Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spring PNT exam 4 > Psoriasis > Flashcards

Psoriasis Flashcards

1
Q

Psoriasis co-morbidities

A 
Psoriatic arthritis
Psych
CV
IBS
MS
Lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Psoriasis precipitating factors

A 
genetics
skin trauma
cold 
stress
infection
beta-blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Psoriasis exacerbating factors

A 
lithium
NSAIDs
beta-blockers
corticosteroid withdrawal
stress
sunburn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment for psoriasis caused by keritinocyte turnover

A

vitamin D analogs

retinoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for psoriasis caused by abnormal immune response

A

BRMs and corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment for psoriasis caused by dendritic cells

A

phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is auspitz’s sign

A

small pinpoints of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mild or limited psoriasis

A

< or = 5% BSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Moderate psoriasis

A

PASI > or = 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Severe psoriasis

A

PASI > or = 10
DLQI > or = 10
BSA > or = 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

5 non-pharm treatments for psoriasis

A 
stress reduction
aviod irritants
oatmeal baths
skin protection
moisturizers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1st line for mild-moderate psoriasis

A

topical agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2nd line for mild-moderate psoriasis

A

topical agents + phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3rd line for mild-moderate psoriasis

A

topical agents + systemic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1st line for moderate-severe psoriasis

A

systemic agent (BRM if comorbidities exist) + / - topical agents or phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2nd line for moderate-severe psoriasis

A

More potent systemic or BRM + / - topical agent or phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3rd line for moderate-severe psoriasis

A

BRM (or a different BRM) +/- other agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

corticosteroids MOA

A

anti-inflammatory, antiproliferative, immunosuppressive and vasoconstrictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

corticosteroid dosing in psoriasis

A

thin layer once or twice daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

low potentcy corticosteroid

A

hydrocortisone 1% (Hytone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mid potency corticosteroid

A

betamethasone valerate 1% (betnovate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

first line corticosteroid

A

mid potentcy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

high potency corticosteroid

A

halobetasol 0.05% (ultravate)

betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% (Diprolene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

use for hydrocortisone 1%

A

face or flexures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

use for halobetasol 0.05%

A

short term only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

use for betamethasone dipropionate

A

first line in thicker plaque areas (palms and soles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

systemic ADRs of corticosteroids

A

HPA suppression
osteonecrosis
cataracts
glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

local ADRs of corticosteroids

A 
striae
skin atrophy
acne
contact dermatitis
fungal skin infections
rosacea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Corticosteroids preg Cat

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vitamin D analogs MOA

A

bind to Vit D receptors inhibit keratinocyte proliferation and enhance keratinocyte differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

vitamin D analogs dosing

A

5 mg/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

calcipotriene 0.005% brand name

A

dovonex cream, ointment, or solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

calipotriene dosing

A

AA BID up to 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

calcipotriene and betamethasone dipropionate brand name

A

taclonex cream, ointment or suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

taclonex dosing

A

AA daily up to 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

AEs of vitamin D analogs

A 
skin irritation
erythema
dryness
stinging/burning
hypercalcemia (high dose or CKD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Vitamin D analogs Preg CAt

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Time to response for vitamin D analogs

A

4-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

retinoids MOA

A

normalizes keratinocyte differentiation and has antiproliferative and antiinflammatory effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

tazarotene brand name

A

tazorac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

tazarotene dosing

A

0.05% or 1% gel or cream daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tazarotene AEs

A

skin irritation (erythema, pruritis, burning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

tazarotene preg Cat

A

X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Topical calcineurin inhibitors MOA

A

local immune modulating effects (blockage of cytokines) that normalizes hyperproliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

topical calcineurin inhibitors dosing

A

twice daily

46
Q

tacrolimus 0.03% and 0.1% brand name

A

protopic ointment

47
Q

pimecrolumus 1% brand name

A

elidel cream

48
Q

AEs of topical calcineurin inhibitors

A 
HA
fever
skin burning
pruritis
erythema
49
Q

topical calcineurin inhibitors BBW

A

malignancy

50
Q

topical calcineurin inhibitors Preg Cat

A

C

51
Q

type of light for phototherapy

A

UVA or UVB

52
Q

type of light combined with psoralens

A

UVA

53
Q

AEs of phototherapy

A 
photosensitivity 
skin irritation
cataracts
photo aging
lesional blistering
54
Q

Acitretin brand name

A

Soriatane

55
Q

acitretin dosing

A

10-50 mg once daily

56
Q

What drug is synergistic with phototherapy

A

acitretin (reduce UV by 30-50%)

57
Q

acitretin AEs

A

mucocutaneous dryness
hypervitaminosis A
hyperlipidemia
diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis

58
Q

Acitretin BBW

A

blood donation x 3 years

alcohol use x 2 months

59
Q

Acretin Preg Cat

A

X for 3 years after d/c

60
Q

Acitretin drug interactions

A

Vitamin A

Cyp metabolism

61
Q

Acitretin monitoring

A

Lipids/LFTs, preg test

62
Q

Methotrexate MOA

A

anti-inflammatory effecs due to T-cell gene expression and cytostatic effects

63
Q

Methotrexate dosing

A

2.5-5 mg /week up to 7.5-25 mg/week

64
Q

Common AEs of methotrexate

A

N/V
mucosal ulceration
HA
anemia

65
Q

Serious AEs of methotrexate

A

hepatotoxicity
pulmonary fibrosis
bone marrow suppression

66
Q

CIs to methotrexate

A

pregnancy, unreliable birth control, renal impairment, hepatitis, cirrhosis, alcoholics, leukemia, thrombocytopenia

67
Q

methotrexate pregnancy cat

A

X

68
Q

methotrexate protein binding interactions

A 
salicylates
sulfonamides
phenytoin
thiazides
cipro
69
Q

methotrexate renal excretion interactions

A

salicylates
probenacid
ascorbic acid

70
Q

Monitoring for methotrexate for no hepatic risk factors

A

liver biopsy with cumulative doses of 1.5 g

LFTs q 3 months

71
Q

hepatic risk factors for methotrexate

A 
history of EtOH> moderate
persistant abnormal LFTs 
history of liver disease
family history of liver disease
obesity 
renal insufficiency 
advanced age
hypoalbuminuria
hepatotoxic meds
72
Q

monitoring for methotrexate with hepatic risk factors

A

liver biopsy at baseline or 2-6 months
every time cumulative dose is 1-1.5 g
LFTs more frequently

73
Q

monitoring for all methotrexate

A 
CBC 7-14 days
q2-4 weeks for first few months
q1-3 months
Renal function q 2-3 months
pulmonary toxicity testing
pregnancy test
74
Q

cyclosporine MOA

A

inhibition of the production and release of IL2 and inhibits IL2 activation of resting T cells

75
Q

cyclosporine dosing

A

2-2.5 mg/kg/day PO in 2 doses
max 5 mg/kg/day
short term 12 weeks to 1 year

76
Q

AEs of cyclosporine

A 
impaired renal function
HTN
hypertriglyceridemia
hypomagnesemia
hyperuricemia
hypertrichosis
77
Q

CIs to cyclosporine

A 
abnormal renal function 
uncontrolled HTN
malignancy
prior PUVA
uncontrolled infection 
immunodeficiency - not autoimmune
78
Q

cyclosporine preg cat

A

C

79
Q

monitoring for cyclosporine

A

BP + SCr baseline, biweekly for 12 weeks, qmonth

increase of 25%+ on 2 occassions decrease dose 25-50% -> still above 10% in a month d/c

80
Q

Cyclosporine drug interactions

A

3A4 (grapefruit juice)

81
Q

alefacept brand name

A

amevive

82
Q

alefacept MOA

A

inhibits t-cell activation by targeting CD2 and inducing apoptosis of memory cells

83
Q

alefacept preg cat

A

B

84
Q

alefacept dose

A

15 mg IM QW x 12

85
Q

alefacept BBW

A

malignancy

86
Q

alefacept AEs

A 
lymphopenia
myalgias
chills
pharyngitis
cough
nausea
injection site reaction
87
Q

alefacept monitoring

A

CD4 T cell count biweekly
< 250 hold dose
<250 x 4 weeks d/c

88
Q

TNF alpha inhibitors used for psoriasis

A

etanercept
infliximab
adalimumab

89
Q

TNF alpha inhibitor MOA

A

binds and inactivates TNF alpha preventing interaction with its cell surface receptors

90
Q

BBW of TNF alpha inhibitors

A

serious infections

malignancies

91
Q

TNF inhibitors monitoring

A

PPD yearly, periodic CBC + LFTs

92
Q

Etanercept brand name

A

enbrel

93
Q

infliximab brand name

A

remicade

94
Q

adalimumab brand name

A

humira

95
Q

etanercept dosing

A

50 mg SQ twice weekly x 12 weeks

50 mg SQ qweek

96
Q

etanercept AEs

A 
injection site reaction
HA
URI
GI upset
Hep B reactivation
worsening/new onset CHF
97
Q

infliximab dosing

A

5 mg/kg IV over 2-3 hours at 0,2,6 weeks then q 8 weeks

98
Q

infliximab AEs

A 
hemolytic abnormalities
hepatotoxicity 
hypersensitivity 
ocular toxicity 
worsening/new onset CHF
99
Q

adalimumab dosing

A

80 mg SQ week 1

40 mg SQ week 2, q 2weeks

100
Q

adalimumab AEs

A

Hemolytic abnormalities

injection site reaction - pruritic urticarial rash

101
Q

ustekinumab brand name

A

stelara

102
Q

ustekinumab MOA

A

binds to and interferes with IL12 and IL13 preventing activation of t cells

103
Q

ustekinumab dosing

A

< or = 100 kg 45 mg SQ at weeks 0,4,q12 weeks

>100 kg 90 mg SQ at weeks 0,4 q 12 weeks

104
Q

AEs of ustekinumab

A 
URI
HA
tiredness
serious infections
malignancies
reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome
105
Q

secukinumab brand name

A

cosentyx

106
Q

secukinumab MOA

A

binds to and interferes with IL-17a preventing activation of t-cells

107
Q

secukinumab dosing

A

300 mg SQ weeks 0,1,2,3,4

300 mg SQ q 4 weeks

108
Q

secukinumab AEs

A

infection

URI

109
Q

apremilast brand name

A

Otezla

110
Q

apremilast MOA

A

inhibits PDE4 which results in increased cAMP and decreased inflammatory feeling (NO, TNFa, IL23, IL10)

111
Q

apremilast dosing

A

10 mg AM day 1 titrating to 30 mg BID by day 6

112
Q

apremilast AEs

A 
HA
fatigue
weight loss
diarrhea
nausea

Spring PNT exam 4 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions