Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PSA > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first line treatment for severe pulmonary oedema in acute heart failure?

A

Furosemide 40mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should be monitored to assess the beneficial effects of diuretics?

A

Weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give a contraindication for compression stockings.

A

peripheral vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment dose and prophylactic dose of dalteparin for VTE?

A

Treatment - 15000units

Prophylactic - 5000units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the first line management for hypoglycaemia in an unconcious patient?

A

Glucose 20% IV 100ml over 15 mins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which antibiotics can be used in acne that is not responding to topical treatments?

A

Tetracycline, oxytetracycline and doxycycline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the main side effects of steroids?

A 
S - stomach ulcers 
T - thin skin 
E - edema 
R - right and left HF 
O - osteoporosis 
I - infection 
D - diabetes 
S - cushings syndrome

also: non-infective raise in WCC and confusion in the elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What would happen if you stopped long-term steroids suddenly?

A

Addisonian crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some contraindications of NSAID use?

A 
N - no urine
S - systolic failure 
A - asthma 
I - indigestion 
D - Dyscrasia (abnormal platelets)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which antihypertensive class causes a dry cough?

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which class of drugs causes a mild rise in creatinine?

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which 2 antihypertensive classes should be avoided in peripheral vascular disease?

A

ACE inhibitors

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At what time of day should ACE inhibitors be given?

A

Night to avoid posutral hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you measure the beneficial effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

exercise tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you measure the beneficial effects of beta blockers?

A

HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which antihypertensive class has no effect on electrolytes?

A

Calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the first line treatment for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazepines i.e. chlordiazepoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment give in alcohol induced vitamin B1 deficiency?

A

Pabrinex (thiamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which drug reduces the pleasure induced from drinking alcohol?

A

Acamprosate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the contraindications of cyclizine?

A

HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the contraindications of metocloparmide?

A

Parkinsons

Bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the dose of cyclizine?

A

50mg 8 hourly IM/IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the dose of metoclopramide?

A

10mg 8 hourly IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the dose of paracetamol?

A

1g 6 hourly PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the dose of ibuprofen?

A

200-400mg 8 hourly PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the dose of codeine?

A

30-60mg 6 hourly PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the dose of co-codamol?

A

2 tablets 6 hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the dose of aspirin?

A

75-300mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the dose of clopidogrel?

A

75-300 daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the dose of simvastatin?

A

10-80mg nightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the dose of atenolol?

A

25-100mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the dose of ramipril?

A

1.25-10mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the dose of bendroflumethiazide?

A

2.5mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the dose of furosemide?

A

20mg daily - 80mg bd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the dose of amlopdipine?

A

5-10mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the dose of omeprazole?

A

20-40mg od

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the dose of lansoprazole?

A

15-30mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the dose of levothyroxine?

A

25-200 micrograms daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the dose of metformin?

A

500mg daily - 1g bd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is first line analgesia in neuropathic pain?

A

paracetamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which painkiller must be avoided in patients with a risk of serotonin syndrome?

A

Tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the rule with drug choice for breakthrough pain?

A

Generally breakthrough pain should be treated with the same drug that is being given as continued pain relief. E.g. if a patient is on a fentanyl patch, give fentanyl nasal spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In renal impairment, what should be used in place of morphine for acute pain?

A

Oxycodone or fentanyl nasal spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which antibiotics can be used first line in UTI?

A

3 days for women, 7 days for men
nitrofurantoin - avoid at term pregnancy and renal failure
trimethoprim - avoid in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the acronym to remember acute heart failure management?

A 
UNLOAD FAST 
upright position 
nitrates 
loop diuretics 
oxygen 
ACEi
digoxin 
fluid restriction 
afterload restriction 
sodium restriction 
Test: ABG, ECG, potassium, digoxin levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which four drugs should be used in chronic HF?

A

beta blocker
spironolactone (improves prognosis)
furosemide (improves sx)
ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which 2 drugs may exacerbate HF?

A

diltiazem

prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which drug types can predispose someone to vaginal candida?

A

antibiotics

steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the first line pharm in T2DM?

A

metformin

50
Q

What is the CI of metformin?

A

renal impairment

51
Q

What is the second line mx in T2DM?

A

gliclazide

52
Q

What are the SE of gliclazide?

A

hypoglycaemia

weight gain

53
Q

What is the first line treatment for hypoglycaemia in a concious patient?

A

oral glucose 10-20g

54
Q

How do you treat a severe (systemically unwell with >6 bowel movements) UC flare?

A

IV hydrocortisone and fast fluids

55
Q

How do you treat a mild UC flare?

A

oral prednisolone 30mg over 24 hours

56
Q

In an over-anicuagulated patient, if the INR if <6 what do you do?

A

reduce warfarin

57
Q

In an over-anicuagulated patient, if the INR is between 6-8, what do you do?

A

omit for 2 days the reduce dose

58
Q

In an over-anicuagulated patient, if the INR is >8, what do you do if the patient is not bleeding?

A

give oral vitamin K 1-5mg

59
Q

In an over-anicuagulated patient, if the INR is >8, what do you do if the patient is bleeding?

A

give IV vitamin K 1-3mg

60
Q

Is warfarin safe in breastfeeding?

A

yes

61
Q

Is warfarin safe in pregnancy?

A

no - congenital malformations/foetal haemorrhage

62
Q

What must you do when starting a patient on warfarin?

A

Starting warfarin: procoagulant in the first few days so you must bridge for 2 days with LMWH

63
Q

What should be done if 1 COCP is missed?

A

Take missed pill and todays pill (2 at the same time) and continue

64
Q

What should be done if 2 COCP are missed?

A

Take the last missed pill and todays pill (cannot take 3 at the same time) and the use 7d additional contraception

65
Q

What should be done if 3 COCP are missed?

A

take EC if in first 7 days of pack, skip the week off in last 7 days of pack

66
Q

What should be done if a women is >3hours late taking POP?

A

 >3 hours late (>12 hours if desogestrel pill) then take EC and take missed and used additional contraception for 3d

67
Q

What are the three options for emergency contraception and how long to they protect for?

A

Levonogestrel 72 hours
Ulipristal 120 hours – CI in breastfeeding and asthma
IUD 120 hours

68
Q

Which route of HRT is preferred in high VTW risk patients?

A

patch

69
Q

What are the SE of HRT?

A

o Increased risk of breast cancer (in progesterone preparations)
o Increased risk of endometrial cancer (never give oestrogen alone in a woman with a uterus)
o Increased risk of VTE – transdermal is best for this
o Increased risk of IHD
o Decreased risk of colon cancer

70
Q

Which type of HRT should women with a uterus be given?

A

Combined oestrogen and progesterone (protects against endometrial cancer)

71
Q

If glycaemic control in the afternoon needs to be improved, how do you do that?

A

Increase morning insulin

72
Q

If a diabetic paient is taking a short course of steroids and getting hyperglycaemia as a result, how do you adjust their insulin regime?

A

Increase biphasic insulin by 10%

73
Q

How do you monitor the beneificial effects of statin use?

A

There should be a 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol after 3 months of treatment, if not increase the dose.

74
Q

What should be done when a statin is causing significant myopathy/CK rise?

A

Discontinue statin then restart when CK levels return to normal.

75
Q

What is the first line fluid resus in hypovolaemia?

A

give 500ml NaCl 0.9% over 15 mins IV

76
Q

What is the first line fluid resus in hypoglycaemia or hyponatramia?

A

5% glucose

77
Q

What is the rule of thumb for maintenance fluids?

A

2 sweet and 1 salty:

  • 1L 0.9% NaCl + 20mmol KCl over 8 hours
  • 1L 5% dextrose +20mmol KCl over 8 hours
  • 1L 5% dextrose +20mmol KCl over 8 hours
78
Q

In what circumstances would you give 250ml fluid bolus instead of 500ml?

A

frail, thin, renal failure, HF

79
Q

What rout is insulin ALWAYS given unless in a sliding scale?

A

SC

80
Q

What are the 4 different kinds of laxatives?

A 
BOSS 
Bulk forming 
Osmotic - lactulose
Stimulants - senna, sodium picosulfate, bisacodyl
Stool softeners - docusate
81
Q

What drug is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose

82
Q

How do you treat hyperkalaemia?

A
  • IV calcium gluconate
  • 10 units actrapid, 100mls 20% IV dextrose
  • calcium resonium
  • salbutamol nebuliser
83
Q

Which drugs together can cause rhabdomyolisis?

A

Statins and macrolides

84
Q

Why must trimethoprim be avoided with methotrexate?

A

Nephrotoxic

85
Q

What drug is used to treat secretions in palliative care?

A

hyoscine butylbromide

86
Q

Which drugs can be used to treat agitation in palliative care?

A

midazolam and haloperidol

87
Q

Which drug is typically used for pain in palliative care?

A

morphine

88
Q

Which drug is typically used for nausea in palliative care?

A

cyclizine

89
Q

What are the MONAT drugs used in acute MI mx?

A 
Morphine 
Oxygen 
Nitrates 
Aspirin 
Ticagrelor/clopidogrel
90
Q

What are the CRABS drugs used in long term MI mx?

A 
Clopidogrel 
Ramipril 
Aspirin 
Beta blocker 
Statin
91
Q

How do you treat fast AF that has been there >48 hours?

A 
'Dil and Vera'
Diltiazem
Verapamil 
Or beta blockers 
Or digoxin 
Plus VTE proph
92
Q

How do you treat fast AF that that has been there <48 hours?

A

‘Ami and Flec’
Amiodarone/flecanide
Or DC cardioversion

93
Q

How do you treat anaphylaxis?

A

500micrograms (0.5ml) of 1:1000 adrenaline IM
10mg cholphenamine IV
200mg hydrocortisone IV

94
Q

What is the mneumonic used for asthma attacks?

A 
OSHITME
Oxygen 
Salbutamol 
Hydrocortisone or prednisolone
Ipratropium 
Thoephylline 
Magnesium sulphate
95
Q

What drug is used to treat generalised seizures?

A

sodium valproate

96
Q

What drug is used to treat focal seizures?

A

carbamazepine

97
Q

What does a high TSH indicate in levothyroxine treatment?

A

poor adherence

98
Q

Which two drugs should be stopped in heart failure as they may worsen it?

A

verapamil

diltiazem

99
Q

Why must beta blockers, ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers be prescribed together with caution?

A

Risk of heart block

100
Q

Which type of diuretic can precripitate hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyponatraemia and gout?

A

thiazide

101
Q

Which drug class may worsen urinary incontinence?

A

diuretics

102
Q

Which two antihypertensives worsen hyperkalaemia?

A

ACEi

ARBs

103
Q

Which types of drugs are potassium conserving?

A

Potassium sparing diuretics (aldosterone antagonsist) e.g. spironolactone, eplerenone
ACEi
ARBs

104
Q

Why mustnt nitrates and sildenafil be used together?

A

risk of cardiovascular collapse (double whammy of vasodilator)

105
Q

How long should VTE prophylaxis be continued after the first instance of unprovoked VTE?

A

6 months

106
Q

Why must anticoagulants not be prescribed with NSAIDs?

A

GI bleeding risk

107
Q

Which conditions are worsened by TCAs?

A 
dementia
narrow angle glaucoma
cardiac conduction abnormalities 
prostatism 
hx of urinary retention
108
Q

What are the anticholingeric side effects?

A

cant see
cant pee
cant spit
cant shit

109
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality can be worsened by SSRIs?

A

hyponatraemia

110
Q

What is the max time that someone should be on benzodiazepines?

A

4 weeks - remember to wean off to avoid withdrawal

111
Q

Which two conditions have a risk of worsening with first generation anti-psychotics?

A

parkinsons

LBD

112
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used in dementia mx should not be used if a patient has what?

A

peristent bradycarsia, heart block, reccurent unexplained syncope or concurrent mx with antihypertensives,

113
Q

Which 5 drug types should be avoided in low GFR?

A 
digoxin
direct thrombin inhibitors 
factor Xa inhibitors
NSAIDs
colchicine
metformin
114
Q

Which drugs are likely to cause constipation?

A

antimuscarinin, anticholinergic, oral iron, opioids, verapamil, aluminium antacids

115
Q

Which two GI drugs should be avoided in parkinsons?

A

Prochlorperazine or metoclopramide

116
Q

Which two conditions can be worsened by ipratropium/tiotropium?

A

narrow angle glaucoma

urinary retention

117
Q

What is the first line mx for RA?

A

DMARDs e.g. methotrexate

118
Q

Why must beta blockers be used in caution with diabetics who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes?

A

risk of beta blockers suppressing the sx of hypoglycaemia

119
Q

What does the use of oestrogens increase the risk of?

A

endometrial ca
breast ca
VTE

120
Q

List the drugs that are likely to cause falls in the elderly?

A

benzos
antipsychotics
vasodilators
hypnotic z-drugs

121
Q

What should be co-prescribed with long term opioid use?

A

laxative

PSA (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions