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PSA revision > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of potassium correlates with 20mmols?

A

0.15%

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2
Q

What percentage of potassium correlates with 40mmol?

A

0.3%

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3
Q

How much hydrocortisone is 5mg prednisolone equivalent to?

A

20mg

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4
Q

How much dexamethasone is 5mg prednisolone equivalent to?

A

750micrograms

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5
Q

Name some stimulant laxatives?

A

Senna
Bisacodyl
Rectal glycerol suppository

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6
Q

When is bisacodyl contraindicated?

A

Bowel obstruction
Acute abdominal conditions
Acute IBD
Severe dehydration

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7
Q

Name some osmotic laxatives?

A

Lactulose
Macrogol

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8
Q

How does macrogol work?

A

Draws water in from large bowel

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9
Q

When is macrogol not recommended?

A

If patient already bloated - SE is bloating

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10
Q

What kind of laxative is docusate?

A

Softener & stimulant

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11
Q

Name some bulk forming laxatives?

A

Ispaghula husk
Methylcellulose
Sterculia

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12
Q

When are bulk forming laxatives indicated?

A

Adults with small hard stools if fibre cannot be increased in the diet.

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13
Q

What symptoms may be exacerbated with BFL?

A

Symptoms of flatulence, bloating, and cramping

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14
Q

How long do BFL take to work?

A

72hrs

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15
Q

How do you treat patients with opioid induced constipation?

A

An osmotic laxative (or docusate sodium to soften the stools) and a stimulant laxative is recommended.

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16
Q

What should be avoided in opioid induced constipation?

A

Bulk-forming laxatives

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17
Q

What does co- codamol contain?

A

Paracetamol and codeine

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18
Q

Post- op pain ladder?

A
  1. Reg paracetamol
  2. Reg codeine/ dihydrocodeine
  3. Reg/ PRN morphine sulphate (modified release)
    4.. Reg/ PRN morphine sulphate (immediate release)
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19
Q

When is fluid resuscitation used?

A

When haemodynamically unstable

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20
Q

When is replacement used?

A

Losses e.g. N&V, DKA

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21
Q

When is maintenance used?

A

Nil by mouth

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22
Q

How much water /kg per day in maintenance ?

A

25-30ml/kg/day

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23
Q

How much Na+/K+/Cl- /kg per day in maintenance ?

A

1mmol/ kg

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24
Q

How much glucose per day in maintenance ?

A

50-100g/ day

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25
Q

How many grams of glucose is in 1000ml 5% dextrose?

A

50g

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26
Q

What is the maximum rate for potassium?

A

DO NOT prescribe >10mmol per hour

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27
Q

What is the risk when using large volumes of 0.9% saline?

A

Inc risk of hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

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28
Q

When should 5% glucose be avoided and why?

A

Patients who have had a stroke
Inc risk of cerebral oedema

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29
Q

What should not be given with ibuprofen?

A

Steroids

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30
Q

Minimum & maximum doses of bisoprolol?

A

Minimum = 1.25mg
Maximum = 20mg

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31
Q

Minimum & maximum doses of atorvastatin?

A

Minimum = 10mg
Maximum = 80mg

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32
Q

Starting dose of metformin?

A

500mg

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33
Q

Drugs to consider in delirium/ acute confusion?

A

Zopiclone
Analgesics
Anticholinergics
Antidepressants
Antipsychotics
Metoclopramide
Electrolyte imbalance e.g. low Na+

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34
Q

Which drugs can cause dehydration?

A

Diuretics

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35
Q

When should metformin be withheld in renal impairment?

A

EGFR <30ml/ minute/ 1.73

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36
Q

Name some CYP450 inhibitors

A

Omeprazole
Amiodarone
SSRI’s
Grapefruit juice
Cimetidine
Macrolides

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37
Q

CYP450 inducers?

A

Carbamezapine
Barbituates
Phenytoin
Rifampicin
Pioglitazone
Steroids
Rifampicin

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38
Q

What do CYP450 inducers do?

A

Inducers increase the expression level of CYP450 enzymes resulting in increased metabolism of drugs and subsequently reducing the therapeutic concentration.

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39
Q

What do CYP450 inhibitors do?

A

Inhibitors prevent the CYP450 enzymes from working or reduce the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. Consequently, this decreases drug metabolism in the body and increases the potential for toxicity.

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40
Q

When is metaclopramide contraindicated?

A

Bowel obstruction
be causious in delirium

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41
Q

Micrograms to milligrams?

A

Divide by 1000

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42
Q

Fluids in children?

A

100ml/kg for first 10kg
50ml/kg for next 10kg
20ml/kg for weight over 20kg

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43
Q

How often is methotrexate taken?

A

Once a week

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44
Q

Methotrexate + NSAIDS –> ?

A

Low platelet count

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45
Q

Trimethoprim + methotrexate –>?

A

Bone marrow suppression

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46
Q

PPIs + methotrexate –> ?

A

Inc levels of methotrexate

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47
Q

What can a SE of furosemide be?

A

If given fast –> can cause deafness

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48
Q

Common drugs related to ototoxicity?

A

Gentamicin
Bumetanide
Furosemide
Vancomycin

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49
Q

When is furosemide more likely to be ototoxic?

A

IV administration
If patient has renal impairment

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50
Q

4 C’s for C. diff?

A

Clindamycin
Co- amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin
Cephalosporins (ceftriaxone, cefalexin)

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51
Q

Clarithromycin + simvastatin –> ?

A

increases the exposure to Simvastatin

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52
Q

Common symptoms of opioid toxicity?

A

Pinpoint pupils
Coma
Respiratory depression

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53
Q

Antidote for opioid toxicity?

A

Naloxone

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54
Q

When are pupils constricted?

A

Heroin
Morphine
Oxycodone
Methadone
Codeine
Hydrocodone

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55
Q

When are pupils dilated?

A

Amphetamines
Methamphetamines
Cocaine/ crack
Hallucinogens
Speed

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56
Q

Phenytoin + oral contraceptives?

A

Potent CYP enzyme inducer and increases breakdown of oral contraceptives

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57
Q

Treatment for drug induced extrapyramidal symptoms?

A

Procyclidine

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58
Q

Serotonin syndrome?

A

Abrupt
Rapidly resolving
Myoclonus and tremor
Inc reflexes
Mydriasis

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59
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Gradual
Prolonged
Diffuse rigidity
Dec reflexes
Hyperthermia

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60
Q

What is NMS a SE of?

A

Antipsychotics

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61
Q

Info on benzodiazepines?

A

Can affect driving/ operating machinery –> DVLA

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62
Q

Extrapyramidal symptoms?

A

E.g. tremor, involuntary muscle contractions

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63
Q

Atypical antipsychotics?

A

Quietapine, olanzapine

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64
Q

SE of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Weight gain
Diabetes
Rise in serum lipids

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65
Q

Examples of typical antipsychotics?

A

Chlorpromazine, haloperidol

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66
Q

SE’s of typical antipsychotics?

A

Acute dystonia
Akathisia
Restlessness
Tardive dyskinesia

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67
Q

Is ankle swelling related to dose of amlodipine?

A

No (don’t tend to change dose)

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68
Q

What is the risk of the quinolone ciprofloxacin?

A

Tendon rupture (achilles, elbow)

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69
Q

What increases the risk of tendon rupture if on ciprofloxacin?

A

On steroids

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70
Q

What is a SE of quinolone?

A

Prolong QT duration !!!
Reduce seizure thresholds

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71
Q

Drugs to be stopped in AKI?

A

NSAIDs
Aminoglycosides
ACEI
ARB
Diuretics

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72
Q

Function of calcium gluconate in hyperkalaemia?

A

Stabalisation of cardiac membrane

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73
Q

Function of insulin dextrose/ salbutamol in hyperkalaemia?

A

Short-term shift in potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment

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74
Q

Function of calcium resonium in hyperkalaemia?

A

Removal of potassium from body

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75
Q

When does IM not work?

A

If cachetic

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76
Q

Function of/ examples of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

E.g. dapagliflozin
Inhibits sodium- glucose co transporter in proximal tubule of nephron –> glucose secretion

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77
Q

What to be way of with SGLT2i?

A

Euglycaemic DKA’s
UTI’s

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78
Q

Normalising CO2 on ABG?

A

BAD SIGN - can no longer breath out CO2

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79
Q

Which medications may exacerbate heart failure?

A

TZD - pioglitazone
Verapamil - neg inotropic effect
NSAIDS
Glucocorticoids
Flecainide

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80
Q

Antibiotics CI in pregnancy?

A

Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Sulphonamides and trimethoprim
Quinolones

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81
Q

Drugs CI in pregnancy?

A

ACEI, ARB
Statins
Warfarin
Sulphonylurea’s
Retinoids
Cytotoxic agents

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82
Q

Weight per volume - 20%?

A

20 grams per 100mls

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83
Q

Weight per volume - 1%?

A

1 gram per 100mls

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84
Q

Weight per weight?

A

1% w/w = 1g in 100grams

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85
Q

What medications to stop for surgery?

A

ACEI
ARBs
Diuretics
Anticoagulants + antiplatelets
HRT and COCP
Lithium
NSAIDs

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86
Q

How long before surgery should COCP be stopped?

A

4 weeks before

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87
Q

Diabetic meds in surgery - which ones to stop/ alter?

A

Metformin - if OD/BD - continue, if TDS - stop lunchtime dose
SGLT-2i - omit on day of surgery
Sulphonylureas - omit morning dose

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88
Q

TZD/ DPP4i GLP-1 in surgery?

A

Take as normal

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89
Q

What can St John’s wart syndrome contribute to?

A

Serotonin syndrome

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90
Q

Cytochrome p450 inducers pneumonic?

A

SCRAP GP
Sulphonylureas
Carbamezapine
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone

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91
Q

CYP450 inhibitors pneumonic?

A

SICK FACES
Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol & grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides

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92
Q

If NBM can patients take oral drugs?

A

No, must be IV

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93
Q

Metformin important information?

A

Look for signs of lactic acidosis e.g. dyspnoea, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, hypothermia, asthenia

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94
Q

Important info - sulphonylurea?

A

Signs of hypoglycaemia
Higher risk in elderly or renal impairment

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95
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors important info?

A

Signs of DKA, even if BM normal

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96
Q

Important side effect to inform patient on - prednisolone?

A

Adrenal suppression

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97
Q

Nitrates important info?

A

Can develop rapid tolerance

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98
Q

Tamoxifen important info?

A

VTE risk - seek immediate medical attention if SOB

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99
Q

SE’s of bisphosphonates?

A

Atypical femoral fractures
Osteonecrosis of the jaw

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100
Q

Important info for all antipsychotics?

A

Photosensitisation
Drowsiness
Effects of alcohol enhanced

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101
Q

Lithium important info?

A

Report signs of toxicity
Hypothyroidism
Renal dysfunction
Benign ICH - headache, visual disturbance
Maintain fluids
Avoid dietary changes (which inc or dec sodium intake)
Avoid NSAIDs

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102
Q

Clozapine important info?

A

Risk of agranulocytosis

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103
Q

Sodium valproate important info?

A

Appropriate contraception
Exclude pregnancy

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104
Q

What to look up if contraceptives & breast cancer?

A

Sex hormones

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105
Q

Does combined HRT inc or dec risk of breast cancer?

A

Increases

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106
Q

Effect of antidepressants on sodium?

A

Hyponatraemia (consider if drowsy, confused, convulsions)

107
Q

When should lithium levels be taken after dose?

108
Q

Lithium monitoring?

A

measure levels 1 week after starting treatment, 1 week after every dose change ad then weekly until level stabilises

109
Q

Lithium monitoring when stable?

A

measure every 3 months for first year then 6 months thereafter

110
Q

Initial SE of lithium?

A

Diho, vertigo, weakness, dazed

111
Q

Long term SE of lithium?

A

Hypo/ hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, nephrotoxicity, renal tumours

112
Q

Once established - lithium monitoring?

A

Weight, U&E’s, TFTs, Ca every 6 months

113
Q

When is levonorgestrel effective?

A

within 72hrs UPSI

114
Q

When is ulipristal acetate effective?

A

Within 120 hours UPSI

115
Q

Which hormonal emergency contraceptive is most effective?

A

Ulipristal acetate

116
Q

Hormonal emergency contraception if BMI >26 or weight >70kg?

A

Ulipristal acetate
or
Double dose levonorgestrel

117
Q

Treatment of VTE in pregnancy?

A

Dalteparin

118
Q

HRT if LMP <1yr ago?

A

cyclical combined

119
Q

HRT if LMP >1 yr ago?

A

Continuous combined

120
Q

If hysterectomy for endometriosis, do they need combined or oestrogen only HRT?

A

Need combined

121
Q

When should antiviral Tx be considered in shingles?

A

Immunocompromised
Non- truncal involvement (neck, legs, perineum)
Moderate to severe pain or rash
>50 - to reduce post herpetic neuralgia

122
Q

If antivirals commenced for shingles - when?

A

Within 72hrs of rash

123
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia treatment?

A

Acute - carbamazepine

124
Q

When is digoxin toxicity worsened?

A

Hyperkalaemia

125
Q

When should digoxin levels be taken?

A

6 hrs after dose

126
Q

What monitoring is required for digoxin?

127
Q

What should be added to bloods if K+ low?

128
Q

What can an adverse effect of carbimazole be?

A

Pancreatitis
Neutropenia
Agranulocytosis

129
Q

Drugs that cause agranulocytosis?

A

Clozapine
Phenytoin
Carbimazole

130
Q

What is trough concentration?

131
Q

If trough gentamicin dose is high…?

A

Interval between doses should be increased

132
Q

What is peak concentration?

A

Post- dose

133
Q

If peak gentamicin dose high…?

A

Dose must be decreased

134
Q

What should be measured when using thiopurines

A

TPMT levels

135
Q

SE’s of amiodarone?

A

Hepatotoxicity
Thyroid (hyper/ hypo)
Corneal microdeposits
Pulmonary toxicity

136
Q

Important info for methotrexate?

A

Often stopped if acutely unwell
Counsel to report signs of blood disorders

137
Q

Rate of sodium inc in 24 hrs for hyponatraemia?

A

No more than 10mmol/L in 24 hrs

138
Q

If on PPI and hyponatraemic what should you do?

A

Switch to famotidine

139
Q

SVT arrhythmia management?

A

Vagal manouvres
IV adenosine (6-> 12 -> 18mg)
Electrical cardioversion

140
Q

When is adenosine contraindicated?

A

Asthma
COPD
decompensated heart failure
Long QT

141
Q

what medications are taken at night?

A

Statins
Amitriptylline

142
Q

how much should levothyroxine be inc in pregnancy?

143
Q

If INR ≥1.5 before surgery on warfarin?

A

Phytomenadione (vit K1)

144
Q

Who is at inc risk of bit D deficiency?

A

Asian women

145
Q

Drugs which dec serum potassium?

A

Thiazide diuretics
Loop diuretics
Acetazolamide

146
Q

Drugs which inc serum potassium?

A

ACEi
Angiotensin- 2 receptor blockers
Spironolactone
Potassium supplements
Potassium sparing diuretics

147
Q

SIADH

A

Hyponatraemia
Euvolemic

148
Q

Mechanism of action - digoxin?

A

Dec conduction through AVN which slows ventricular rate in af and atrial flutter
Inc force of cardiac muscle contraction
Stimulates vagus nerve

149
Q

When should digoxin level be measured in suspected toxicity?

A

within 8-12 hrs of last dose

150
Q

Symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A

Generally unwell
Lethargy
Nausea, vomiting
Confusion
Yellow/ green vision
Arrhythmia
Gynaecomastia

151
Q

What tends to precipitate digoxin toxicity?

A

Hypokalaemia

152
Q

Normal lithium range?

A

0.4-1.0mmol/L

153
Q

Ciclosporin drug monitoring?

A

Trough levels just before dose

154
Q

Phenytoin level monitoring?

A

Not routinely
Trough levels immediately before dose if concerned

155
Q

Codeine equivalence of 10mg oral morphine sulphate?

156
Q

Nephrotoxicity due to contrast media?

A

25% inc in creatinine occurring within 3 days of IV administration of contrast media
2-5days after

157
Q

How to prevent contrast nephrotoxicity?

A

IV 0.9% sodium chloride at rate of 1ml/kg/hour for 12 hours pre and post procedure
Withold metformin

158
Q

O2 management if risk factors for hypercapnia?

A

Prior to ABG’s –> 28% venturi mask at 4l/min

159
Q

Causes of hyperkalaemia?

A

AKI
Drugs
Metabolic acidosis
Addison’s disease
Rhabdomyolysis
Massive blood transfusion

160
Q

Glucocorticoid meds effect on glucose?

A

Can cause hyperglycaemia

161
Q

Assisted alcohol withdrawal?

A

Long- acting benzodiazepine e.g. chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride

162
Q

Common adverse effect of beta blockers?

A

Erectile dysfunction

163
Q

What drug can induce cholestatic jaundice?

A

Flucloxacillin

164
Q

Citalopram + dabigatran?

A

Inc risk of bleeding

165
Q

ACEi effect on creatinine?

A

Small rise in creatinine (<20%) is to be expected when starting an ACEi & does not require investigation or change to prescription

166
Q

What should be measured when beta blocker used for af?

A

Heart rate

167
Q

Adverse effects of ciclosporin?

A

Nephrotoxicity
Hypertension

168
Q

Aim for statin?

A

After 3 months – a >40% reduction in non- HDL cholesterol

169
Q

When is ondansetron contraindicated?

A

QT prolongation

170
Q

IV fluid resuscitation?

A

Use crystalloids that contain sodium with bolus of 500mls over <15mins
Glucose not required

171
Q

if experience GI SE’s with metformin?

A

Offer modified release

172
Q

Max dose of citalopram in elderly?

A

20mg daily

173
Q

Drugs which can cause diarrhoea?

A

Alendronic acid
Lansoprazole

174
Q

Drugs that cause ankle oedema?

A

Amlodipine
Naproxen

175
Q

First line therapy for c. diff?

176
Q

Life threatening c. diff?

A

Oral Vanc and IV met

177
Q

Common SE of liraglutide (GLP-1)?

179
Q

What is prolonged corticosteroid use associated with?

180
Q

When is fentanyl a good option?

A

Patients with chronic kidney disease

181
Q

When is gradual withdrawal of systemic steroids indicated?

A

received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week
received more than 3 weeks treatment
recently received repeated courses

182
Q

Effect of carbamazepine on sodium?

A

Hyponatraemia

183
Q

Is warfarin safe in breastfeeding?

184
Q

Primary prevention atorvastatin dose?

A

20mg daily

185
Q

Secondary prevention atorvastatin dose?

A

80mg daily

186
Q

Drugs that should be used with caution in established ischaemic heart disease?

A

NSAIDS
Oestrogens
Varenicline

187
Q

Effect of P450 inducers on INR?

188
Q

Effect of P450 inhibitors on INR?

189
Q

Verapamil + beta blocker –>?

A

Contraindicated
Cause life threatening bradycardia

190
Q

Common adverse effects from amlodipine?

A

Ankle swelling
Headache

192
Q

First line for C. diff?

A

Vancomycin 125mg QDS

193
Q

How to measure glucose control in DM?

A

HbA1c
Home glucose readings

194
Q

Which drugs can reduce hypoglycaemic awareness?

A

Beta blockers

195
Q

Usual dose for Ibuprofen?

A

200-400mg tds

196
Q

Usual dose for codeine?

A

30-60mg qds

197
Q

Usual dose for metoclopramide?

198
Q

Usual dose for cyclizine?

199
Q

Usual dose for amoxicillin?

200
Q

Usual dose for paracetamol?

201
Q

Usual dose for clarithromycin?

202
Q

Usual dose for Lansoprazole?

203
Q

Usual dose for omeprazole?

204
Q

Usual dose for clopidogrel?

A

75-300mg od

205
Q

Usual dose for aspirin?

A

75-300mg od

206
Q

Usual dose for simvastatin:?

A

10-80mg on

207
Q

Usual dose for atenolol?

A

25-100mg od

208
Q

Usual dose for ramipril?

A

1.25-10mg od

209
Q

Usual dose for bendroflumethiazide?

210
Q

Usual dose for furosemide?

A

20 mg od - 80mg bd

211
Q

Usual dose for amlodipine?

212
Q

Usual dose for levothyroxine?

A

25-200mcg od

213
Q

Usual dose for metformin?

A

500mg od - 1g bd

214
Q

Dose for breakthrough pain?

A

1/6 of total morphine dose

215
Q

Which medications are usually take at night?

A

Statins
Amitriptyline

216
Q

How long is tamoxifen taken for breast cancer?

217
Q

Important info about tamoxifen?

A

VTE
Hot flushes

218
Q

Medications that can be used for smoking cessation?

A

Varenicline
Bupropion hydrochloride

219
Q

E.g. of ICS and LABA inhalers?

A

Formoterol with budesonide
Formoterol with beclometasone
Salmeterol with fluticasone

220
Q

When is pioglitazone contraindicated?

A

Hx of bladder cancer
Hx of heart failure
DKA

221
Q

Treatment for mild acute migraine?

A

Aspirin/ NSAID/ triptan?

222
Q

Treatment for moderate to severe acute migraine?

A

Triptan and anti- emetic

223
Q

Volume of glucose 10% infusion?

224
Q

Volume of glucose 20% infusion?

225
Q

Fluids containing sufficient sodium chloride without excessive potassium chloride?

A

Sodium chloride 0.9%
Hartmann’s solution
Ringer’s solution
Plasmalyte

226
Q

Common side effect of tacrolimus?

227
Q

SE’s of empagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor)?

A

Hypovolaemia
Thirst
UTI’s
Urosepsis

228
Q

Why can hypovolaemia contribute to postural hypotension?

A

Reduced blood volume is insufficient to maintain stable BP during position changes esp against force of gravity when standing

229
Q

Effect of amitriptyline on QT interval?

230
Q

Common SE of dexamethasone if taken at night?

231
Q

When should nitrofurantoin be avoided?

232
Q

What bacteria is cefalexin effective agains?

A

Many gram + e.g. staph aureus and strep
Some gram - e.g. E.coli

233
Q

Primary treatment for hypercalcaemia?

A

Rehydration with sodium chloride 0.9%

234
Q

Early signs of agranulocytosis?

A

mouth ulcers
sore throat
fever
infective symptoms

235
Q

What happens if calcium and iron taken at same time?

A

Dec absorption of iron

236
Q

How should rivaroxaban be taken?

A

With food!

237
Q

Indicators of onset of hepatic necrosis?

A

RUQ tenderness
Hepatomegaly

238
Q

What can co- amoxiclav be assoc. with?

A

Adverse hepatic events e.g. cholestasis, jaundice, elevated ALP/ GGT/ ?bilirubin

239
Q

Trimethoprim + methotrexate –>?

A

Folate deficiency which manifests as bone marrow suppression

240
Q

Can statin be continued if transaminases are raised?

A

Yes, if less than 3x the upper limit of normal

241
Q

When is eplerenone contraindicated?

A

Ongoing hyperkalaemia

242
Q

What to monitor if on mineralocorticoid therapy?

243
Q

Methylphenidate monitoring?

A

BP
Pulse
Appetite
Height
Weight
Psych disorders?

244
Q

Isotretinoin monitoring?

A

Serum lipids
LFT’s

245
Q

LMWH monitoring?

A

Platelet counts

246
Q

Sulfasalazine monitoring?

247
Q

First line treatment for open angle glaucoma?

A

Latanoprost

248
Q

Resus fluids?

A

0.9% sodium chloride
Hartmann’s
Plasma- Lyte

249
Q

When is ulipristal acetate contraindicated?

250
Q

Ibuprofen + ramipril–>?

A

Inc risk of nephrotoxicity and hyperkalaemia

251
Q

Pain relief for mild/ mod cholecystitis?

A

Paracetamol
Anti- inflammatory drugs

252
Q

Pain relief for severe cholecystitis pain?

A

IM diclofenac

253
Q

Features of essential tremor?

A

Symmetrical
High frequency
Suppressed with concentration
Improves with alcohol

254
Q

Ferrous fumarate dose?

255
Q

Naloxone dose?

256
Q

Treatment for fungal nail infection?

A

Terbinafine

257
Q

First line anti- emetic in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Domperidone

258
Q

Wart treatment?

A

Salicyclic acid

259
Q

Symptoms to monitor if on labetalol?

A

Itching (has been associated with severe hepatocellular damage).

260
Q

Sedation if has Parkinson’s?

A

Lorazepam 1mg IV stat (avoid haloperidol)

261
Q

SE of folic acid?

262
Q

dose of adrenaline if used in croup?

A

400 micrograms/kg (max 5mg).

PSA revision (1 decks)

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