PST Flashcards

1
Q

Helicopters or planes used to drop water or fire retardant in large quantities. (10.04)

a. Aircraft Rescue
b. Air Truck
c. Aerial Fire Fighting
d. Fire Boat

A

c. Aerial Fire Fighting

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2
Q

Medical calls may require a law enforcement response if crowd/traffic control is needed. (9.10)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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3
Q

It is important for the PST to extract all pertinent information from the caller
___________________ (06.01)

a. confidently
b. quickly and accurately
c. with clarity and brevity
d. with a friendly demeanor

A

b. quickly and accurately

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4
Q

Effective communication is essential to understanding the message has been received and
understood. (4.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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5
Q

Symptoms of a diabetic emergency may mimic those of _____________________. (9.01)

a. Intoxication
b. Stroke
c. Fainting
d. Seizure

A

a. Intoxication

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6
Q

Florida gives each of the 67 counties the responsibility of maintaining emergency management
programs at the county level. (11.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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7
Q

All of the following are components of good interpersonal skills except: (4.02)

a. Decision making
b. Personalizing situations
c. Working together to reach a mutual understanding
d. Interacting appropriately and productively

A

b. Personalizing situations

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8
Q

HIPAA was designed to protect patients from disclosure of protected oral, written or
Electronic health information. (02.05)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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9
Q

Which of the following is not part of the 6 W’s? (7.01)

a. Where
b. Who
c. Why
d. Which

A

d. Which

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10
Q

PSTs in a call taker position may be utilized to process requests for field units. (06.05)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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11
Q

A subset of terrorism in terrorist groups participate directly in the cultivation, manufacture,
transportation, or distribution of controlled substances and the monies derived from these
activities is known as _____________________________. (11.02)

a. Eco-Terrorism
b. Cyber Terrorism
c. Narco Terrorism
d. Nationalist Terrorism

A

c. Narco Terrorism

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12
Q

During a MCI, it is the responsibility of the PST to make notifications to local and state agencies.
(9.07)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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13
Q

The 911 Public Safety Telecommunicator Certification requires students to participate in an
approved training program consisting of at least ______________. (01.09)

a. 280 hours
b. 256 hours
c. 232 hours
d. 240 hours

A

c. 232 hours

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14
Q

PSTs should remain professional, no matter the circumstance, by using industry jargon with callers
seeking assistance. (4.01)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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15
Q

The ___________________ is a 24/7 clearing house which holds and shares information with
local, state, and federal entities. (11.06)

a. Federal Emergency Management Agency
b. State Fire Office
c. Department of Emergency Management
d. State Watch Office

A

d. State Watch Office

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16
Q

Prioritization is not a factor when determining the order in which incidents will be handled.
(06.05)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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17
Q

Vehicle crashes with numerous patients is one example of an MCI. (9.06)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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18
Q

A non-emergency event which may not require immediate response. (10.05)

a. Public Education
b. Animal Rescue
c. Pre-Fire Plan
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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19
Q

A portable device which has the ability to analyze the heart rhythm and deliver an electrical shock
(when necessary) to restore the heart to a normal rhythm. (9.01)

a. CVA
b. LOC
c. AED
d. DOA

A

c. AED

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20
Q

For HAZMAT events, callers should be advised to get as close as possible to the product so they
may obtain all information requested by the PST on the telephone. (10.07)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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21
Q

______________ is defined as feeling of deep sympathy and sorrow for another who is stricken
by misfortune accompanied by a strong desire to alleviate the suffering. (4.02)

a. Sympathizing
b. Stress
c. Eustress
d. Compassion

A

d. Compassion

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22
Q

All hospitals have a designated trauma center. (9.08)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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23
Q

A _________________ is a hospital unit equipped and staffed to provide care to patients with
acute and life threatening traumatic injuries. (9.08)
a. Trauma center
b. Emergency room
c. Urgent care
d. Hospice

A

a. Trauma center

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24
Q

Florida gives the Division of Emergency Management (DEM) the responsibility of maintaining a
statewide emergency management program. (11.01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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25
Q

Which type of agreement allows emergency responders to reach across jurisdictional boundaries
to supplement the requesting agency’s resources? (7.06)
a. Mutual Aid Agreement
b. Federal Agreement
c. Local Agreement
d. Regional Agreement

A

a. Mutual Aid Agreement

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26
Q

HIPAA law, CJIS security policy, and agency protocols all have a role in dictating which information
can or cannot be disseminated and to whom. (2.05)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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27
Q

A Cerebrovascular Accident, or CVA, is commonly referred to as a _________________ (9.01)

a. Fainting
b. Stroke
c. Intoxication
d. Cardiac arrest

A

b. Stroke

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28
Q

____________________ is defined as the skill, good judgment, and respectful behavior that is
expected from a person who is trained to do a job well. (2.01)
a. Self-respect
b. Ethics
c. Professionalism
d. Morality

A

c. Professionalism

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29
Q

Non-emergency calls do not need to be placed on hold in order to answer incoming 911 calls.

(06. 01)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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30
Q

Who can enforce changes for the grounding of an aircraft? (11.01)

a. FAA
b. ELF
c. NTSB
d. FEMA

A

a. FAA

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31
Q

PSTs should be willing to go the extra mile to provide excellent customer service to callers. (4.03)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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32
Q

PSTs contribute to EMS safety by ________________________________. (9.11)

a. Not rebroadcasting pertinent information during a crisis call
b. Disregarding units who are too busy to respond on the radio
c. Entering less CAD notes
d. Following up on responders who do not answer the radio

A

d. Following up on responders who do not answer the radio

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33
Q

An emergency is defined as a serious, unexpected, and often dangerous development or situation
which may cause injury, loss of life, or damage to or loss of property. (06.02)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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34
Q
The software that keeps records organized, easy to archive, and recall is known as
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (01.02)
a. CAD
b. ALI
c. KOP
d. NENA
A

a. CAD

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35
Q

Major fires involving death or arson should be reported to the county and state watch office or
warning point. (11.06)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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36
Q

Edema means _________________________. (9.01)

a) Swelling
b) Fainting
c) Intoxication
d) Laceration

A

a) Swelling

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37
Q

A Telecommunicator can be held criminally liable if they violate a law or statute.

(02. 04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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38
Q

All of the following are factors essential to providing excellent customer service except: (4.03)

a. Focusing on the caller
b. Active listening
c. Raising your voice
d. Showing tenacity

A

c. Raising your voice

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39
Q

When completing forms and logs, using codes and ten signals is appropriate. (06.04)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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40
Q

What types of stress reactions are irritability, feeling overwhelmed and depression? (12.03)

a. Emotional
b. Cognitive
c. Physical
d. Behavioral

A

a. Emotional

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41
Q

The abbreviation for Intoxication from ethyl alcohol is ____________________. (9.01)

a. IFEA
b. ETOH
c. IEA
d. ITEA

A

b. ETOH

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42
Q

The ___________________ investigates transportation crashes and can issue safety
recommendations for improvements. (11.01)
a. FEMA
b. NIMS
c. NTSB
d. FAA

A

c. NTSB

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43
Q

It is important to give as much information as you can when asked questions in court.
(02.09)
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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44
Q
The primary responsibility of a call taker is to answer inbound 911 calls, non-emergency calls, and
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (01.03)
a. tracking responders
b. determining the appropriate response
c. administrative lines
d. tracking equipment
A

c. administrative lines

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45
Q

Use of persuasion techniques is part of providing excellent customer service. (4.03)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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46
Q

A method used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of a traumatic injury and
determine the need to transport to a designated/verified trauma center is trauma alert
_______________. (9.08)
a. Benchmarks
b. Conditions
c. Criteria
d. Standards

A

c. Criteria

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47
Q

Law enforcement may be required to respond to some fire or EMS calls. (10.11)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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48
Q
The two most common court settings that a PST would be subpoenaed for are trials and
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (2.09)
a. Jury Selection
b. Arraignments
c. Depositions
d. Sentencing
A

c. Depositions

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49
Q

When transferring a caller to another PSAP, the call taker can disconnect once they confirm the
correct PSAP has been reached. (06.12)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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50
Q

This individual serves as a bridge between the agency and the public and is responsible for sharing
information with news and journalism outlets. (2.08)
a. Media Relations Director
b. Public Information Officer
c. Head of the Agency
d. Watch Commander

A

b. Public Information Officer

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51
Q

When completing logs, forms and files appropriately, the PST should always use plain English,
even if agency policy states otherwise (7.04)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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52
Q

These items are exempt from disclosure as per Chapter 119, F.S. (2.07)

a. Home addresses and private phone numbers.
b. Home Addresses and email addresses
c. Phone numbers, and email addresses
d. Home addresses, private phone numbers, and personal email addresses

A

d. Home addresses, private phone numbers, and personal email addresses

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53
Q

The acronym CYMBALS is commonly used to obtain standard vehicle description. (06.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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54
Q

Chapter 119, F.S. provides protection to prevent certain types of information from being released
in a public records request. Which of the following are examples of protected information? (2.07)
a. Victims of domestic violence and Minors
b. 911 caller information, including phone number
c. Criminal intelligence information, and ongoing criminal investigations
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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55
Q

PSTs should never change their communication style based on their caller. (4.07)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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56
Q
Multi-functional dexterity means the individual must be able to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ at the
same time with accuracy. (06.10)
a. write, type, listen and talk
b. walk, type, listen and talk
c. write, type, and walk
d. write, type, listen and walk
A

a. write, type, listen and talk

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57
Q

FEMA stands for ____________________________________. (11.01)

a. Federal Emergency Management Assistance
b. Federal Emergency Management Administration
c. Florida Emergency Management Agency
d. Federal Emergency Management Agency

A

d. Federal Emergency Management Agency

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58
Q

Truck which carries large amounts of foam to fight fires accelerated by airplane fuel. (10.04)

a. Tanker
b. Quint
c. Fire Boat
d. Foam Truck

A

d. Foam Truck

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59
Q

The PST must be able to differentiate between emergency and non-emergency incidents. (7.02)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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60
Q

PSTs should use phonetics to clarify information, such as confirming a tag number or the spelling
of a name. (4.07)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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61
Q

To be eligible for 911 PST renewal certification, the certificate holder must complete 40 hours of
renewal training.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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62
Q

Verbal communication skills include leaning forward, smiling and nodding. (4.04)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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63
Q

The internet based technology that allows callers to send text messages, photos and videos to
PSAPs is known as ______________. (01.02)
a. 2nd Generation 911
b. NextGen911
c. Generation 911
d. Future 911

A

b. NextGen911

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64
Q

PST’s are permitted to use personal data and case information for personal reasons? (2.02)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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65
Q

____________ is a set of personnel, policies, procedures, facilities, and equipment integrated into
a common organizational structure designed to improve emergency response operations. (11.03)
a. NIMS
b. ICS
c. DHS
d. FEMA

A

b. ICS

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66
Q

Non-verbal communication skills include listening for background noise. (4.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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67
Q

Which is not an example of personal stress management practices? (12.05)

a. Eating and drinking right
b. Venting to co-workers
c. Frequent breaks
d. Exercise

A

b. Venting to co-workers

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68
Q

Members of upper management are privy to the information that is discussed during Critical
Incident Stress Management session? (12.04)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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69
Q

ANI is the acronym for _______________. (01.02)

a. Automatic Numeral Identification
b. Automatic Number Identifier
c. Automatic Number Identification
d. Automatic Numbering Identifier

A

c. Automatic Number Identification

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70
Q

Written or typed words such as those used with TDD/TTY are part of non-verbal communication.

(4. 04)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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71
Q

Who coordinates a response to a disaster that has occurred in the US and that overwhelms the
resourced on local and state authorities? (11.01)
a. Division of Emergency Management
b. Federal Emergency Management Agency
c. U.S. Dept. of Homeland Security
d. National Transportation Safety Board

A

b. Federal Emergency Management Agency

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72
Q

All agencies use the term “Code 3” to indicate an emergency response (7.02)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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73
Q

The acronym PSAP stands for ______________________. (01.01)

a. Public Safety Answering Point
b. Public Safety Awareness Point
c. Public Security Answering Point
d. Public Safety Answering Program

A

a. Public Safety Answering Point

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74
Q

When giving testimony during a hearing if you are unsure of the answer the best thing to
do would be to take a guess and give the best answer possible. (02.09)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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75
Q
The principles of honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct that govern an individual
are known as (02.01)
a. Professionalism
b. Rules and Regulations
c. Ethics
d. Values
A

c. Ethics

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76
Q

Bunker gear is protective clothing worn by fighter fighters while working an active fire incident.

(10. 01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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77
Q

This is the single most important piece of information to be obtained by a PST. (8.07)

a. When did the incident occur?
b. What is the location of the incident?
c. What is the nature of the incident?
d. Are there any weapons involved?

A

b. What is the location of the incident?

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78
Q

Law enforcements agencies often use similar terminology and acronyms to describe incidents and

systems. (8.01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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79
Q

An apartment fire is considered to be what type of fire? (10.03)

a. Single Family
b. Commercial
c. High Rise
d. Multi-Family

A

d. Multi-Family

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80
Q

TERT is the acronym for Telecommunicator Emergency Response Taskforce. (11.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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81
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the key when determining the order in which incidents will be
dispatched for service. (7.05)
a. When
b. Prioritization
c. Weapons
d. Location
A

b. Prioritization

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82
Q

The Detroit Police Department used the first one way radio communications in 1928. (1.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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83
Q

Misdemeanor: A criminal offense that is punishable by a term of imprisonment in a ____________
correctional facility for up to a year. (8.01)
a. Municipal
b. County
c. State
d. Federal

A

b. County

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84
Q

It is the PST’s responsibility to help maintain officer safety by relaying information quickly and

accurately. (8.02)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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85
Q

The Enhanced 911 system includes ________________. (01.02)

a. text and photos
b. AIN/AIL
c. text and video
d. ANI/ALI

A

d. ANI/ALI

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86
Q

As a public servant, a PST is held to a higher standard of professionalism. (01.03)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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87
Q

A MAYDAY is an internationally recognized distress signal. (10.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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88
Q

Civil complaints involve disputes between private individuals or disputes involving contractual
matters and are penalized by non-criminal sanctions such as fines or forfeitures. (8.04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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89
Q

To be eligible for 911 PST renewal certification, the certificate holder must complete 40 hours of
renewal training. (1.09)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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90
Q

The five types of normal and expectable stress reactions are cognitive, physical, behavioral, emotional and

spiritual. (12.03)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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91
Q

In-progress: the event is still being committed, there is ________________ threat to life or
property and requires immediate dispatch. (8.06)
a. Impending
b. Imminent
c. Critical
d. Immediate

A

b. Imminent

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92
Q

Supervisors and co-workers are resources available in the PSAP to assist during unfolding

incidents. (7.03)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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93
Q

Past event (delayed event): the event was committed in the past or at an unknown time, but a
law enforcement response is _____________________. (8.06)
a. Pending
b. Imminent
c. Required
d. Immediate

A

c. Required

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94
Q

NFPA is the acronym for _______________. (01.08)

a. National Fire Protocol Association
b. National Fire Protection Association
c. National Fire Prevention Association
d. National Fire Procedure Administration

A

b. National Fire Protection Association

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95
Q

In 1989, the Wireless Communications and Public Safety Act took effect. (01.01)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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96
Q

_________________________is defined as an armed person who has, or intends to use, any type
of weapon to inflict deadly physical force on others and continues to do so while having
unrestricted access to additional victims. (8.07)
a. Hostage Taker
b. Active Shooter
c. Barricaded Subject
d. Suicidal Subject

A

b. Active Shooter

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97
Q

Hostage situation is defined as a situation involving an individual being held against their will.

(8. 07)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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98
Q

What types of stress reactions are denial, confusion, and memory impairment? (12.03)

a. Emotional
b. Cognitive
c. Physical
d. Behavioral

A

b. Cognitive

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99
Q

Which is not a community resource? (7.03)

a. Poison Control
b. 311/211
c. Domestic Violence Hotline
d. Tax Collector

A

d. Tax Collector

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100
Q

Barricaded subject: a subject that has blocked themselves in an area. (8.07)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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101
Q
Respect for different cultures, backgrounds, lifestyles and generational differences is part of
Human \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (4.11)
a. Differences
b. Diversity
c. Contrast
d. Discrepancy
A

b. Diversity

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102
Q

A mobile water source. (10.04)

a. Engine
b. Tanker
c. Fire Boat
d. Brush Truck

A

b. Tanker

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103
Q

HIPAA does not prevent PSTs from relaying information to responding units; it does prevent PSTs
from relaying information to curious callers. (2.05)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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104
Q

A conscious effort that requires the listener to understand and interpret what is being heard by
showing interest in what the speaker is saying and to ensure mutual understanding is
___________________________ (4.04)
a. Conversation attending
b. Paraphrasing
c. Active listening
d. Communications cycle

A

c. Active listening

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105
Q

Hypertension is low blood sugar. (9.01)

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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106
Q

The use of force or threat of force without declaring war to terrorize citizens and achieve a political
goal is known as ________________________. (11.02)
a. Domestic Terrorism
b. Nationalist Terrorism
c. State Terrorism
d. International Terrorism

A

c. State Terrorism

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107
Q

One example of conditions which could rise to the level of trauma are falls greater than ________

feet. (9.08)
a. 8
b. 10
c. 15
d. 18

A

b. 10

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108
Q

When callers intentionally give false information in order to misdirect law enforcement resources
where no emergency exists, often initiating a SWAT response is known as __________________
(4.10)
a. Swatting
b. 911 Pranking
c. Hoaxing
d. 911 fraud

A

a. Swatting

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109
Q

All TERT members are required to complete the ICS-800 training. (11.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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110
Q

Information should be gathered using the _____________________________ (06.01)

a. 3 Ws – Where, Who, and What
b. 5 Ws – Who, What, Where, When, and Why
c. 4 Ws – Who, What, Where, and When
d. 6 Ws – Where, What, Weapons, When, Who, and Why

A

d. 6 Ws – Where, What, Weapons, When, Who, and Why

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111
Q

What type of stress reactions are shaking, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation? (12.03)

a. Emotional
b. Cognitive
c. Physical
d. Behavioral

A

c. Physical

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112
Q

Responsibilities of the PST during an MCI include _____________________________ (9.07)

a. Establish a command post for field units
b. Designate command positions
c. Designate the incident commander
d. Fulfill resource requests from command

A

d. Fulfill resource requests from command

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113
Q

Putting information in a logical order will assist in the timely dispatching of resources. (7.02)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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114
Q

A secured area for landing emergency aircraft. (9.01)

a. Landing area
b. Emergency landing
c. Emergency zone
d. Landing zone

A

d. Landing zone

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115
Q

_______________ is defined as the potential for responsibility of payment to an aggrieved party
due to the violation of a civil law. (2.04)
a. Criminal Liability
b. Financial Liability
c. Civil liability
d. Civil Obligation

A

c. Civil liability

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116
Q

The ICS is a systematic tool used in the command, control and coordination of emergency

response. (11.04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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117
Q

EMTs are trained on all of the following except ______________________________ (9.03)

a. Child birth
b. Administering medications
c. Advanced first aid
d. Oxygen therapy

A

b. Administering medications

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118
Q

When obtaining pertinent information, the PST should explain delays. (7.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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119
Q

Non-verbal communication skills include ________________________. (4.04)

a. Listening for background noise
b. Rushing the caller
c. Use open and close-ended questions
d. Paraphrasing statements to ensure understanding

A

a. Listening for background noise

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120
Q

Syncope means________________________. (9.01)

a. Intoxication
b. Diabetic
c. Swelling
d. Fainting

A

d. Fainting

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121
Q

There is a fire in a residential neighborhood. Caller reports smoke and fire coming from roof of
the home. What type of fire is this considered? (10.03)
a. Industrial
b. Trailer
c. Multi-Family
d. Single Family

A

d. Single Family

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122
Q

Good decision making skills include learning from past mistakes and knowing the possible

consequences. (4.05)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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123
Q

EMTs provide the following care except _____________________________. (9.02)

a. Splinting
b. Immobilization
c. Establishing IVs
d. CPR

A

c. Establishing IVs

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124
Q

________________ is defined as the willful, negligent, or reckless violation of criminal law or
statute which can result in sanctions in the form of imprisonment. (2.04 – 18)
a. Felonious Liability
b. Criminal Liability
c. Civil liability
d. Criminal Responsibility

A

b. Criminal Liability

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125
Q

Location is the vital piece of information that should be obtained first. (06.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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126
Q

A licensed aeronautical transport unit used for the purpose of rapid patient transport. (9.09)

a. Air Rescue Transport Unit
b. Air Ambulance Unit
c. Air Emergent Unit
d. Air Medical Transport Unit

A

a. Air Rescue Transport Unit

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127
Q

It is not important for the PST to know the agency’s geographical areas and the agencies
surrounding the boundaries. (7.06)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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128
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to the mental process of selecting a course of action from two or
more possible alternatives: (4.05)
a. Supervising
b. Decision making
c. Stress
d. Rational decisions
A

b. Decision making

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129
Q

311/211 is a ___________ resource PSTs should be aware of and the services they provide.

(06. 03)
a. Federal
b. Local
c. State
d. Community

A

d. Community

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130
Q

Paramedics can provide patients with advanced life support functions such as cardiac monitoring
and establishing IVs. (9.02)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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131
Q

State resources available to the PSAP include the Highway Patrol, Fish and Wildlife, Department
of Health and ____________________________. (06.03)
a. Alcohol, Tobacco & Firearms
b. NOAA
c. State Watch Office
d. Coast Guard

A

c. State Watch Office

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132
Q

_____________is defined as bad stress. (12.01)

a. Eustress
b. Anxiety
c. Distress
d. Isolation

A

c. Distress

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133
Q

FEMA provides services for (11.01)

a. Crisis counseling
b. Unemployment
c. Legal services
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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134
Q

Databases such as the Criminal Justice Information System (CJIS) and the Driver and Vehicle
Information Database (DAVID) user policies prohibit personal access and dissemination outside
business purposes. (2.04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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135
Q

CHEMTREC is available to provide emergency information and assistance to anyone involved in a
chemical or hazardous material incident around the globe ___________. (10.09)
a. Monday to Friday 8am to 5pm
b. Seven days a week from 7 am to 9 pm
c. 24/7/365
d. Available by page only

A

c. 24/7/365

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136
Q

When dealing with an upset caller, the use of sarcasm can be used to lighten the situation and
calm the caller. (4.06)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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137
Q

Location information includes address or intersection, name of business or apartment complex,
building or apartment numbers, landmarks and _______________________. (06.01)
a. direction of travel
b. color of the house or building
c. number of cars in the driveway
d. whether or not there is a fence

A

a. direction of travel

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138
Q

An emergency is an unexpected situation which may cause injury, loss of life, or damage to

property. Some examples are: (10.05)
a. HAZMAT Incidents
b. Life-threatening injuries/illness
c. Extrications
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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139
Q

The first test call of the 911 system was made in ____________________. (01.01)

a. Huntsville, AL
b. Haleyville, AL
c. Orange County, FL
d. Orange County, CA

A

b. Haleyville, AL

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140
Q

When staging for an incident, the responding field units should choose a location right in front of
the scene. (10.01)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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141
Q

The highest rank in the Fire Chain of Command is ____________________. (10.01)

a. Battalion Chief
b. District Chief
c. Chief
d. Deputy or Assistant Chief

A

c. Chief

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142
Q

PSTs must have the ability to use logical and sound judgment based on ________________. (4.05)

a. Inferences
b. Common sense
c. What someone else tells them?
d. Experience and knowledge

A

d. Experience and knowledge

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143
Q

Everything a PST does or says may be recorded, reproduced and examined. (7.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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144
Q

______________ can be divided by city, county, zone, region, or territory. (06.06)

a. Logs
b. Jurisdictions
c. Teletype
d. Interoperability

A

b. Jurisdictions

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145
Q

A method which provides PSTs and supervisors the opportunity to regularly monitor work
performance and take corrective action in the form of training is known as ______________.
(01.08)
a. Quality Assurance
b. Daily Observation Report
c. Remedial Training
d. Standard Evaluation Guidelines

A

a. Quality Assurance

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146
Q

International terrorism is defined as terrorism practiced in one’s own country against one’s own

people. (11.02)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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147
Q

Guidelines for testifying in any court setting include all of the following except: (2.09)

a. Refresh your memory before testifying
b. Being courteous, using appropriate titles
c. Exaggerate or guess when you are unsure about answers
d. Do not volunteer information, answer only the question you are asked

A

c. Exaggerate or guess when you are unsure about answers

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148
Q

Law Enforcement doesn’t assist with evaluations. (10.11)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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149
Q

Which mnemonic is commonly used to aid in obtaining the standard vehicle description? (7.01)

a. DAVID
b. CYMBALS
c. VIN
d. FCIC

A

b. CYMBALS

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150
Q

Improperly logging information of forms could result in violations of user agreements, civil
lawsuits, fines, and licensure revocations. (06.04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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151
Q

All of the following are good techniques used to control hysterical, angry or highly emotional
callers except________________________________. (4.06)
a. Elevating to the caller’s emotional level
b. Providing reassurance
c. Using the caller’s name
d. Building a good rapport with the caller

A

a. Elevating to the caller’s emotional level

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152
Q

A stolen vehicle is considered a non-emergency incident. (06.02)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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153
Q

When the PIO is unavailable, agency policy may dictate the amount and type of information
provided to members of the media or may prohibit all communications until the PIO is available.
(2.08)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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154
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the successful, simultaneous performance of two or more
tasks by one individual. (7.07)
a. Active listening
b. Performance standards
c. Situational awareness
d. Multi-functional dexterity
A

d. Multi-functional dexterity

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155
Q

Critical Incident Stress Management teams are available only during normal business hours.

(12. 07)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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156
Q

County Aid Agreements allow emergency responders to reach across jurisdictional boundaries to
supplement the requesting agency’s resources. (06.06)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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157
Q

Silver Alerts provide a standardized system to aid local law enforcement in the rescue of an elderly
person with a cognitive impairment who is lost or missing (8.11)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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158
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 was designed to protect
________________ from disclosure of protected health information (PHI) that is oral, written or
electronic. (2.05)
a. Physicians
b. Patients
c. Insurance Companies
d. Hospitals

A

b. Patients

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159
Q

What type of resources are the Highway Patrol, Fish & Wildlife, and the Department of Health?

(7. 03)
a. Local
b. County
c. State
d. Federal

A

c. State

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160
Q

Maintaining good personal hygiene and adherence to agency dress code are not necessary in
confined work spaces. (01.06)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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161
Q

Ethics is defined as the principles of ____________, ___________ and _____________ that
govern an individual or group. (2.01)
a. Professionalism, honor and integrity
b. Honor, morality and integrity
c. Honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct
d. Duty, honor and integrity

A

c. Honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct

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162
Q

One of the benefits of being a PST is receiving gratuities and gifts. (2.02)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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163
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are central databases used for tracking crime-related data at state
and national levels respectively. (8.01)
a. FCIC/NCIC
b. NCIC/CJIS
c. CJIS/DAVID
d. FCIC/DAVID
A

a. FCIC/NCIC

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164
Q

Felony: A serious crime punishable by death or imprisonment in a _____________ penitentiary or
in correctional facilities for a year or more. (8.01)
a. Municipal
b. County
c. State
d. Federal

A

c. State

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165
Q

More than one element of Critical Incident Stress Management may be utilized after a critical

incident. (12.06)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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166
Q

In 1981, _______________ declared the first National Public Safety Telecommunicators Weeks as
a nod to the voices behind the headset. (01.01)
a. New York
b. Florida
c. Michigan
d. California

A

d. California

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167
Q

Which of the following is not a primary duty of law enforcement officers (8.02)

a. Provide community policing, education, and crime prevention
b. Provide safety to the public and protection of property
c. Relaying information quickly and accurately
d. Investigate and document incidents and crime

A

c. Relaying information quickly and accurately

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168
Q

The Enhanced 911 system was introduced in Orange County, Fl. in 1980. (01.02)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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169
Q

The Communications Cycle is made up of the following components: (4.08)

a) Sender, Receiver, Message, Media, Response
b) Transmitter, Receiver, Media, Medium, Feedback
c) Sender, Receiver, Message, Medium, Feedback
d) Transmitter, Receiver, Message, Medium, Reply

A

c) Sender, Receiver, Message, Medium, Feedback

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170
Q

___________ complaints involve an offense against society and can be penalized by punishment
such as incarceration or probation. (8.04)
a. Criminal
b. Misdemeanor
c. Civil
d. Felony

A

a. Criminal

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171
Q

The Incident Command System (ICS) is solely used by the federal and state government. (11.04)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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172
Q
Typically the five major functional areas in ICS are Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (11.04)
a. Finance/Administration
b. Equipment
c. Training
d. Safety
A

a. Finance/Administration

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173
Q

Which of the following is not a stressor that is unique to the environment of a Public Safety Tele
communicator? (12.02)
a. They take on others problems
b. The lack of sleep he or she gets
c. No one understands what he or she does for a living
d. Not caring about the problems of others

A

d. Not caring about the problems of others

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174
Q

Providing legal advice can attach liability to the PST and/or the employing agency (8.05)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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175
Q
What types of stress reactions are changes in eating, withdrawal, and decrease in personal
hygiene? (12.03)
a. Emotional
b. Cognitive
c. Physical
d. Behavioral
A

d. Behavioral

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176
Q

Each PST owes a standard of care to all stakeholders, by virtue of being endowed with the
significant responsibilities of being a PST. (8.05)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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177
Q

Just occurred: the event has been committed and there is no _______________ threat to life or

property. (8.06)
a. Impending
b. Imminent
c. Critical
d. Immediate

A

b. Imminent

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178
Q

What types of stress reactions are irritability, feeling overwhelmed and depression? (12.03)

a. Emotional
b. Cognitive
c. Physical
d. Behavioral

A

a. Emotional

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179
Q

The role of the PST is to gather and summarize pertinent information and relay it in a timely
manner to the responder. (8.07)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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180
Q

The five phases of an Active Shooter Incident are ___________________________________.

(8. 07)
a. Fantasy, Planning, Preparation, Approach and Implementation
b. Fantasizing, Researching, Preparation, Planning and Implementation
c. Dreaming, Planning, Logistics, Approach and Implementation
d. Fantasy, Planning, Preparation, Containment and implementation

A

a. Fantasy, Planning, Preparation, Approach and Implementation

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181
Q

A _______________ primary role is to process the information received and deploy the closest,
most appropriate field resource, based on the incident classification and priority. (01.03)
a. call taker’s
b. supervisor’s
c. dispatcher’s
d. operator’s

A

c. dispatcher’s

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182
Q

When providing instructions to a caller, it is important that the PST obtain feedback to ensure

understanding. (4.08)
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

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183
Q

The L in CYMBALS is for the tag number. (06.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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184
Q

PSTs should treat all calls the same way, keeping responder, citizen, scene safety, and patient care
in mind. (8.07)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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185
Q

Proper interview questions for suicidal callers should include _____________________. (8.08)

a. Is it a threat or attempt?
b. What is the method/means?
c. Is anyone else present?
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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186
Q

FEMA provides funding for housing, medical assistance, funerals, fuels (heat source), items for
clean-up, vehicle repair, and moving/storage. (11.01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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187
Q

PSTs need to be aware of officer safety issues at every scene. For all incidents, regardless of the
nature, the PST needs to gather information including: (8.09 – 84)
a. Nature of the incident/threat
b. Suspect’s description and current location
c. History (premise history, hazmat information, and other responder safety issues)
d. Universal precautions
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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188
Q

The three phases of a Hostage situation are. (8.07)

a. Initial, Negotiation, and Release
b. Taking, Demanding, and Surrender
c. Initial, Negotiation, and Termination
d. Observation, Containment and Termination

A

c. Initial, Negotiation, and Termination

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189
Q

PSTs do not need to be available in the event of a natural disaster, emergency mobilizations, or
other declarations of emergency. (01.05)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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190
Q

The US Department of Homeland Security is responsible for guarding against terrorism, securing
US boarders, enforcing US immigration laws, and _________________. (11.01)
a. investigating transportation accidents
b. improving federal readiness
c. coordinating disaster responses
d. maintaining emergency management programs

A

b. improving federal readiness

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191
Q

The Enhanced 911 system includes ________________. (01.02)

a. text and photos
b. AIN/AIL
c. text and video
d. ANI/ALI

A

d. ANI/ALI

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192
Q

The phases of a barricaded subject are _____________________________. (8.07)

a. Barricading, Observation, Conclusion
b. Observation, Containment and Termination
c. Barricading, Observation, Securing
d. Observation, Securing and Recovery

A

b. Observation, Containment and Termination

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193
Q

Silver Alerts provide a standardized system to aid local law enforcement in the rescue of an elderly
person with a cognitive impairment who is lost or missing (8.11)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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194
Q

There are several Critical Incident Stress Management resources available on line? (12.07)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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195
Q

A Blue Alert contains a subject and/or vehicle description of persons that may pose a serious
threat to the public after a ______________________has been seriously injured, killed, or goes
missing in the line of duty (8.11)
a. Firefighter and LEO
b. Law Enforcement Officer
c. Member of the Armed Services
d. Firefighter

A

b. Law Enforcement Officer

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196
Q

The first two-way radio system was implemented in ______________. (01.01)

a. Bayonne, New Jersey
b. Detroit Michigan
c. San Jose, California
d. Chicago Illinois

A

a. Bayonne, New Jersey

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197
Q

Facts are based on perceptions and inferences are based on something that has happened.

(4. 09)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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198
Q

If a caller is providing information that appears suspicious, the PST should______________. (4.10)

a. Ask the caller to repeat, then paraphrase
b. Tell the caller their story does not make sense
c. Ask follow-up/open-ended questions
d. Take the information as it is provided and relay to responders

A

c. Ask follow-up/open-ended questions

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199
Q

Critical Incident Stress Management is therapy. (12.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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200
Q

_________________ is used to seek to form self-determination which may range from gaining
greater autonomy to establishing a completely independent sovereign state. (11.02)
a. Domestic Terrorism
b. State Terrorism
c. Nationalist Terrorism
d. International Terrorism

A

c. Nationalist Terrorism

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201
Q

The first 9-1-1 call made in 1968 was initiated in which state?

a. Alaska
b. Arkansas
c. Alabama
d. Florida

A

c. Alabama

202
Q

Guidelines for testifying in court include all of the following except: (2.09)
a. Refresh your memory. Listen to the 911 call and other recordings and review the CAD
notes
b. Dress appropriately (no jeans or casual clothing)
c. Use proper titles
d. Provide all the information you know

A

d. Provide all the information you know

203
Q

As required by the ADA, communications centers are required to conduct TDD training: (3.05)

a. Biannually
b. Annually
c. Monthly
d. Quarterly

A

a. Biannually

204
Q

Differences in culture, backgrounds, lifestyles, and generational differences refers to: (4.11)

a. The communications cycle
b. Human Diversity
c. Decision making
d. Call Classification

A

b. Human Diversity

205
Q

Which of the following is a telephone technique that should be used by a call taker for obtaining
and organizing pertinent information? (6.01)
a. Ignoring the caller
b. Arguing with the caller when needed
c. Filling gaps of silence by humming or other noises
d. Listen to background noises

A

d. Listen to background noises

206
Q

Confidential information includes all of the following except: (2.07)

a. Name of a 911 caller
b. Description of a suspect vehicle
c. Telephone number of a 911 caller
d. Patient care information

A

b. Description of a suspect vehicle

207
Q

In 1999, what law took effect establishing 911 as the national emergency phone number? (1.01)

a. The Wireless Communications and Public Safety Act (911 Act)
b. The American Communications and Public Safety Act (911 Act)
c. The Global Communications and Public Safety Act (911 Act)
d. The Wireless Communications and Emergency Contact Act (911 Act)

A

a. The Wireless Communications and Public Safety Act (911 Act)

208
Q

Florida’s Silver Alert Plan was made effective by an executive order in:(8.11)

a. July, 2000
b. October, 2008
c. August, 2000
d. December, 2005

A

b. October, 2008

209
Q

A person whose body is unable to regulate blood sugar is: (9.01)

a. Hypertension
b. Hypothermia
c. Seizure
d. Diabetic

A

d. Diabetic

210
Q

Property or structures in close enough proximity that can be damaged by smoke, heat, or flames.

(10. 01)
a. Alpha/Bravo/Charlie/Delta
b. Reverse lay
c. Exposures
d. Fire out

A

c. Exposures

211
Q

All of the following are basic precautions to be taken to protect one and others in hazardous
materials incidents except: (10.07)
a. Establish a perimeter for an evacuation zone or safe zone
b. Make contact with the product to determine if it is harmful
c. Establish decontamination areas
d. Evacuate if necessary

A

b. Make contact with the product to determine if it is harmful

212
Q
Florida gives \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the responsibility of maintaining emergency management programs
at the county level. (11.01)
a. SERT
b. Each of the 67 counties
c. TERT
d. LEPC
A

b. Each of the 67 counties

213
Q

A _____________ is an event that has the potential to create significant human distress and can
overwhelm one’s usual coping mechanisms. (12.02)
a. Critical incident
b. Stressor
c. Compassion fatigue
d. Eustress

A

a. Critical incident

214
Q

Tracking responders is a primary responsibility of: (1.03)

a. Call Takers
b. Quality Improvement Personnel
c. Dispatchers
d. Field Training Officers

A

c. Dispatchers

215
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 was designed to protect patients
from disclosure of ______________________ that is oral, written or electronic. (2.05)
a. Shot records
b. Protected Health Information (PHI)
c. Criminal histories
d. 911 records

A

b. Protected Health Information (PHI)

216
Q

The three types of service radios include: (3.07)

a. Handheld radio, tower radio and home station
b. Handheld radio, mobile radio and base station
c. Mini radio, portable radio and base station
d. Mobile radio, handheld radio, and home station

A

b. Handheld radio, mobile radio and base station

217
Q

Something that is known to exist or has happened is a(n): (4.09)

a) Inference
b) Fact
c) Conclusion
d) Guess

A

b) Fact

218
Q

What are the 6 W’s of information gathering? (6.01)

a. Where, What, When, Who, Weapons, Which
b. What, Where, When, Who, How, Whatever
c. Where, What, When, Weapons, Who, Why
d. What, Where, When, Wanted, Weapons, How

A

c. Where, What, When, Weapons, Who, Why

219
Q

A 911 caller’s cell phone number may not be released due to the: (2.07)

a. Right to Know Law
b. Freedom of Information Law
c. Public Records Law
d. Public Information Law

A

c. Public Records Law

220
Q

Which of the following is not important to adhering to dress codes and personal hygiene? (1.06)

a. Always wear name brand shoes
b. Uniforms should be clean and pressed
c. Make-up should be conservative and appear natural
d. Hair should be neat and clean

A

a. Always wear name brand shoes

221
Q

The age criteria for activation of the Amber Alert is (8.11)

a. 18 years of age and older
b. 18 years of age and under
c. Under 18 years of age
d. 12 years of age and under 22.

A

c. Under 18 years of age

222
Q

ETOH is: (9.01)

a. A needle inserted in a vein to administer fluid
b. An electrocardiogram that checks for problems with electrical activity of the heart
c. Used to describe an intoxicated person
d. A specified ground area for landing a helicopter

A

c. Used to describe an intoxicated person

223
Q
Basic fire apparatus that has a self-contained pump used for pumping water through hoses to
extinguish the fire. (10.04)
a. Fire Boat
b. Engine
c. Brush truck
d. Rescue
A

b. Engine

224
Q

The two main sources of hazardous materials identification are: (10.09)
a. FEMA and CHEMTREC
b. National Fire Academy
c. National Shipper’s Service
d. CHEMTREC and the Department of Transportation Emergency Response Guidebook (DOT
ERG)

A

d. CHEMTREC and the Department of Transportation Emergency Response Guidebook (DOT
ERG)

225
Q

The National Response Framework (NRF) works in conjunction with: (11.03)

a. NIMS - National Incident Management System
b. DOF - Division of Forestry
c. DHS - Department of Homeland Security
d. DOT - Department of Transportation

A

a. NIMS - National Incident Management System

226
Q

Cognitive stress indicators include all but which of the following: (12.03)

a. Crying
b. Difficulty concentrating
c. Denial
d. Memory impairment

A

a. Crying

227
Q

What type of impact do employee absences have on a communications center? (1.05)

a. Decreases cost
b. Lessens workload
c. Boosts morale
d. Lowers morale

A

d. Lowers morale

228
Q

Shaking is a symptom of which type of stress? (12.03)

a. Cognitive Stress
b. Emotional Stress
c. Behavioral Stress
d. Physical Stress

A

d. Physical Stress

229
Q

The abbreviation ALI stands for: (1.02)

a. Automatic Location Identifier
b. Attempt to Locate Individual
c. Automatic Language Identifier
d. Attempt to Locate Information

A

a. Automatic Location Identifier

230
Q

A conscious effort that requires the listener to understand and interpret what is being heard by
showing interest in what the speaker is saying to ensure mutual understanding is called: (4.04)
a. Active Listening
b. Considering
c. Monitoring
d. Receiving

A

a. Active Listening

231
Q

A caller may have multiple complaints but a call should be classified according to: (5.03)

a. The first thing the caller says
b. The issue with the highest priority
c. Whatever the caller is most upset about
d. Law enforcement call types

A

b. The issue with the highest priority

232
Q

Multi-functional dexterity can be defined as: (6.07)

a. the act of performing uncomplicated tasks with ease and comfort
b. An individual’s struggle to overcome the complexity of his or her job responsibilities
c. The successful simultaneous performance of two or more tasks by one individual
d. The act of successfully completing one task at a time with accuracy

A

c. The successful simultaneous performance of two or more tasks by one individual

233
Q
The principles of honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct that govern an individual or group
are? (2.01)
a. Professionalism
b. Integrity
c. Ethics
d. Duty
A

c. Ethics

234
Q

The following are considered unethical acts except: (2.02)

a. Dishonesty
b. Giving false or slanted testimony
c. Gambling
d. Discrimination

A

c. Gambling

235
Q

TDD is an abbreviation for _________________. (3.03)

a. Telecommunications Device for the Disabled
b. Telephone Device for Deaf
c. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf
d. Telephone Device for the Disabled

A

c. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf

236
Q

A person with good interpersonal skills is more valuable and productive to the agency and the:

(4. 02)
a. Public
b. Boss
c. County commission
d. Attorneys

A

a. Public

237
Q

___ ________ help sort between incident types, classification, and prioritization, making it easier
for the dispatcher to identify emergency versus routine incidents. (5.01)
a. FEMA Leaders
b. CAD programs
c. Fire fighters
d. 911 phones

A

b. CAD programs

238
Q

______ may sometimes be pertinent to the response as it could affect responder safety. (6.01)

a. Quotes
b. Guesses
c. Music
d. Transfers

A

a. Quotes

239
Q

Notification techniques for the various alert programs include all but: (8.11)

a. Dynamic message signs
b. Gas pumps
c. Mass notification systems
d. U.S. Mail

A

d. U.S. Mail

240
Q

It is imperative to remain calm and manage the situation, not the: (4.01)

a. Supervisor
b. EMT
c. Personality
d. Emotions

A

c. Personality

241
Q

A situation that does not require immediate response: (5.04)

a. Non-emergency incident
b. Non-priority incident
c. Emergency Incident
d. Priority Incident

A

a. Non-emergency incident

242
Q

The three phases of a barricaded subject are: (8.07)

a) Initial, negotiation, termination
b) Initial, containment, termination
c) Observation, containment, termination
d) Fantasy, containment, termination

A

c) Observation, containment, termination

243
Q

Deliberately doing harm to oneself that results in injury or the potential for injury or death: (8.07)

a. Suicide attempt
b. Battery
c. Suicide threat
d. Assault

A

a. Suicide attempt

244
Q

PST’s need to be aware of officer safety issues _____________. (8.09)

a. When not on break
b. Listed in the guide
c. At every scene
d. When several subjects are involved

A

c. At every scene

245
Q

A ____ digit numbering system was established to identify hazardous materials. (10.09)

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

A

b. 4

246
Q

The five major functional areas to facilitate activities in a typical Incident Command System (ICS)
structure are: (11.03)
a) Command, Orientation, Preparedness, Logistics, Finance/Administration
b) Command, Operations, Provision, Logistics, Finance/Administration
c) Command, Orientation, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration
d) Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration

A

d) Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration

247
Q

All of the following are indicators of behavior stress except: (12.03)

a. Changes in ordinary behavior patterns
b. Changes in eating
c. Questioning
d. Decreased personal hygiene

A

c. Questioning

248
Q

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is an agency of: (11.01)

a. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
b. The Division of Emergency Management (DEM)
c. The Department of Homeland Security
d. The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

A

c. The Department of Homeland Security

249
Q

All of the following are duties of law enforcement except: (8.02)

a. Stabilize dangerous situations
b. Discipline children
c. Investigate and document incidents and crime
d. Enforce court orders

A

b. Discipline children

250
Q

All of the following are a responsibility of an EMT and Paramedic except: (9.04)

a. Administer emergency care
b. Assess the nature and condition of the patient’s injuries
c. Deliver prescription medications
d. Respond to fire, chemical and medical emergencies

A

c. Deliver prescription medications

251
Q

A status called by incident command when the situation is no longer escalating: (10.01)

a. Primary search
b. Under control
c. Fire out
d. All clear

A

b. Under control

252
Q

All of the following are a typical location in the community where hazardous materials are stored,
transported, used or disposed except: (10.08)
a. Airports
b. Power plants
c. Trains
d. Classrooms

A

d. Classrooms

253
Q
Florida gives the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the responsibility of maintaining a statewide emergency
management program. (11.01)
a) Division of Emergency Management
b) Division of Environmental Management
c) Division of Emergency Protection
d) Division of Environmental Protection
A

a) Division of Emergency Management

254
Q

A unique stressor to the telecommunicator is: (12.02)

a. Being yelled at by callers
b. Co-workers bickering
c. They take on others’ problems
d. Uncomfortable chairs

A

c. They take on others’ problems

255
Q

A call that “just occurred” is: (5.04)

a. An event that is currently taking place and requires an immediate response
b. The event has been committed and there is no immediate threat to life or property
c. An incident that has already occurred and is over
d. An incident that will always require a report

A

b. The event has been committed and there is no immediate threat to life or property

256
Q

A non-invasive level of emergency medical care provided by emergency medical technicians (EMT)
and paramedics used to treat patients with illness and injury: (9.03)
a. Advanced Life Support
b. Mass Casualty Incident
c. Intravenous infusion
d. Basic Life Support

A

d. Basic Life Support

257
Q

All of the following are fire emergency calls except: (10.03)

a. Structure Fires
b. Fire Alarms
c. Train incidents
d. Diabetic episode

A

d. Diabetic episode

258
Q

A subset of terrorism in which terrorist groups participate directly in the cultivation, manufacture,
transportation, or distribution of controlled substances and monies derived from these activities
(11.02)
a. Cyberterrorism
b. State terrorism
c. Nuclear terrorism
d. Narcoterrorism

A

d. Narcoterrorism

259
Q

The five phases of an active shooter are: (8.07)

a. Fantasy, planning, preparation, approach, implementation
b. Initial, preparation, negotiation, planning, termination
c. Observation, preparation, planning, approach, termination
d. Observation, preparation, containment, approach, termination

A

a. Fantasy, planning, preparation, approach, implementation

260
Q

An unexpected situation which may cause injury, loss of life, or damage to property: (10.05)

a. Emergency
b. Non-Emergency
c. Public assist
d. Unknown incident

A

a. Emergency

261
Q

Which of these is not one of the five types of normal stress reactions? (12.03)

a. Cognitive
b. Emotional
c. Physical
d. Stressor

A

d. Stressor

262
Q

The three phases of a hostage situation are: (8.07)

a. Planning, preparation, approach
b. Observation, containment, termination
c. Initial, negotiation, termination
d. Fantasy, planning, approach

A

c. Initial, negotiation, termination

263
Q

The Detroit Police Department used the first one-way radio communications in 1928. (1.01)

a. True
b. False

A

A. True

264
Q

A primary PSAP directly receives 911 calls. (1.02)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

265
Q

Bunker gear is a location away from the scene where units wait for their assigned position. (10.01)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

266
Q

For the PST, civil or criminal liability may come about as the result of misconduct or negligence of

duty. (2.04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

267
Q

CHEMTREC is a 24/7/365 emergency call center that provides immediate information and
assistance to anyone involved in a chemical or hazardous material incident around the globe.
(10.09)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

268
Q

PST’s are permitted to use personal data and case information for personal reasons. (2.04)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

269
Q

The telecommunicator’s role in firefighting is limited to relaying pertinent information. (10.10)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

270
Q

Criminal liability cannot result in imprisonment. (2.04)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

271
Q

Next Generation 911 (NG911) allows communication through text, pictures, and video. (1.02)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

272
Q

The Telecommunicator should follow the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) for a particular
substance based on the placard number. (10.09)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

273
Q

FCIC is based in Clarksburg, West Virginia. (3.09)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

274
Q

NLETS is a computerized high speed message switching system created for and dedicated to the
criminal justice community. (3.09)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

275
Q

CVA - Cerebrovascular Accident – is also known as a laceration. (9.01)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

276
Q

AMBER Alerts are investigative tools to help locate missing elderly persons. (8.11)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

277
Q

The number of people involved in an incident is a scene safety issue for both primary and
secondary response units. (10.01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

278
Q

As a public servant, a PST is held to a higher standard of professionalism. (1.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

279
Q

Domestic terrorism is defined as terrorism practiced in one’s own country against foreigners.

(11. 02)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

280
Q

The PST should have ability to anticipate problems and be prepared with possible solutions. (4.05)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

281
Q

Assault is any actual and intentional touching and striking of another person against that person’s
will, or the intentional causing of bodily harm to another person. (8.01)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

282
Q

When giving instructions, the PST, should keep instructions concise, clear, direct, and appropriate.

(4. 08)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

283
Q

PST’s may be subject to severe penalties such as civil liability and criminal prosecution for violation
of public information laws. (2.04)
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

284
Q

When asking a caller “When” an incident occurred, the response will be either in progress or past

event. (6.01)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

285
Q

A multi-casualty incident is defined as an incident where the number and severity of casualties
exceeds the capability of the responders’ initial resources. (9.06)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

286
Q

When prioritizing a fire service related call, a threat to property is a factor taken into

consideration. (5.04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

287
Q

When completing forms, logs and files, it is acceptable to use acronyms or non-standard
abbreviations frequently. (6.04)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

288
Q

Proper eating habits and performing desk exercises are methods to reduce and/or manage stress.

(12. 05)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

289
Q

Trespass is a written order issued by authority of the state and commanding the seizure of the
person named. (8.01)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

290
Q

According to the Florida “Public Records Law”, records made or received by any public agency in
the course of official business are only required to be made available to the public when they have
lost their usefulness to the agency. (2.07)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

291
Q

Providing legal advice can attach liability to the PST and/or the employing agency. (8.05)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

292
Q

Paramedics provide advanced life support to victims. Skills include all of those of an EMT as well
as invasive procedures (9.04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

293
Q

Specialty rescues may be necessary for a person entrapped, building collapses, and other
incidents requiring specialized, technical personnel and equipment. (5.03)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

294
Q

A robbery is unlawfully entering a dwelling, structure, or conveyance with the intent to commit
an offense inside. (5.03)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

295
Q

Hazardous material in various forms can cause death or serious injury to humans and animals, or
harm the environment or property. (10.07)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

296
Q

Location is the single most important piece of information to obtain when handling a crisis call for

service. (8.08)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

297
Q

Only the FAA can require or enforce changes for the grounding of an aircraft. (11.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

298
Q

Stress is only caused by emotional factors that cause bodily or mental tension. (12.01)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

299
Q

PST’s should always keep in mind responder, citizen, and scene safety as well as patient care.

(8. 08)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

300
Q

It is important to receive a typed copy of a deposition. (2.09)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

301
Q

_____ is the central repository for all criminal records, criminal histories, and hot file records
throughout the state and is responsible for delivering the FCIC records information to respective
states. (3.09)
a. FCIC
b. FDLE
c. NCIC
d. FEMA

A

b. FDLE

302
Q

A specialty vehicle used exclusively for aircraft firefighting: (10.04)

a. ARFF
b. Engine
c. Platform
d. Brush Truck

A

a. ARFF

303
Q

The acronym FEMA stand for: (11.01)

a. Florida Emergency Management Agency
b. Federal Emergency Managers Association
c. First Emergency Management Action
d. Federal Emergency Management Agency

A

d. Federal Emergency Management Agency

304
Q

PST’s must be able to respect different cultures and backgrounds. (4.11)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

305
Q

The following incidents would qualify as an MCI (Mass Casualty Incident) except: (9.06)

a. Vicious dog mauling
b. Terrorist attacks
c. Mass shootings
d. Vehicle crashes with numerous patients

A

a. Vicious dog mauling

306
Q

Terrorism used to seek to form self-determination which may range from gaining greater
autonomy to establishing a completely independent sovereign state. They consider themselves
freedom fighters; (11.02)
a. Independence Terrorism
b. State Terrorism
c. Home Grown Terrorism
d. Nationalist Terrorism

A

d. Nationalist Terrorism

307
Q

Florida’s Public Records Law: (2.07)

a. Chapter 23, F.S.
b. HIPPA
c. Freedom of Information Act
d. Chapter 119, F.S.

A

d. Chapter 119, F.S.

308
Q

_________________ is an armed person who has or intends to use any type of weapon to inflict
deadly physical force on others and continues to do so while having unrestricted access to
additional victims. (8.07)
a. Barricaded subject
b. Hostage Taker
c. Active Shooter
d. Active Aggressor

A

c. Active Shooter

309
Q

Certain vehicles are equipped with emergency notification features. These features are activated
and monitored by subscription to companies. When these services are activated, the request is
routed through a: (3.06)
a. Transitional Call Canter (TCC)
b. PSAP
c. Telematic Call Center (TCC)
d. 911 system

A

c. Telematic Call Center (TCC)

310
Q

TERT stands for: (11.04)

a. Telecommunicator Emergency Response Taskforce
b. Telecommunications Emergency Response Team
c. Telecommunicator Emergency Response Team
d. Transitional Emergency Response Team

A

a. Telecommunicator Emergency Response Taskforce

311
Q

Which of the following is not an example of reasons citizens may request police assistance? (8.03)

a. Protection
b. Report a crime
c. Seek legal guidance
d. Report an in progress fire

A

d. Report an in progress fire

312
Q

Anyone whose whereabouts is unknown regardless of the circumstances of the disappearance

(8. 07)
a. Endangered Person
b. Missing Person
c. Homeless Person
d. Attempt to Locate Person

A

b. Missing Person

313
Q

Personnel, consoles, computers with CAD software, radio systems, phone system, monitoring
equipment, recording equipment and more are typical components of: (3.01)
a. Police stations
b. Sheriff’s office
c. Communications centers
d. Fire departments

A

c. Communications centers

314
Q

PST’s should be ready to begin their shift: (1.05)

a. As soon as possible after they clock in
b. As close as possible to their start time
c. As soon as they get their equipment together
d. At the appointed start time

A

d. At the appointed start time

315
Q

A method used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of a traumatic injury and
determine the need to transport to a designated / verified trauma center. (9.08)
a. Trauma Code Criteria
b. Trauma Alert Criteria
c. Trauma Declaration Criteria
d. Trauma Call Criteria

A

b. Trauma Alert Criteria

316
Q

Unlawfully entering a dwelling, structure or conveyance with the intent to commit an offense

inside. (5.03)
a. Robbery
b. Larceny
c. Burglary
d. Theft

A

c. Burglary

317
Q

When giving instructions you should: (4.08)

a. Provide all steps at once so nothing is left uncovered
b. Provide a sequential, step by step process
c. Speak very slowly because accuracy is very important
d. Speak as quickly as possible because speed is very important

A

b. Provide a sequential, step by step process

318
Q

An All Clear is declared when: (10.01)

a. The last truck leaves the scene
b. The last truck arrives on the scene
c. There are no more occupants or victims
d. The primary search is complete

A

c. There are no more occupants or victims

319
Q
Emergency Management is responsible to plan, organize, and direct the activities and operations
or emergency services regarding: (11.01)
a. Manmade disasters
b. Natural or manmade disasters
c. FEMA incidents
d. Telephone incidents
A

b. Natural or manmade disasters

320
Q

The Florida Division of Emergency Management (DEM) must work with all of the following except:

(11. 01)
a. Other state agencies
b. Federal government
c. County governments
d. Foreign governments

A

d. Foreign governments

321
Q
A quarrel within a family or between members of the same household, which may or may not
include violence. (8.01)
a. International dispute
b. Civil dispute
c. Low priority call
d. Domestic dispute
A

d. Domestic dispute

322
Q

A written order issued by authority of the state and commanding the seizure of the person

named. (8.01)
a. Writ
b. Warrant
c. Restraining Order
d. Habeas Corpus

A

b. Warrant

323
Q

The most vital information, to be obtained first is: (6.01)

a. When
b. What
c. Where
d. Weapons

A

c. Where

324
Q

A mobile water source: (10.04)

a. Tanker
b. Delivery apparatus
c. Liquid conveyance
d. Supply truck

A

a. Tanker

325
Q

Responsibilities of TERT members include all but: (11.04)

a. Having credit cards handy
b. Flexibility with work schedules
c. Adaptability in working with unfamiliar equipment
d. Preparation for deployment

A

a. Having credit cards handy

326
Q

A rapid, thorough search to locate victims before or during the fire suppression operation: (10.01)

a. Secondary search
b. Cursory search
c. Primary search
d. Victim search

A

c. Primary search

327
Q

A portable device which has the ability to analyze the heart rhythm and deliver an electrical shock
(when necessary) to restore the heart to a normal rhythm: (9.01)
a. Automatic External Defibrillator
b. Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation
c. Electrocardiogram
d. Echocardiogram

A

a. Automatic External Defibrillator

328
Q

Which of the following is not a stressor unique to the PST’s environment? (12.02)

a. They take on others’ problems
b. No one understands what he or she does for a living
c. No one has heard what he or she has heard
d. Cortisol dump

A

d. Cortisol dump

329
Q

A 24/7 clearinghouse which holds and shares information with local, state, and federal entities.

(11. 06)
a. County Emergency Operations Center
b. FEMA
c. State Watch

A

c. State Watch

330
Q

Which one of the following is an act that will negatively affect the role of a PST? (2.03)

a. Staying out after midnight
b. Untruthfulness
c. Great customer service
d. Working overtime

A

B. Untruthfulness

331
Q

Disasters caused by one or more, deliberate or negligent actions of a person: (11.02)

a. Manmade disasters
b. Natural disasters
c. Terrorism
d. Criminal activity

A

a. Manmade disasters

332
Q

All of the below examples are considered fire emergency calls except: (10.03)

a. Trash/dumpster fires
b. Transportation crashes
c. Public assist
d. Mutual aid

A

c. Public assist

333
Q

Examples of public records include all but which one of the following? (2.07)

a. 911 call recordings
b. CAD records
c. Agency pay scale
d. Victims of domestic violence

A

d. Victims of domestic violence

334
Q

Terrorism practiced in a foreign country by terrorists who are not native to that country is called:

(11. 02)
a. Internal terrorism
b. Interdependent terrorism
c. International terrorism
d. Internet terrorism

A

c. International terrorism

335
Q
A criminal offense that is punishable by a term of imprisonment in a county correctional facility
not in excess of one year. (8.01)
a. Felony
b. Misdemeanor
c. Petty crime
d. Major crime
A

b. Misdemeanor

336
Q

_____ is a subcomponent of NIMS and is used by all levels of government: (11.03)

a. Incident Command System (ICS)
b. National Response Framework (NRF)
c. FEMA
d. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

A

a. Incident Command System (ICS)

337
Q
Changes in the brain’s electrical activity that can cause dramatic, noticeable symptoms or even
no symptoms at all. (9.01)
a. Defibrillation
b. Spasm
c. Seizure
d. Tic
A

c. Seizure

338
Q

A favor or advantage granted or expected in return for something else. (2.02)

a) Nolle Prosequi
b) Quid Pro Quo
c) Mojo
d) Carpe Diem

A

b) Quid Pro Quo

339
Q

Apparatus that is able to reach fires or situations in multiple story buildings when they are unable
to be reached by the ground crews. (10.04)
a. Platforms/Ladders
b. Air truck
c. Brush truck
d. Fire boat

A

a. Platforms/Ladders

340
Q
The failure to do that which a PST has a directed or moral obligation to do; careless or reckless
performance of one’s duties. (2.03)
a. Untruthfulness
b. Discrimination
c. Negligence of duty
d. Poor interpersonal skills
A

c. Negligence of duty

341
Q

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is an agency of: (11.01)

a. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
b. The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
c. The Division of Emergency Management (DEM)
d. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

A

d. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

342
Q

An excessive and/or dangerous dose of a drug, whether intentional or accidental. (9.01)

a. Suicide attempt
b. Ingestion
c. Overdose
d. Drug abuse

A

c. Overdose

343
Q

When a fire is declared “Under Control” it is considered: (10.01)

a. Extinguished
b. No longer escalating
c. Minor
d. Not lethal

A

b. No longer escalating

344
Q

The unlawful killing of a human being: (8.01)

a. Manslaughter
b. Homicide
c. Wrongful death
d. Killing

A

b. Homicide

345
Q

The skill, good judgment, and respectful behavior that is expected from a person who is trained
to do a job well; a person who keeps their word, demonstrates loyalty, and exceed expectations.
(2.01)
a. Ethics
b. Community standards
c. Professionalism
d. Courtesy

A

c. Professionalism

346
Q

The ___________ is usually the first point of contact for citizens: (1.03)

a. Dispatcher
b. Supervisor
c. Operator
d. Call taker

A

d. Call taker

347
Q

Crying, numbness, mad/sad/scared, elation at survival, agitation, irritability, feeling
overwhelmed, anxiety/depression, flat affect, panic are indicators of what type of stress? (12.03)
a. Mental
b. Physical
c. Behavioral
d. Emotional

A

d. Emotional

348
Q
States that use force or the threat of force without declaring war to terrorize citizens and achieve
a political goal: (11.02)
a. National terrorism
b. Federal terrorism
c. State terrorism
d. Domestic terrorism
A

c. State terrorism

349
Q

Level of Consciousness (LOC): (9.01)

a. The measure of a person’s responsiveness to stimuli and arousability
b. Rescue breathing
c. Internal stimulus
d. The measure of a person’s blood pressure (BP) and heart rate

A

a. The measure of a person’s responsiveness to stimuli and arousability

350
Q

HIPAA does not prevent PST’s from relaying patient information to: (2.05)

a. Curious callers
b. The parents of a patient
c. Responding units
d. The media

A

c. Responding units

351
Q

GA, SK, Q, and SKSK are all abbreviations used to communicate using TDD equipment. (3.05)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

352
Q

The Incident Command System (ICS) is used by all levels of government (federal, state, tribal, and

local) , but never by non-governmental organizations and the private sector. (11.03)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

353
Q

PST’s do not need to know the agency’s geographical area as well as the agencies surrounding
their boundaries in case they are needed for assistance. (6.06)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

354
Q

Several laws, policies, and confidentiality agreements bind PST’s and agencies to protect data.

(2. 04)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

355
Q

Most ___________ have a computer interface. They display all available talk groups and channels.

(3. 07)
a. Mobile radios
b. Radio consoles
c. Portable radios
d. Vacuum tube radios

A

b. Radio consoles

356
Q

PST’s are accountable for their actions, both on and off duty. (1.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

357
Q

PST’s must be careful not to control the caller and let them give the information in their own

words. (6.01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

358
Q

A current event call (also known as a delayed call) is an incident that has already occurred and is

over. (5.04)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

359
Q

When dealing with other agencies and the public, PST’s must use industry jargon, codes, and

abbreviations. (4.01)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

360
Q

Telematic Call Centers make contact with the appropriate PSAP to provide any available
information and may conference the caller with the PST. (3.06)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

361
Q

The type of response is agency specific, based on the nature of the incident. (7.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

362
Q

Landfills are typical locations for the disposal of hazardous materials. (10.08)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

363
Q

You should NEVER ask a suicidal caller if they are suicidal. (8.08)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

364
Q

Recorded public safety radio transmissions are considered public records in Florida. (2.07)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

365
Q

Forms and logs no longer have to be completed rapidly and accurately. (6.04)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

366
Q

Mutual aid agreements allow emergency responders to reach across jurisdictional boundaries to
supplement the requesting agency’s resources. (6.06)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

367
Q

A deposition is a sworn statement and is part of a case’s official records. (2.09)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

368
Q

FEMA provides funding for housing, medical assistance, funerals, fuels (heat source), items for
clean-up, vehicle repair and moving/storage expenses. (11.01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

369
Q

In addition to the HIPAA law and CJIS security policy, agency protocols may also dictate which
information can or cannot be disseminated. (2.06)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

370
Q

NCIC maintains information on stolen and recovered property as well as wanted and missing
persons for all 50 U.S. states, and other U.S. territories only. (3.09)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

371
Q

Some acts that are considered professionally unethical include: Quid Pro Quo, misuse of
confidential or privileged information, failure to act, and willful neglect of duty. (2.02)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

372
Q

Signals, codes, and other terminology provide ways of classifying incidents. (5.03)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

373
Q

Forms and logs are official records which must be rapidly and accurately completed. (6.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

374
Q

For the PST, civil but not criminal liability may come about as the result of misconduct or
negligence of duty. (2.04)
a. True
For the PST, civil but not criminal liability may come about as the result of misconduct or
negligence of duty. (2.04)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

375
Q

Handheld radios (also known as portable radios), are typically housed inside responders’ vehicles
with mounted antennas. (3.07)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

376
Q

SLERS is radio system maintained by the State of Florida for use by participating public safety

agencies. (3.08)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

377
Q

CAD documentation is a type of log. (6.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

378
Q

Digital radios allow for radio interoperability. (1.02)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

379
Q

A barricaded subject is someone that has blocked themselves in an area. (8.07)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

380
Q

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) is one of the associations that help members be
accountable for their actions and demonstrate career achievements. (1.08)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

381
Q

In fire services, “Situational Awareness” refers to a roll call of all units assigned to an incident,
usually done with incident command. (10.01)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

382
Q

Only the FAA (Federal Aviation Administration) can require or enforce changes for the grounding
of aircraft. (11.01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

383
Q

In the communications center, the PST can assume that most conversations will not be recorded.

(2. 08)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

384
Q

Agencies should train PST’s to avoid personal and professional liability during the course of their

career. (8.05)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

385
Q

Fire emergency: An event which may not require immediate response. (10.05)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

386
Q

Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD) software is an electronic database that provides the PST with call
information, response unit availability, and other resources. (3.02)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

387
Q

Criminal mischief (vandalism) is destroying or damaging public or private property maliciously.

(8. 01)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

388
Q

The base station is the main radio system of the agency that is installed in a fixed location. (3.07)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

389
Q

Part of the criteria for an AMBER Alert is the victim must be 18 years of age or older. (8.11)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

390
Q

AMBER Alerts are named in honor of Amber Hagerman. (8.11)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

391
Q

Law calls can be classified as in progress, just occurred, or past event. (5.04)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

392
Q

PST’s do not need to know the agencies surrounding their boundaries as they are only responsible
for what happens in their jurisdiction. (6.06)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

393
Q

PST’s can give legal advice as long as it is correct and based on current law. (8.05)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

394
Q

Hypothermia is a state of abnormally high internal body temperature. (9.01)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

395
Q

TDD is a device giving people the ability to type a conversation instead of speaking. (3.05)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

396
Q

A Public Information Officer is known as a PIO. (2.08)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

397
Q

The HIPAA federal law protects criminals from having their criminal histories released. (2.05)

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

398
Q

The medical term for fainting is syncope. (9.01)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

399
Q

The CHEMTREC book is used by emergency responders who may be the first to arrive at the scene
of a transportation incident involving a hazardous material. (10.09)
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

400
Q

The ICS (Incident Command System) is a systematic tool used in the command, control, and
coordination of emergency response. (11.03)
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

401
Q

LOC is an acronym for level or loss of consciousness.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

402
Q

GIS is an acronym for:

a. Geographic Information System
b. Graphical Information System
c. Geographic Evaluation System
d. Geographic Information Structure

A

a. Geographic Information System

403
Q
Who will contact area hospitals for availability during a MCI?
a. Command
b. Rescue on Scene
c. PST
d Resource Officer
A

c. PST

404
Q

A public assist is any non-fire incident, such as animal rescues or patient assists.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

405
Q

Initial observations and evaluations from the first responding units:

a. Scene Size-up
b. Scene Safety
c. Primary Search
d. Situational Awareness

A

a. Scene Size-up

406
Q
A uniform measurement of each PST’s word product when compared to the goals and
requirements set by the agency.
a. Presentation Standards
b. Operational Standards
c. Performance Standards
d. Execution Standards
A

c. Performance Standards

407
Q

Robbery is an intentional and unlawful taking of property from a person without force.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

408
Q
The incident time will be initiated by the PST and the incident commander will respond with a
status update:
a. Incident Command Time/Benchmark
b. Interval Benchmark
c. Incident Command Intervals
d. Incident Control Time
A

a. Incident Command Time/Benchmark

409
Q

Ethics is the skill, good judgement, and respectful behavior that is expected from a person who is
trained to do a job well.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

410
Q

Falls greater than ten feet can meet trauma criteria.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

411
Q

Emergency medical care provided by paramedics that involve invasive procedures is known as:

a. Advanced Life Support (ALS)
b. Basic Life Support (BLS)
c. Trauma Support
d. Medical Support

A

a. Advanced Life Support (ALS)

412
Q

Criminal Liability is the willful, neglect, or reckless violation of criminal law or statute which can
result in sanctions in the form of imprisonment.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

413
Q

The acronym for intoxication from the ethyl alcohol is:

a. IFEA
b. ETOA
c. ETAH
d. ETOH

A

d. ETOH

414
Q
Being aware of one’s surroundings, potential exposures, scene safety, and the well-being of the
team.
a. Situational awareness
b. Surrounding Awareness
c. Exposure Awareness
d. Scene Awareness
A

a. Situational awareness

415
Q

HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Providers and Accountability Act.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

416
Q

ATL is an acronym for:

a. Attempt to leave
b. Advise to land
c. Attempt to locate
d. Advise to locate

A

c. Attempt to locate

417
Q

A felony is a serious crime punishable by death or imprisonment in a state penitentiary or in
correctional facilities for a year or more.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

418
Q

The PST has a role in recognizing suspicious situations.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

419
Q

PSTs must be sensitive to the different cultures, backgrounds, generations, and global

perspectives. PSTs must be able to:
a. Speak multiple languages
b. Respect lifestyles and generational differences
c. Make cultural references
d. Recognize critics of public safety agencies

A

b. Respect lifestyles and generational differences

420
Q

PSTs must focus on one task at a time.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

421
Q
Not dispatching calls in a timely manner or abandoning calls is considered:
a. Professionally unethical
B. To occur frequently in a busy PSAP
C. Dishonest
D. Discourteousness
A

a. Professionally unethical

422
Q

The ability to simultaneously perform two or more tasks by one individual is known as:

a. Multi-functional agility
b. High performance ability
c. Multi-functional dexterity
d. Multi-performance ability

A

c. Multi-functional dexterity

423
Q

The internet and social media are resources used in a PSAP.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

424
Q

A favor or advantage granted or expected in return for something else:

a. Quid Pro Quo
b. Favoritism
c. Preferential Treatment
c. Nepotism

A

a. Quid Pro Quo

425
Q

PSTs must be able to write, type, listen, and talk at the same time with accuracy.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

426
Q

The 24/7 clearinghouse which holds and shares information with local, state and federal entities
is known as:
a. Public Administration
b. State Watch Office/State Warning Point
c. EOC
d. OEM

A

b. State Watch Office/State Warning Point

427
Q

A Silver Alert contains a subject and/or vehicle description of persons that
may pose a serious threat to the public after an officer has been seriously
injured, killed/ or goes missing in the line of duty.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

428
Q

A rescue is a unit used to respond and/or transport for medical emergencies.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

429
Q

The NIMS is a systematic tool used in the command, control, and coordination of
emergency response.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

430
Q

Which non-emergency incident does not require an immediate response?

a. Public assist
b. Fire alarm
c. Extrications
d. Fire related incidents

A

a. Public assist

431
Q

Telecommunicators experience stress, including both physical and psychological.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

432
Q
ANI is an acronym for:
A. Automated Number Identifier
B. Automated Number Identification
C. Automatic Number Identifier
D. Automatic Number Identification
A

D. Automatic Number Identification

433
Q

It is important for the PST to extract all pertinent information from the caller quickly and
accurately. PSTs gather information using the 6 Ws. The 6 Ws include:
A. Who, what, when, where, why, and weapons
B. Who/ what, when/ where, would, and weapons
C. Who, what, when, where, will/ and weapons
D. Who, want, when, where, why, and weapons

A

A. Who, what, when, where, why, and weapons

434
Q

The use of music, art or other creative expressions are examples of personal stress management.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

435
Q

Right side of a structure as established by incident command:

a. Alpha
b. Bravo
c. Charlie
d. Delta

A

d. Delta

436
Q

Terrorism is the unlawful use of threatened use or force or violence by a person or an organized
group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or
governments often for ideological or political reasons.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

437
Q

Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD) software is an electronic database that provides the PST with:

a. Response unit availability
b. A method to transmit information while reducing background noise
c. A Records Management System, allowing agencies to recall historical information
d. A and C

A

d. A and C

438
Q
An agreement that allows agency's to provide resources into another agency's jurisdiction is
known as a:
a. Mutual Aid Agreement
b. Jurisdiction Agreement
c. Geographical Agreement
d. Resource Agreement
A

a. Mutual Aid Agreement

439
Q

DAVID is an acronym for:

a. Driver and Vin Information Database
b. Driver and Vehicle Information Database
c. Data and Vehicle Information Database
d. Driver and Vehicle Information Documents

A

b. Driver and Vehicle Information Database

440
Q

The PST has access to local, county, state and federal resources.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

441
Q
The most important information to obtain from the caller during a crisis situation is:
A. Location information
B. Hostage information
C. Description information
D. Weapon information
A

A. Location information

442
Q

FDLE is the central repository for all criminal records, criminal histories, and hot file records
throughout the state and is responsible for delivering the FCIC records information to respective
states.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

443
Q

EDICS is an acronym for:

a. Emergency Dependable Interoperable Communications System
b. Emergency Deployable Interoperable Communications System
c. Emergency Deployable Interface Communications System
d. Emergency Deployable Interoperable Communications Site

A

b. Emergency Deployable Interoperable Communications System

444
Q
A criminal offense that is punishable by a term of imprisonment in a county correctional facility
not in excess of one year:
a. Misdemeanor
b. Felony
c. Petty Crime
d. Minor Offense
A

a. Misdemeanor

445
Q

Non-verbal Communication skills include:
a. Use open and close ended questions appropriately
b. Asking clarifying questions when needed
c. Relying on facts rather than assumptions
d. Physically signaling that you are listening, such as leaning forward, nodding, and
smiling, and maintaining eye contact

A

d. Physically signaling that you are listening, such as leaning forward, nodding, and
smiling, and maintaining eye contact

446
Q

It is the PST’s responsibility to send additional field resources to secure a landing zone during a
trauma incident.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

447
Q

Providing a sequential step by step process is a key component to giving instructions.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

448
Q
The failure to do that which a PST has a directed or moral obligation to do; careless or reckless
performance of one's duties:
a. Negligence of duty
b. Failure to act
c. Felony
d. Disregard
A

a. Negligence of duty

449
Q

FCIC is located in:

a. West Virginia
b. Jacksonville, Florida
c. Tallahassee, Florida
d. Washington D.C

A

c. Tallahassee, Florida

450
Q

Hypotension is high blood pressure.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

451
Q

In 1928, which Police Department used the first one-way radio communications?

a. Metro-Dade
b. Boston
c. New York
d. Detroit

A

d. Detroit

452
Q
Apparatus that is able to reach fires or situations in multiple story buildings when they are unable
to be reached by the ground crews:
a. Engine
b. Platforms/ladders
c. Quint/Aerial
d. Brush Truck
A

b. Platforms/ladders

453
Q

A permitted burn, usually vegetation is an illegal bum.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

454
Q

Written order issued by authority of the state and commanding the seizure of the person named:

a. Writ of bodily Attachment
b. Search Warrant
c. Violation
d. Warrant

A

d. Warrant

455
Q

Shooting and stabbing are examples of incident types which would require a
response the EMS agency only.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

456
Q
A technique which utilizes rescue breathing and chest compressions when a patient has suffered
from cardiac arrest.
a. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
b. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitators (CPR)
c. Cardiopathy Resuscitation (CPR)
d. Cardiopathy Resuscitators (CPR)
A

a. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)

457
Q

FEMA provides funding for housing, medical assistance, funerals, fuels (heat source) and items for
clean-up. It also provides funding for vehicle repair, and moving/storage, as well.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

458
Q
The fantasy phase, planning phase, preparation phase, approach phase, implementation phase
are phases used in an:
a. Active shooter situation
b. Hostage situation
c. Suicide threat
d. Abducted person situation
A

a. Active shooter situation

459
Q

EMS units respond with lights and sirens to all calls.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

460
Q

A device giving people the ability to type a conversation instead of speaking.

a. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD)
b. Teletypewriter Design for the Deaf (TDD)
c. Teletypewriter Device for the Deaf (TDD)
d. Telecommunications Design for the Deaf (TDD)

A

a. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD)

461
Q

Monitoring equipment, security cameras and headsets are typical components of communication
centers.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

462
Q

In Orange County, FL in 1980 the enhanced 911 system was established to gather more accurate
information quicker by introducing the:
a. Automatic Number Identification (ANI)
b. Automatic Location Identification (ALI)
c. Selective Routing and Transferring
d. A, B and C

A

d. A, B and C

463
Q

An all clear is when there are no additional occupants or victims.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

464
Q

Which is the terrorism used to seek to form self-determination which may range from gaining
greater autonomy to establishing a completely independent sovereign state?
a. Nationalist Terrorism
b. State Terrorism
c. Terrorism
d. Cyberterrorism

A

a. Nationalist Terrorism

465
Q

Emergency Telecommunications Centers are divided into:

a. Primary and Secondary Public Safety Answering Points (PSAP)
b. Primary (PSAP) only
c. Three (3) Public Safety Answering Points (PSAP)
d. Four (4) Public Safety Answering Points (PSAP)

A

a. Primary and Secondary Public Safety Answering Points (PSAP)

466
Q

SKSK is a standard abbreviations used to communicate with hearing and speech impaired callers.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

467
Q

The dispatcher’s primary role is to:
a. Process information received from a call taker and dispatch the closest most
appropriate field resource, based on the incident classification and priority
b. Maintain accuracy and brevity
c. Handle emergency radio traffic
d. Transmit pertinent information

A

a. Process information received from a call taker and dispatch the closest most
appropriate field resource, based on the incident classification and priority

468
Q

A controlled burn is an unauthorized controlled burn, usually of vegetation.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

469
Q

AVL is a standard abbreviation for:

a. Automatic Vin Locator
b. Automatic Vehicle Limitations
c. Automatic Vehicle Locator
d. Associated Vehicle Locations

A

c. Automatic Vehicle Locator

470
Q

The goals of CISM are to:

a. Mitigate the impact of a traumatic event
b. Accelerate normal recovery processes
c. Identify individuals who may need additional assistance
d. A, B and C

A

d. A, B and C

471
Q

What type of impact do employee absences have on a communications center?

a. Decreases cost
b. Lessens workload
c. Boosts Morale
d. Jeopardizes responder safety

A

d. Jeopardizes responder safety

472
Q

Some gas pumps broadcast alert information and allow customers to print details out at the
pump.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

473
Q

Basic Life Support (BLS) does not include:

a. Immobilization
b. Splinting
c. Cardiac monitoring
d. CPR

A

c. Cardiac monitoring

474
Q

Residential and commercial structure fires are similar incident classifications, however normally
require a different number of resources on dispatch.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

475
Q

To be eligible for a 911 PST renewal certification, the certificate holder must complete:

a. 10 hours of renewal training
b. 20 hours of renewal training
c. 40 hours of renewal training
d. 80 hours of renewal training

A

b. 20 hours of renewal training

476
Q

A battery is when some type of physical contact has occurred.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

477
Q

Use of which database for personal reasons if prohibited?

a. Florida Public Records Law
b. Department of Homeland Security
c. Criminal Justice Information System
d. Americans with Disabilities Act

A

c. Criminal Justice Information System

478
Q

Domestic disturbances are often considered some of the most hazardous incidents due to high
emotions and the feeling of an invasion of privacy by the presence of the officer.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

479
Q

Which of the following agencies are dispatched by the PST to a scene of an emergency?

a. Law Enforcement, Fire and EMS
b. Law Enforcement and Fire
c. Other Public Safety Agencies
d. A/ B and C

A

d. A/ B and C

480
Q

Only natural disasters must be reported to the State Warning Point.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

481
Q

To effectively communicate with the public, the PSTs should use:

a. Plain Language
b. Medical Terminology
c. Industry Related Terms
d. Acronyms

A

a. Plain Language

482
Q

Bad stress is defined as:

a. Eustress
b. Distress
c. Physical
d. Psychological

A

b. Distress

483
Q

The PST contributes to responder safety by entering correct CAD notes and conducting PAR checks
as requested by command.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

484
Q

Professional customer service skills are essential in successfully navigating highly emotional

callers. Which technique can be used to help control this situation?
a. Place the caller on hold to regain your composure
b. Use the caller’s name
c. Never repeat instructions or statements
d. Transfer the caller to another PST

A

b. Use the caller’s name

485
Q
A set of radio towers and repeaters which can be transported to a scene for unified
communications in the field.
a. Mutual Aid Radio Cart
b. Mutual Assistance Radio Cart
c. Mutual Aid Radio Cache
d. Mutual Assistance Radio Cache
A

c. Mutual Aid Radio Cache

486
Q

The threat of bodily harm by a person with the apparent, present ability to carry out the threat is:

a. Assault
b. Battery
c. Domestic dispute
d. Criminal mischief

A

a. Assault

487
Q

PSTs can assume all conversations are confidential in a PSAP.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

488
Q

Complaints that involve an offense against society and can be penalized by punishment are:

a. Criminal complaints
b. Civil complaints
c. Non-punitive complaints
d. Society complaints

A

a. Criminal complaints

489
Q

Firefighters do not provide ALS and/or BLS care.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

490
Q

Roll call of all units assigned to an incident, usually done with incident command:

a. PAR
b. Scene Size-Up
c. Situational Awareness
d. Scene Safety

A

a. PAR

491
Q

Diabetic symptoms may mimic those of intoxication.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

492
Q

Property or structures in close proximity that can be damaged by smoke, heat, or flames:

a. Extrication
b. Active Flames
c. Contact
d. Exposure

A

d. Exposure

493
Q

Quality Assurance (QA) is one method used by supervisors to:
a. Begin progressive discipline
b. Regularly monitor work performance
c. Take corrective action, always including discipline
d. Regularly monitor work performance and take corrective action in the form of
training.

A

d. Regularly monitor work performance and take corrective action in the form of
training.

494
Q

ADA is an acronym for:

a. Americans with Disabilities Act
b. Adults with Disabilities Act
c. Americans with Disadvantages Act
d. Adults with Disadvantages Act

A

a. Americans with Disabilities Act

495
Q

Good interpersonal skills are not essential in establishing trust with the public and PST.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

496
Q

An emergency response can be commonly referred to as:

a. Code 2
b. Code 4
c. Hot
d. Cold

A

c. Hot

497
Q

A specialty vehicle used exclusively for aircraft firefighting:

a. Quint
b. Aircraft Rescue Firefighting Vehicle (ARFF)
c. Brush Truck
d. Platform

A

b. Aircraft Rescue Firefighting Vehicle (ARFF)

498
Q

A PST can be required to testify in court. Which guidelines are applicable in court environments?

a. Be courteous
b. Speak Clearly
c. Do not volunteer information- only answer the questions asked of you
d. A, B and C

A

D. A, B and C

499
Q

Citizens may request police assistance for crowd control.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

500
Q

SLERS is an acronym for:

a. Systemwide Law Enforcement Radio Security
b. Statewide Local Enforcement Radio System
c. Statewide Local Enforcement Radio Security
d. Statewide Law Enforcement Radio System

A

d. Statewide Law Enforcement Radio System