Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PSA > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

What should you check before prescribing metformin?

A

Renal Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which antibiotics may lower seizure threshold in epilepsy?

A

Quinolones (ie. Ciprofloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the dose of adrenaline in cardiac arrest?

A

1:1000 10ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which CCB most exaggerates heart failure?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can doxycycline be used in pregnancy?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is cocaine overdose managed?

A

Benzos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which complication is most commonly associated with aminoglycosides such as gentamicin?

A

Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which antibiotics may cause long QT?

A

Macrolides eg Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in renal failure?

A

NSAID
Metformin
Lithium
Tetracycline, Nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which drugs can treat motion sickness

A

Hyoscine
Cyclizine
Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When would you give IV sodium bicarbonate in TCA overdose?

A

pH <7.1
QRS >160 ms
Arrhythmias
Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In which patient group is diclofenac contraindicated?

A

Those with cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which antibiotics are contraindicated in those with G6PD Deficiency (Heinz bodies on smear)

A

Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is heparin monitored in patients with renal impairment?

A

Anti Factor Xa levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is organophosphate poisoning managed?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the most common side effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

Headache, flushing, ankle oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which drugs can cause hypomagnesaemia?

A

PPIs
Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which drug can be used to manage tremor in drug-induced parkinsonism?

A

Procyclidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What would be used to alleviate pain in cases of raised ICP due to brain cancer?

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which cvs drug can worsen psoriasis?

A

Beta Blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which class of drugs may worsen Parkinsonism?

A

Antipsychotics (Oral lorazepam)

22
Q

What should be started in T2DM in a patient with CVD?

A

Metformin and an SGLT2 Inhibitor as first line

23
Q

Which important side effect is most important to counsel patients of when using clindamycin?

A

C.Dif risk

24
Q

How is acute relapse managed in MS?

A

Methylprednisolone (IV or Oral)

25
Q

What would you give for secondary prevention following stroke if Diclofenac is contraindicated?

A

Aspirin and Dipyridamole

26
Q

Duloxetine and renal failure?

A

Contraindicated GFR under 30

26
Q

Duloxetine and renal failure?

A

Contraindicated GFR under 30

27
Q

45yo M. HTN. T2DM. Renal Artery Stenosis. Antihypertensive?

A

CCB. ACEi contraindicated in renovascular disease

28
Q

Which macrolide should be used in pregnancy?

A

Erythromycin

29
Q

What is an importnt side effect of metoclopramide to counsel male patients on?

A

Galactorrhoea

30
Q

In whom is adenosine contraindicated?

A

Asthmatics due to bronchospasm

31
Q

Name a contraindication to triptan use in migraine prophylaxis.

32
Q

When is pioglitazone contraindicated?

A

Heart Failure

33
Q

What are the first two lines of MRSA management?

A

Vancomycin -> Linezolid

34
Q

Which tests must. be performed before starting treatment for TB?

A

U&Es, LFTs, FBC, Vision Testing

35
Q

What is an alternative aldosterone antagonist if spironolactone is not tolerated in a patient with chronic congestive heart failure?

A

Eplerenone

36
Q

What is the first line treatment for CML?

A

Imatinib - Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor

37
Q

Gonorrhoea management if patient doesn’t like needles?

A

Oral Cefixime
Oral Azithromycin

38
Q

How would you treat chlamydia in pregnancy?

A

Azithromycin, erythromycin, amoxicillin

39
Q

Which drugs most commonly cause angioedema?

40
Q

What is an important side effect of the induction agent etomidate?

A

Adrenal Suppression

41
Q

What are the main side effects of tamsulosin?

A

Dizziness and Postural hypotension

42
Q

When is Pioglitazone contraindicated?

A

Bladder Cancer

43
Q

When should calcium/iron supplements be taken in a patient on thyroxine replacement?

A

At least 4 hours after levothyroxine dose

44
Q

Which tb med causes orange tears/urine?

A

Rifampicin

45
Q

Which dmard can patients allergic to aspirin also be sensitive to?

A

Sulfasalazine

46
Q

What is a key complication of rapid vancomycin infusion?

A

Red Man Syndrome

47
Q

What should be prescribed for a diabetic patient with urine ACR over 3?

A

ACEi or ARB for renal protection

48
Q

What is the first line treatment for acute flares of acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Haem Arginate

49
Q

What should you take a statin?

A

Last thing at night

50
Q

What is the most common side effect of isotretinoin?

51
Q

Name a severe ocular side effect of hydroxychloroquine

A

Bull’s Eye Retinopathy

PSA (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions