of chemicals in the synapse and electrical signals along the axon.

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51
Q

The part of the neuron responsible for receiving signals is:

a. Axon
b. Dendrites
c. Myelin sheath
d. Synaptic cleft

A

b. Dendrites

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52
Q

The central nervous system consists of:
a. The brain and spinal cord
b. The brain and peripheral nerves
c. The spinal cord and sensory organs
d. All nerves and the endocrine system

A

a. The brain and spinal cord

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53
Q

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for voluntary muscle movement?

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Parasympathetic nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Autonomic nervous system

A

c. Somatic nervous system

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54
Q

The firing of a neuron is important because:

a. It is unrelated to cognitive processes but supports reflexes.
b. It represents the communication of information in the brain, essential for cognition and behavior.
c. It occurs only when individuals are learning new skills.
d. It is primarily responsible for regulating blood flow.

A

b. It represents the communication of information in the brain, essential for cognition and behavior.

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55
Q

Neural firing patterns in the prefrontal cortex are associated with:

a. Reflexive actions
b. Higher-order thinking, decision-making, and planning
c. Basic survival functions like breathing
d. Emotional responses exclusively

A

b. Higher-order thinking, decision-making, and planning

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56
Q

Damage to the frontal lobe can result in:

a. Impaired memory storage
b. Difficulty with emotional regulation, decision-making, and planning
c. Inability to process visual stimuli
d. Loss of balance and coordination

A

b. Difficulty with emotional regulation, decision-making, and planning

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57
Q

Which of the following is most likely a result of damage to the hippocampus?

a. Problems with long-term memory formation
b. Loss of fine motor skills
c. Impaired ability to regulate breathing
d. Difficulty interpreting sounds

A

a. Problems with long-term memory formation

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58
Q

Neurotransmitters are responsible for:

a. Generating electrical impulses in the neuron’s dendrites
b. Transmitting chemical messages between neurons at the synapse
c. Coordinating muscle movement directly
d. Transporting oxygen to the brain

A

b. Transmitting chemical messages between neurons at the synapse

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59
Q

Which neurotransmitter is associated with mood regulation and depression?

a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Glutamate

A

b. Serotonin

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60
Q

Sensory receptors play a key role in:

a. Translating external stimuli into neural signals for the brain to process
b. Interpreting complex stimuli without brain involvement
c. Relaying emotional responses to the body
d. Generating motor responses in muscles

A

a. Translating external stimuli into neural signals for the brain to process

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61
Q

Which sensory system is responsible for detecting changes in pressure and vibration?

a. Visual system
b. Auditory system
c. Somatosensory system
d. Vestibular system

A

c. Somatosensory system

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62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a criterion used to distinguish normal from abnormal behavior?

a. Statistical rarity
b. Violation of social norms
c. Personal distress or impairment
d. The frequency of positive emotions

A

d. The frequency of positive emotions

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63
Q

Abnormal behavior is best defined as:

a. Behavior that differs from the majority in society.
b. A pattern of thoughts, feelings, or actions that cause significant distress, deviate from cultural norms, and impair functioning.
c. Any behavior that is unusual but harmless.
d. Behavior that conforms to all societal expectations.

A

b. A pattern of thoughts, feelings, or actions that cause significant distress, deviate from cultural norms, and impair functioning.

64
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major class of DSM-5 disorders?

a. Anxiety disorders
b. Dissociative disorders
c. Infectious diseases
d. Mood disorders

A

c. Infectious diseases

65
Q

Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders are primarily characterized by:

a. Excessive worry and fear
b. Disruptions in thought processes, perception, and emotional regulation
c. Persistent sadness and loss of interest
d. Physical symptoms with no medical explanation

A

b. Disruptions in thought processes, perception, and emotional regulation

66
Q

Which of the following is a key feature of anxiety disorders?

a. Loss of contact with reality
b. Excessive fear and avoidance of perceived threats
c. Fluctuations between manic and depressive states
d. Physical complaints without medical basis

A

b. Excessive fear and avoidance of perceived threats

67
Q

Major depressive disorder is characterized by:

a. Persistent low mood, lack of energy, and feelings of worthlessness
b. Alternating periods of mania and depression
c. Flashbacks and avoidance of trauma-related stimuli
d. Delusions and hallucinations

A

a. Persistent low mood, lack of energy, and feelings of worthlessness

68
Q

The biopsychosocial model of psychopathology emphasizes:

a. Biological factors as the sole cause of mental disorders.
b. The interplay of biological, psychological, and social factors in the development of mental disorders.
c. Social environments as the exclusive contributor to psychopathology.
d. The role of unconscious conflicts without external influences.

A

b. The interplay of biological, psychological, and social factors in the development of mental disorders.

69
Q

The cognitive perspective on psychopathology focuses on:

a. Chemical imbalances in the brain.
b. Maladaptive thought patterns and beliefs.
c. The influence of childhood experiences.
d. Genetic predispositions to mental illness.

A

b. Maladaptive thought patterns and beliefs.

70
Q

Which of the following is a hallmark of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?

a. Addressing unconscious conflicts through free association
b. Challenging and restructuring maladaptive thought patterns
c. Administering medications to regulate neurotransmitters
d. Strengthening the therapeutic alliance without specific techniques

A

b. Challenging and restructuring maladaptive thought patterns

71
Q

A key feature of psychodynamic therapy is:

a. Focus on resolving unconscious conflicts and understanding early childhood experiences
b. Encouragement to live authentically in the present moment
c. Immediate symptom reduction through exposure therapy
d. Prescribing medications to balance brain chemistry

A

a. Focus on resolving unconscious conflicts and understanding early childhood experiences

72
Q

Which treatment method emphasizes unconditional positive regard and empathy?

a. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
b. Client-centered therapy
c. Psychodynamic therapy
d. Biological therapy

A

b. Client-centered therapy

73
Q

Relapse prevention strategies often include:

a. Terminating therapy as soon as symptoms subside
b. Teaching clients to identify triggers and develop coping skills
c. Avoiding follow-up sessions to promote independence
d. Encouraging clients to ignore minor setbacks

A

b. Teaching clients to identify triggers and develop coping skills

74
Q

Medication adherence is crucial in reducing relapse because:

a. It eliminates the need for psychotherapy
b. It ensures that symptoms are continuously managed biologically
c. It cures the disorder entirely in all cases
d. It guarantees immediate recovery without side effects

A

b. It ensures that symptoms are continuously managed biologically

75
Q

Mindfulness-based relapse prevention is effective because it:

a. Encourages individuals to suppress emotions
b. Promotes awareness of present-moment experiences to prevent automatic reactions to triggers
c. Focuses solely on physical exercises to distract from symptoms
d. Replaces traditional psychotherapy entirely

A

b. Promotes awareness of present-moment experiences to prevent automatic reactions to triggers

76
Q

Which of the following best describes the interaction between nature and nurture in human development?

a. Nature determines all aspects of development, while nurture plays no role.
b. Nurture has a stronger influence on development than nature.
c. Nature and nurture are interconnected, both playing significant roles in development.
d. Nature has no impact on development; only nurture matters.

A

c. Nature and nurture are interconnected, both playing significant roles in development.

77
Q

The influence of genes on intelligence is often influenced by:

a. Environmental factors, such as family and schooling
b. A strictly biological process with no environmental interaction
c. Only random genetic mutation
d. Cultural factors with no biological component

A

a. Environmental factors, such as family and schooling

78
Q

Which of the following is a key feature of Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development?

a. A focus on unconscious conflict
b. The importance of resolving specific conflicts at each stage of life
c. The emphasis on biological maturation
d. The stages of cognitive development in children

A

b. The importance of resolving specific conflicts at each stage of life

79
Q

Which of the following best describes Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development?

a. Cognitive development occurs primarily through stages that are driven by biological factors.
b. Cognitive development is shaped by interactions with more knowledgeable others and cultural tools.
c. Cognitive development is a solitary, self-directed process.
d. Cognitive development is driven by sensory motor skills and actions.

A

b. Cognitive development is shaped by interactions with more knowledgeable others and cultural tools.

80
Q

One strength of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development is that it:

a. Provides a comprehensive explanation of social and emotional development
b. Emphasizes the role of language in cognitive development
c. Identifies universal stages of cognitive development across all cultures
d. Focuses solely on the development of physical skills

A

c. Identifies universal stages of cognitive development across all cultures

81
Q

A limitation of Piaget’s theory is that:

a. It overemphasizes the role of cultural context in cognitive development
b. It underestimates children’s ability to engage in more complex cognitive tasks at earlier ages
c. It ignores the role of emotional development
d. It claims that cognitive development occurs in a continuous, non-stage-like manner

A

b. It underestimates children’s ability to engage in more complex cognitive tasks at earlier ages

82
Q

Theory of mind refers to:

a. The ability to understand that others have their own thoughts, feelings, and perspectives
b. The understanding of how the brain processes information
c. The awareness of one’s own emotional responses
d. The process of developing a language system

A

a. The ability to understand that others have their own thoughts, feelings, and perspectives

83
Q

Perspective-taking is related to theory of mind because it involves:

a. Understanding that others may see and interpret the world differently
b. Identifying a person’s facial expressions
c. Focusing on one’s own feelings and beliefs
d. Memorizing and recalling other people’s thoughts

A

a. Understanding that others may see and interpret the world differently

84
Q

Sensitive periods in development are:

a. Timeframes during which an individual is highly receptive to certain types of environmental stimuli
b. Permanent stages that dictate the overall development of a child
c. Less important than critical periods in shaping development
d. Unaffected by environmental factors or stimuli

A

a. Timeframes during which an individual is highly receptive to certain types of environmental stimuli

85
Q

A critical period in development refers to:

a. A time when an individual is more likely to acquire certain skills or knowledge if exposed to appropriate stimuli
b. A brief moment when a child can develop empathy
c. A time of minimal environmental influence on development
d. A time when the brain is no longer capable of learning new things

A

a. A time when an individual is more likely to acquire certain skills or knowledge if exposed to appropriate stimuli

86
Q

Which of the following describes the “secure attachment” style in infants?

a. Infants show little distress when their caregiver leaves but avoid contact when the caregiver returns.
b. Infants are distressed when their caregiver leaves and are comforted upon the caregiver’s return.
c. Infants are overly clingy and cannot be comforted.
d. Infants show no preference between their caregiver and a stranger.

A

b. Infants are distressed when their caregiver leaves and are comforted upon the caregiver’s return.

87
Q

The “avoidant attachment” style in infants is characterized by:

a. Clinginess and difficulty being comforted by the caregiver
b. Indifference toward the caregiver and lack of distress when the caregiver leaves
c. Strong attachment to the father but not the mother
d. Over-dependence on external sources for emotional regulation

A

b. Indifference toward the caregiver and lack of distress when the caregiver leaves

88
Q

Learning is best defined as:

a. The process of acquiring knowledge through formal education only
b. A relatively permanent change in behavior or mental processes due to experience
c. The ability to remember information from past experiences
d. A temporary alteration in behavior due to environmental changes

A

b. A relatively permanent change in behavior or mental processes due to experience

89
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically considered a form of learning?

a. Reflexive behaviors like blinking when air is blown into the eye
b. Observing and imitating others’ actions
c. Conditioning of a response due to repeated exposure
d. Developing a skill through practice over time

A

a. Reflexive behaviors like blinking when air is blown into the eye

90
Q

Classical conditioning refers to:

a. A form of learning where behaviors are influenced by their consequences
b. Learning through the association of stimuli
c. The process of imitating others in social settings
d. Learning that occurs through the rewards and punishments given to individuals

A

b. Learning through the association of stimuli

91
Q

In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) naturally produces a:

a. Conditioned response (CR)
b. Conditioned stimulus (CS)
c. Reflexive, automatic response
d. Learned association

A

c. Reflexive, automatic response

92
Q

Stimulus generalization occurs when:

a. A conditioned response (CR) is triggered by a stimulus similar to the original conditioned stimulus (CS)
b. An unconditioned stimulus (UCS) causes a conditioned response (CR)
c. An organism learns to distinguish between different stimuli
d. A conditioned stimulus (CS) loses its power to evoke a response

A

a. A conditioned response (CR) is triggered by a stimulus similar to the original

93
Q

Stimulus discrimination is important because it allows an organism to:

a. Respond in the same way to all similar stimuli
b. Learn to distinguish between stimuli that signal different outcomes
c. Generalise a response to a broader range of stimuli
d. Create new associations between stimuli

A

b. Learn to distinguish between stimuli that signal different outcomes

94
Q

Operant conditioning involves:

a. Learning by associating a neutral stimulus with a reflexive response
b. Learning based on the consequences of a behavior, such as reinforcement or punishment
c. Observational learning through imitation of others
d. Developing a cognitive map through exploration

A

b. Learning based on the consequences of a behavior, such as reinforcement or punishment

95
Q

In operant conditioning, a behavior that is followed by a pleasant outcome is:

a. More likely to be repeated
b. Likely to stop occurring immediately
c. Likely to decrease in frequency
d. Unlikely to be influenced by external factors

A

a. More likely to be repeated

96
Q

Positive reinforcement involves:

a. Removing a stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior
b. Adding a stimulus to decrease the likelihood of a behavior
c. Adding a stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior
d. The punishment of undesirable behavior

A

c. Adding a stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior

97
Q

Negative reinforcement involves:

a. Giving an unpleasant stimulus to discourage a behavior
b. Removing an unpleasant stimulus to encourage a behavior
c. Removing a pleasant stimulus to discourage a behavior
d. Adding a positive stimulus to reduce behavior

A

b. Removing an unpleasant stimulus to encourage a behavior

98
Q

Social learning theory suggests that:

a. Learning is primarily a solitary process that happens through direct experience
b. People learn by observing others and imitating their behaviors
c. Reinforcement and punishment are the only mechanisms by which learning occurs
d. Learning occurs through innate biological processes that do not require social interaction

A

b. People learn by observing others and imitating their behaviors

99
Q

A key component of social learning theory is:

a. The belief that reinforcement is unnecessary for learning to occur
b. The role of cognitive processes in observing and imitating others
c. The reliance on classical conditioning for learning behaviors
d. The necessity of direct rewards for successful learning

A

b. The role of cognitive processes in observing and imitating others

100
Q

A stereotype is best defined as:

a. A set of beliefs and attitudes about a person or group based on their social identity
b. A positive opinion about a group of people based on individual experiences
c. An extreme view of a particular individual that does not consider group membership
d. A shared, collective identity that influences how we perceive others

A

a. A set of beliefs and attitudes about a person or group based on their social identity

101
Q

Stereotypes typically lead to:

a. More accurate perceptions of others
b. A tendency to judge individuals based on their membership in a group
c. An open-minded approach to new experiences
d. A decrease in intergroup conflict

A

b. A tendency to judge individuals based on their membership in a group

102
Q

The relationship between attitudes and behavior suggests that:

a. Attitudes are always directly reflected in behavior
b. Behavior is influenced by the strength and specificity of attitudes
c. People behave in ways contrary to their attitudes
d. Attitudes have no impact on behavior

A

b. Behavior is influenced by the strength and specificity of attitudes

103
Q

In the Theory of Planned Behavior, behavior is best predicted by:

a. General attitudes toward an action
b. Perceived control over the behavior
c. The alignment of attitudes and subjective norms
d. The combination of attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control

A

d. The combination of attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control

104
Q

Prejudice refers to:

a. A positive attitude toward a particular group
b. A belief about the attributes of a group that may or may not be accurate
c. A negative attitude toward members of a group based on their perceived group membership
d. A neutral view of a group based on cultural understanding

A

c. A negative attitude toward members of a group based on their perceived group membership

105
Q

Stereotypes contribute to prejudice by:

a. Providing a neutral basis for understanding others
b. Reinforcing expectations and generalizations about group members
c. Encouraging unbiased judgment of individuals
d. Supporting empathy and understanding between groups

A

b. Reinforcing expectations and generalizations about group members

106
Q

Inter-group conflict is often caused by:

a. Shared goals and objectives
b. Competition over scarce resources and differences in values
c. Increased empathy and understanding
d. Equal power and influence between groups

A

b. Competition over scarce resources and differences in values

107
Q

One significant factor that exacerbates inter-group conflict is:

a. Cooperation between the groups
b. Misunderstandings and stereotyped perceptions of the other group
c. Group members identifying with the other group’s goals
d. The establishment of common goals

A

b. Misunderstandings and stereotyped perceptions of the other group

108
Q

When making attributions, people typically rely on:

a. The context in which the behavior occurs and the person’s personal traits
b. Only the observable behavior of individuals
c. The immediate emotional state of the person involved
d. The biological factors that influence behavior

A

a. The context in which the behavior occurs and the person’s personal traits

109
Q

In the Fundamental Attribution Error, people tend to:

a. Overemphasize situational factors and underemphasize dispositional factors
b. Overemphasize dispositional factors and underemphasize situational factors
c. Accurately assess both situational and dispositional factors equally
d. Assume all behaviors are based on biological factors

A

b. Overemphasize dispositional factors and underemphasize situational factors

110
Q

Social identity theory proposes that:

a. Group memberships are irrelevant to self-concept and behavior
b. Individuals derive part of their self-concept from their membership in social groups
c. The primary determinant of behavior is individual cognitive processing
d. Self-identity is based solely on personal achievements and not group affiliation

A

b. Individuals derive part of their self-concept from their membership in social groups

111
Q

According to social identity theory, in-group favoritism occurs when:

a. People show preference for members of other groups
b. Individuals favor their own group over others
c. There is no bias in group selection
d. Group membership is irrelevant to behavior

A

b. Individuals favor their own group over others

112
Q

Group membership influences decision-making and behavior to the extent that:

a. It has no effect on individual behavior
b. It provides a sense of belonging and can strongly guide actions and attitudes
c. It exclusively determines behavior in all situations
d. It weakens individuals’ decision-making abilities

A

b. It provides a sense of belonging and can strongly guide actions and attitudes

113
Q

Group members tend to exhibit behavior that:

a. Is completely independent of group norms
b. Aligns with the norms and expectations of the group
c. Opposes the group’s collective behavior
d. Is always motivated by personal goals

A

b. Aligns with the norms and expectations of the group

114
Q

We seek out relationships with others primarily because:

a. We need to fulfill our self-esteem needs
b. We seek emotional connection and the benefits of social interaction
c. We are motivated by external rewards such as money
d. Social isolation is beneficial to mental health

A

b. We seek emotional connection and the benefits of social interaction

115
Q

Relationships help fulfill the need for:

a. Personal space and isolation
b. Validation of our social identity and emotional support
c. Monetary support from others
d. Independence and separation from others

A

b. Validation of our social identity and emotional support

116
Q

We are attracted to others based on:

a. Similarity, physical attractiveness, and proximity
b. Differences in personality and beliefs
c. Unpredictability and negative reinforcement
d. Exclusively financial and career success

A

a. Similarity, physical attractiveness, and proximity

117
Q

One key factor influencing attraction is:

a. The level of independence between individuals
b. The degree of social competition
c. The perceived availability of the other person
d. The degree of shared interests and values

A

d. The degree of shared interests and values

118
Q

Asch’s line judgment studies demonstrate that:

a. People rarely conform to the opinions of others
b. Conformity is unaffected by social influence
c. People often conform to a group’s opinion, even when it is obviously incorrect
d. Conformity increases with a greater number of independent thinkers

A

c. People often conform to a group’s opinion, even when it is obviously incorrect

119
Q

Asch’s studies showed that conformity is influenced by:

a. The presence of a strong authority figure
b. The unanimity of the group
c. The privacy of decision-making
d. The intellectual capacity of the individual

A

b. The unanimity of the group

120
Q

The Milgram experiments demonstrate that:

a. People tend to disobey authority when they feel uncomfortable
b. Authority figures have little impact on individual behavior
c. Individuals will often obey authority figures, even to the point of inflicting harm on others
d. Obedience to authority is limited to military contexts

A

c. Individuals will often obey authority figures, even to the point of inflicting harm on others

121
Q

The results of Milgram’s study highlight the power of:

a. Personal moral beliefs over external authority
b. Social norms and peer pressure
c. Authority figures in shaping behavior
d. Economic incentives in decision-making

A

c. Authority figures in shaping behavior

122
Q

Bystander intervention is less likely when:

a. The situation is ambiguous and there are many bystanders
b. There is only one bystander present
c. The person in need is known to the bystanders
d. The situation is perceived as not urgent

A

a. The situation is ambiguous and there are many bystanders

123
Q

The concept of diffusion of responsibility suggests that:

a. Individuals are more likely to help when in a group
b. People feel less responsibility to act when others are present
c. Responsibility increases as the number of bystander
d. People in groups feel more urgency to help others

A

b. People feel less responsibility to act when others are present

124
Q

Both the Milgram and Stanford prison experiments have been criticised for:

a. Their contribution to scientific understanding of obedience and authority
b. Being conducted with the informed consent and well-being of participants in mind
c. Their harmful effects on participants and ethical concerns regarding informed consent
d. Their lack of practical applications in real-world settings

A

c. Their harmful effects on participants and ethical concerns regarding informed consent

125
Q

The ethical concerns surrounding the Stanford prison experiment include:

a. The long-term psychological harm caused to participants
b. The accurate portrayal of real prison environments
c. The involvement of professional counselors in the study
d. The study’s overall scientific validity

A

a. The long-term psychological harm caused to participants

125
Q

Short-term memory is primarily characterised by:

a. Its ability to hold a vast amount of information for a very long period
b. Its capacity to store information for a short duration and limited capacity
c. Its capacity for complex problem-solving
d. Its ability to manipulate information actively

A

b. Its capacity to store information for a short duration and limited capacity

126
Q

Long-term memory is distinguished by:

a. Its temporary nature and limited capacity
b. The active manipulation of information
c. Its vast capacity and long duration for storing information
d. Its exclusive focus on sensory input

A

c. Its vast capacity and long duration for storing information

127
Q

Working memory differs from short-term memory in that it:

a. Is only concerned with passive storage
b. Involves active processing and manipulation of information
c. Is limited to verbal processing only
d. Is unable to transfer information into long-term memory

A

b. Involves active processing and manipulation of information

128
Q

Learning and memory are linked because:

a. Memory is irrelevant to the learning process
b. Memory allows for the storage and retrieval of learned information
c. Learning is unrelated to the recall of past experiences
d. Memory only helps us learn new tasks, not recall old information

A

b. Memory allows for the storage and retrieval of learned information

129
Q

Learning involves:

a. The creation of short-term memories without the need for long-term storage
b. The transfer of information from working memory into long-term memory
c. Simply storing information in sensory memory
d. The inability to use memory for complex tasks

A

b. The transfer of information from working memory into long-term memory

130
Q

The hard drive of a computer is not an appropriate model for memory because:

a. It can store unlimited information indefinitely without error
b. Human memory involves complex processes of encoding, storage, and retrieval, unlike a computer
c. Computers cannot retrieve information as quickly as the human brain
d. Memory in humans functions like a storage device with perfect accuracy

A

b. Human memory involves complex processes of encoding, storage, and retrieval, unlike a computer

131
Q

While the computer’s hard drive stores data, human memory is more dynamic because:

a. It processes data passively and infallibly
b. It involves errors and reconstructive processes in recall
c. It only stores explicit memories
d. It does not allow for the modification of past experiences

A

b. It involves errors and reconstructive processes in recall

132
Q

Procedural memory is:

a. Memory for facts and experiences
b. Memory that involves the storage of motor skills and habits
c. A type of declarative memory that involves personal experiences
d. An explicit form of memory used in conscious recall

A

b. Memory that involves the storage of motor skills and habits

133
Q

Declarative memory refers to:

a. Memory for specific tasks, like riding a bike
b. Memory for facts and events that can be consciously recalled
c. Memory for unconscious, automatic processes
d. A temporary form of memory that involves problem-solving

A

b. Memory for facts and events that can be consciously recalled

134
Q

Memory failure can occur due to:

a. Lack of motivation and focus
b. Encoding failures, decay, interference, and retrieval issues
c. The inability to concentrate on new information
d. The overuse of declarative memory

A

b. Encoding failures, decay, interference, and retrieval issues

135
Q

Interference theory suggests that:

a. New information displaces older memories in the brain
b. Old memories block the encoding of new information
c. Memories can be lost due to brain damage alone
d. Only the most recent information is preserved

A

b. Old memories block the encoding of new information

136
Q

Eyewitness testimony can fail because:

a. Eyewitnesses often provide perfect and reliable accounts of events
b. The brain reconstructs memories, which may lead to errors and distortions
c. Memory is completely accurate and unaffected by suggestion
d. Eyewitnesses are not influenced by external factors

A

b. The brain reconstructs memories, which may lead to errors and distortions

137
Q

Eyewitnesses are particularly vulnerable to memory distortions caused by:

a. Confidence in their recall abilities
b. Suggestive questioning and misinformation
c. High levels of concentration on the event
d. Repetitive rehearsal of their memories

A

b. Suggestive questioning and misinformation

138
Q

Personality development is influenced by:

a. Only genetic or innate factors
b. Only environmental factors such as upbringing and culture
c. A combination of genetic, biological, and environmental factors
d. Neither genetic nor environmental factors

A

c. A combination of genetic, biological, and environmental factors

139
Q

Research on personality suggests that:

a. Personality is solely determined by genetic factors and remains fixed
b. Environmental influences, such as family, culture, and experiences, have no significant role
c. Both nature (genetics) and nurture (environment) contribute to the development of personality
d. Environmental factors solely determine personality without genetic influence

A

c. Both nature (genetics) and nurture (environment) contribute to the development of personality

140
Q

The psychodynamic theory of personality is primarily associated with:

a. Albert Bandura
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Carl Rogers
d. B.F. Skinner

A

b. Sigmund Freud

141
Q

According to Carl Rogers’ humanistic theory, the core concept of personality is:

a. Unconscious drives and childhood experiences
b. The individual’s striving for self-actualization and personal growth
c. The influence of reinforcement and punishment
d. The inherited characteristics of the individual

A

b. The individual’s striving for self-actualization and personal growth

142
Q

The trait theory of personality focuses on:

a. The unconscious mind and early childhood experiences
b. The influence of environmental conditions and societal norms
c. Identifying and measuring traits that can be used to describe and predict behavior
d. The individual’s ability to adapt to life stresses and challenges

A

c. Identifying and measuring traits that can be used to describe and predict behavior

143
Q

Social-cognitive theory of personality, proposed by Albert Bandura, emphasizes:

a. The role of inherited traits in shaping behavior
b. The importance of unconscious motives
c. The interaction between cognitive, behavioral, and environmental factors in personality development
d. The role of positive reinforcement in behavior change

A

c. The interaction between cognitive, behavioral, and environmental factors in personality development

144
Q

Intelligence can be best defined as:

a. The ability to memorize and recall information
b. The ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly, and learn from experience
c. The capacity to perform well in academic settings only
d. The natural ability to be creative and artistic

A

b. The ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly, and learn from experience

145
Q

Intelligence is typically measured by:

a. Personal opinions and self-assessments
b. Observation of daily behavior
c. Standardized tests designed to assess cognitive abilities
d. Measuring emotional intelligence through personal experiences

A

c. Standardized tests designed to assess cognitive abilities

146
Q

Common intelligence tests, such as the IQ test, are designed to:

a. Evaluate emotional and social intelligence only
b. Measure the intellectual potential in a specific domain like mathematics
c. Assess an individual’s cognitive abilities compared to others
d. Provide a measure of creativity and artistic talent

A

c. Assess an individual’s cognitive abilities compared to others

147
Q

Studying intelligence helps to:

a. Understand why certain people perform better academically
b. Improve an individual’s self-confidence
c. Develop better educational strategies and methods for different cognitive abilities
d. Measure social interactions between individuals

A

c. Develop better educational strategies and methods for different cognitive abilities

148
Q

Which of the following is a theory of intelligence proposed by Howard Gardner?

a. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence
b. Multiple Intelligences Theory
c. G-Factor Theory
d. Emotional Intelligence Theory

A

b. Multiple Intelligences Theory

149
Q

According to Spearman’s theory of intelligence, there is a general factor, or “g,” which:

a. Represents a combination of all forms of intelligence
b. Determines an individual’s artistic abilities
c. Explains the differences between fluid and crystallized intelligence
d. Is unrelated to problem-solving and reasoning abilities

A

a. Represents a combination of all forms of intelligence

150
Q

Crystallized intelligence refers to:

a. The ability to think abstractly and solve new problems
b. Knowledge and verbal skills accumulated from experience and education
c. A measure of creativity and problem-solving flexibility
d. The natural intelligence an individual is born with

A

b. Knowledge and verbal skills accumulated from experience and education

150
Q

Fluid intelligence refers to:

a. The accumulated knowledge and verbal skills acquired over a lifetime
b. The ability to reason abstractly, solve novel problems, and think quickly
c. The ability to perform well on academic tasks
d. Knowledge that is fixed and difficult to change

A

b. The ability to reason abstractly, solve novel problems, and think quickly

151
Q

The theory that intelligence is a general trait, influencing overall cognitive ability, is known as:

a. Multiple Intelligences Theory
b. The G-Factor Theory
c. Triarchic Intelligence Theory
d. Cognitive Load Theory

A

b. The G-Factor Theory

152
Q

The view that intelligence is domain-specific suggests that:

a. Intelligence in one area doesn’t necessarily relate to other areas
b. There is a single universal measure of intelligence
c. All individuals have the same intelligence in all domains
d. Intelligence is mostly fixed and unchangeable

A

a. Intelligence in one area doesn’t necessarily relate to other areas

152
Q

Giftedness refers to:

a. An individual’s difficulty in learning academic skills
b. Exceptionally high levels of intellectual ability, creativity, or talent
c. An inability to solve simple problems
d. The failure to adapt to social situations

A

b. Exceptionally high levels of intellectual ability, creativity, or talent

152
Q

Intellectual impairment is characterised by:

a. High levels of creativity and problem-solving abilities
b. Below-average cognitive functioning and difficulty with adaptive behaviors
c. A strong ability to perform academically
d. A superior understanding of abstract concepts

A

b. Below-average cognitive functioning and difficulty with adaptive behavior

PSY141 (1 decks)

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