PSY Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Learning (John B. Watson)

A

Is any relatively durable change in behavior or knowledge that is due to experience.

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2
Q

Classical conditioning (Ivan Pavlov)

A

-Elicited responses
-Learning as a result of association

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3
Q

Unconditioned stimulus (US)

A

is a stimulus that evokes an unconditioned response without previous conditioning.

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4
Q

Unonditioned response (UR)

A

is an unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning.

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5
Q

Conditioned stimulus (CS)

A

previously neutral stimulus that, through conditioning, has acquired the capacity to evoke a conditioned response.

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6
Q

Conditioned response (CR)

A

is a learned reaction to a conditioned stimulus that occurs because of previous conditioning.

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7
Q

What are key new directions and applications of the principles of conditioning?

A

Acquisition: refers to the initial stage of learning a new response tendency.
Extinction: the gradual weakening and disappearance of a conditioned response tendency.
Spontaneous recovery: is the reappearance of an extinguished response after a period of non-exposure to the conditioned stimulus.
Stimulus generalization: occurs when an organism that has learned a response to a specific stimulus responds in the same way to new stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus.
Stimulus discrimination: occurs when an organism that has learned a response to a specific stimulus does not respond in the same way to new stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus.

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8
Q

Renewal effect

A

research has uncovered a related phenomenon

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9
Q

Higher-order conditioning

A

in which a conditioned stimulus functions as if it were an unconditioned stimulus.

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10
Q

Operant conditioning (Skinner & Thorndike)

A

Stimulus follows the response and strengthens it
-Emitted Responses
-Learning as a result of consequences

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11
Q

Shaping

A

the reinforcement of closer and closer approximations of a desired response.

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12
Q

Resistance to extinction

A

occurs when an organism continues to make a response after delivery of the reinforcer for it has been terminated.

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13
Q

Discriminative stimuli

A

are cues that influence operant behavior by indicating the probable consequences (reinforcement or nonreinforcement) of a response.

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14
Q

How are primary & secondary reinforcers different?

A

Primary reinforcers -are events that are inherently reinforcing because they satisfy biological needs.
Secondary, or conditioned reinforcers- are events that acquire reinforcing qualities by being associated with primary reinforcers.

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15
Q

Schedule of reinforcement

A

is a specific pattern of presentation of reinforcers over time.

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16
Q

Continuous reinforcement

A

occurs when every instance of a designated response is reinforced.

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17
Q

Intermittent (partial) reinforcement

A

occurs when a designated response is reinforced only some of the time.

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18
Q

Positive Punishment

A

arrival of a stimulus after response makes less likely to reoccur

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19
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

occurs when a response is strengthened because it is followed by the presentation of a rewarding stimulus.

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20
Q

Negative Punishment

A

Removal of a stimulus after response makes response less likely to reoccur

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21
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

occurs when a response is strengthened because it is followed by the removal of an aversive (unpleasant) stimulus.

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22
Q

Escape learning

A

an organism acquires a response that decreases or ends some aversive stimulation.

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23
Q

Observational learning

A

occurs when an organism’s responding is influenced by the observation of others, who are called models.

Attention- To learn through observation, you must pay attention to another person’s behavior and its consequences.

Retention- You may not have occasion to use an observed response for weeks, months, or even years. Thus, you must store a mental representation of what you have witnessed in your memory.

Reproduction- Enacting a modeled response depends on your ability to reproduce the response by converting your stored mental images into overt behavior.

Motivation- Finally, you are unlikely to reproduce an observed response unless you are motivated to do so. Your motivation depends on whether you encounter a situation in which you believe the response is likely to pay off for you.

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24
Q

Behavior modification

A

is a systematic approach to changing behavior through the application of the principles of conditioning.

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25
Q

What is personality?

A

Personality- general style of interacting
Trait- Stable predisposition to behave a certain way
State- temporary disposition

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26
Q

Factor analysis

A

correlations among many variables are analyzed to identify closely related clusters of variables.

Extraversion- People who score high in extraversion are characterized as outgoing, sociable, upbeat, friendly, assertive, and gregarious. They also have a more positive outlook on life and are motivated to pursue social contact, intimacy, and interdependence
Neuroticism- People who score high in neuroticism tend to be anxious, hostile, self-conscious, insecure, and vulnerable. They also tend to exhibit more impulsiveness and emotional instability than others
Openness to experience- Openness is associated with curiosity, flexibility, imaginativeness, intellectual pursuits, interests in new ideas, and unconventional attitudes. People who are high in openness also tend to be tolerant of ambiguity
Agreeableness- Those who score high in agreeableness tend to be warm, sympathetic, trusting, compassionate, cooperative, modest, and straightforward. Agreeableness is also correlated with empathy and helping behavior
Conscientiousness- Conscientious people tend to be diligent, well-organized, punctual, and dependable. Conscientiousness is associated with strong self-discipline and the ability to regulate oneself effectively

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27
Q

Id

A

-instinctual drives
-pleasure principle
-“devil” (selfish)

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28
Q

Ego

A

-decision making
-reality principle
-mediator
-“self”

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29
Q

Superego

A

-Moral
-Right v. wrong
-Responsible for guilt
-“angel”

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30
Q

Conscious

A

consists of whatever one is aware of at a particular point in time.

31
Q

Preconscious

A

contains material just beneath the surface of awareness that can easily be retrieved.

32
Q

Unconscious

A

contains thoughts, memories, and desires that are well below the surface of conscious awareness, but that nonetheless exert great influence on behavior.

33
Q

What are defense mechanisms and what purpose do they serve?

A

a way of coping with unconscious anxiety
-rationalization
Repression- Keeping distressing thoughts and feelings buried in the unconscious

Projection- Attributing one’s own thoughts, feelings, or motives to another

Displacement-Diverting emotional feelings (usually anger) from their original source to a substitute target

Reaction formation- Behaving in a way that is exactly the opposite of one’s true feelings

Regression- A reversion to immature patterns of behavior

Rationalization- Creating false but plausible excuses to justify unacceptable behavior

Identification-Bolstering self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group

34
Q

Psychosexual stages

A

are developmental periods with a characteristic sexual focus that leave their mark on adult personality.

35
Q

Fixation

A

involves a failure to move forward from one stage to another, as expected.

36
Q

Oedipal complex

A

children manifest erotically tinged desires for their opposite-sex parent, accompanied by feelings of hostility toward their same-sex parent.

37
Q

Collective unconscious

A

is a storehouse of latent memory traces inherited from people’s ancestral past.

38
Q

Compensation

A

involves efforts to overcome imagined or real inferiorities by developing one’s abilities.

39
Q

Psychodynamic formulations

A

Poor testability
Unrepresentative samples
Overemphasis on case studies
Contradictory evidence
Sexism

40
Q

Behaviorism

A

is a theoretical orientation based on the premise that scientific psychology should study only observable behavior.

41
Q

Self-efficacy
Self-concept
Self-report

A

SE- refers to one’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes.
SC- is a collection of beliefs about one’s own nature, unique qualities, and typical behavior.
SR- inventories are personality tests that ask individuals to answer a series of questions about their characteristic behavior.
Deliberate deception.
Social desirability bias
Response sets.

42
Q

Incongruence

A

is the degree of disparity between one’s self-concept and one’s actual experience.

43
Q

Need for self-actualization

A

which is the need to fulfill one’s potential.

44
Q

Narcissism

A

is a personality trait marked by an inflated sense of importance, a need for attention and admiration, a sense of entitlement, and a tendency to exploit others.

45
Q

Hindsight bias

A

the tendency to mold one’s interpretation of the past to fit how events actually turned out.

46
Q

How are Conditioned Response (CR) extinguished?

A

Loss of conditioned Response after conditioned stimulus is no longer paired w/ unconditioned stimulus

47
Q

How can conditioned drug reactions
be explained in terms of CC?

A

Direct effect: electing a drug effect from a non-drug stimulus
(sight of coffee)
Indirect effect: body’s counteractive effect is conditioned in some cases

48
Q

How did Skinner improve the study of OC?

A

-Skinner Box (new vocab, many studies simultaneously)
-Systematized & applied behaviorist principles

49
Q

What are the four different types of OC?

A

Positive Reinforcement, Positive Punishment, Negative Reinforcement, and Negative Punishment.

50
Q

How do the four different schedules of reinforcement affect responses and extinction differently?

A

Fixed interval schedule (FI, long-lasting responding)- the reinforcer is given for the first response that occurs (amount of time vs. behavior)
fixed time interval has elapsed.
Fixed ratio schedule (FR, rapid responding)- the reinforcer is given after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses. (# vs # of behavior)
Variable interval schedule (VI, long-lasting responding, more resistant to extinction)- the reinforcer is given for the first response after a variable time interval has elapsed. (behavior vs set different times)
Variable ratio schedule (VR, rapid responding, more resistant to extinction)- the reinforcer is given after a variable number of nonreinforced responses. (not a set # of behaviors)

51
Q

How are operant responses extinguished?

A

when a response is no longer reinforced following a discriminative stimulus.

52
Q

Humanistic Perspective

A

optimistic about human nature
-can rise above animal urges
-largely conscious & rational
-naturally strive to improve

53
Q

Jung “Analytical Perspective”

A

Personal & collective unconscious
- Introversion/extroversion
-Archetypes

54
Q

Alder “Individual Perspective”

A

-Feelings of inferiority & compensation

55
Q

Freud “personality theory”

A

-Psychoanalysis
-approach to therapy
-Unconscious motivation

56
Q

How do consistency and distinctiveness illustrate key features of personality?

A

trait: stable predisposition to behave a certain way
state: temporary disposition

57
Q

What are the key features of the psychoanalytic perspectives in understanding personality?

A

approach to therapy and personality theory: much of human personality stems from unconscious motivation

58
Q

According to Freud, what is the 3-part structure of personality (the mind) and the levels of consciousness associated with each?

A
  1. ID (unconscious) “devil”
  2. superego (preconscious) “angel”
  3. ego (conscious) “self”
59
Q

What are response tendencies and how to they describe personality according to Skinner?

A

Personality = collection of stable response tendencies
- focus on operant conditioning

60
Q

What are the key features of the humanistic perspective in understanding personality?

A
  • optimistic about human nature
  • can rise above animal urges
  • largely conscious & rational
  • naturally strive to improve, but experience road blocks
61
Q

What are the key concepts Rogers offered to understand personality development?

A

Personal Centered Theory
- self-concept (who they are)
- conditional/unconditional positive regard
- incongruence (self-concept does not mesh well with actual experience) and anxiety

62
Q

What is the key contribution of Maslow to understanding personality development?

A
  • self actualization theory
  • hierarchy of needs
  • “healthy personality”
63
Q

Interactionism

A

-behavior = person x situation
- synthesis of social and personality psychology
- situational influence depends on personality

64
Q

What is the basic structure of personality according to the Big 5 approach?

A

Openness to Experience> higher IQ
Conscientiousness> better job performance
Extraversion> greater peer acceptance
Agreeableness> more helping behavior
Neuroticism> lower martial satifacation

65
Q

What is the basic structure of personality according to the Big 5 approach?

A

Openness to Experience> higher IQ
Conscientiousness> better job performance
Extraversion> greater peer acceptance
Agreeableness> more helping behavior
Neuroticism> lower martial satisfaction

66
Q

What are three ways psychologist study personality from a biological perspective?

A
  1. neuroscience
  2. heritability
  3. evolutionary
67
Q

What are the two dimensions underlying adult attachment styles?

A

Attachment anxiety>
see self negatively, partner positively
seek high levels of intimacy, approval, responsiveness
express worry, distrust, dependence

Attachment avoidance>
see self positively, partner negatively
avoid closeness, intimacy
express self-sufficiency

68
Q

What are the key features of the behavioral perspective in understanding personality?

A

observe and measure behaviors

69
Q

Secure

A

See self positively, partner positively

70
Q

What are the subtypes of Schizophrenia?

A

-Paranoid
-Catatonic
-Disorganized

71
Q

Conversion Disorder

A

actual loss of function

72
Q

Hypochondriasis

A

specific complaint
-“doctor shoppers”

73
Q

Somatization Disorder

A

History of diverse physical complaints