PS102 Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

CHAPTER 1

A

CHAPTER 1

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2
Q

define empiricism

A

FRACIS BACON

view that all knowledge originates in experiences

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3
Q

define voluntarism

A

will is the ultimate agency in human behavior

believe behavior is motivated and that attention is focused for explicit purposes

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4
Q

define psychoanalytic theory

A

believe human mental processes are influenced by the competition between unconscious forces and conscious forces

SIGMUND FREUD

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5
Q

define cognitive psychology

A

studies mental processes as forms of information processing and the ways in which information is stored and operated in our minds

ULRIC NEISSER

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6
Q

define cross-cultural psychology

A

the study of what is generally/universally true about human beings regardless of culture

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7
Q

what are the 3 branches of psychology

A

academic = research/instructions

applied = applying to practical problems

clinical/counselling = abnormal psychology and interventions

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8
Q

what are the 4 shared values of psychology

A
  1. theory driven
  2. empirical
  3. multilevel
  4. contextual
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9
Q

CHAPTER 2

A

CHAPTER 2

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10
Q

what are the 2 shared beliefs of sciences

A
  1. universe operates according to natural laws
  2. these laws are discoverable and testable
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11
Q

deductive vs inductive reasoning

A

deductive = broad basic principles applied to specific situations

inductive = small specific situations to more general truths and principles

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12
Q

define hypothetico-deductive reasoning

A

scientists begin with an educated guess based on previous research about how the world works and then begin to design small controlled observations to support/invalidate their hypothesis

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13
Q

define pseudo-psychology or pop psychology

A

argue that psychological principles can provide the answers to all of life’s major questions –> tend to have hidden goals

a form of psychology not based on the scientific method but takes on the appearance of science

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14
Q

define operationalize

A

to develop a working definition of a variable that allows you to test it

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15
Q

define descriptive research methods

A

studies that allow researchers to demonstrate a relationship between the variables of interest without specifying a casual relationship

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16
Q

define the Hawthorne effect

A

participants improve or modify their behavior because they are aware they are being observed/studied

not a result of intervention

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17
Q

define double-blind procedures

A

a study in which neither the participant nor the researcher knows what treatment or procedure the participant is receiving

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18
Q

define the three types of correlation

A

positive = on average scores on two variables increase together

negative = on average scores on one variable increase as scores on another decrease

perfect = two variables are exactly related, low, medium, and high scores on both variables are aways exactly related

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19
Q

define standard deviation

A

statistical index of how much scores VARY in a group

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20
Q

correlational research vs experimental research

A

correlational = no manipulation, research measures two variables to test their relationship

experimental = researcher manipulates a variable and compares them (use inferential statistics)

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21
Q

measures of central tendency vs variability

A

central tendency = a numerical value that represents the center of the distribution
- ie. mean

variability = a numerical value that represents how different the scores within a group are from each other
- ie. standard deviation

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22
Q

define t-tests vs f-tests

A

t-tests = inferential statistic used for testing the statistical significance of two groups
- if t is big p will be small!

f-tests = inferential statistic used to test the statistical significance of two or more groups

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23
Q

define effect size

A

the strength of the relationship between two variables

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24
Q

CHAPTER 4

A

CHAPTER 4

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25
Q

define a cross-sectional design

A

a research approach that compares groups of different aged people to one another

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26
Q

define longitudinal design

A

a research approach that follows the same people over a period of time by administering the same tasks or questionnaires and seeing how their responses change

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27
Q

define cohort sequential deign

A

designed to look at how individuals from different age groups compare to one another and to follow them over time

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28
Q

define maturation

A

the unfolding of development in a particular sequence and time frame

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29
Q

define epigenetics

A

changes in gene expression that are independent of DNA sequences of the gene

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30
Q

genotype vs phenotype

A

genotype = persons genetic inheritance

phenotype = the observable manifestations of a persons genetic inheritance

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31
Q

define codominance

A

when in a heterozygous combination of alleles both traits are expressed in the offspring

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32
Q

discrete trait vs polygenic trait

A

discrete = results as the product of a single gene pairing

polygenic = manifests as the result of the contributions of multiple genes

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33
Q

proximodistal vs cephalocaudal pattern

A

proximodistal = growth and development proceed from the center to the extremities

cephalocaudal = growth and development proceeds from top to bottom

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34
Q

define rooting, grasping, moro and babinski

A

rooting = touch cheek, infant sucks –> feeing help

grasping = press palm, infant grasps –> infants safety

moro = startle infant, infant flails arms –> helps hold on to caregiver when support is lost

babinski = stroke foot, infants toes spread –> unknown

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35
Q

what are the 4 stages of cognitive development according to JEAN PIAGET

A
  1. sensorimotor = 0-2 y/o, understand world through senses + begin to develop language
    • 6-8 months = develop object
      permanence
  2. preoperational = 2-7 y/o, world is symbolic, mental images/words, pretend play
    • egocentric, scale errors, and dont
      understand conservation
  3. concrete operational = 7-11 y/o, can perform basic mental operations, understand conservation + tangible problems but difficulty with abstract problems
  4. formal operational = 11+ y/o, think logically about concrete + abstract problems, able to form/test hypotheses
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36
Q

assimilation vs accommodation - PIAGET

A

assimilation = the inclusion of new information or experiences into pre-existing schemes

accommodation = alteration of pre-existing mental framework’s to take in new information

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37
Q

define information processing theory

A

how children learn, remember, organize, and use information from their environment

study what children CAN do

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38
Q

define violation of expectation

A

test object permanence

study infants and toddlers heightened reactions to an unexpected event after habituation

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39
Q

define scaffolding

A

developmental adjustments that adults make to give children the help they need
- not so much that they fail to move
forward

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40
Q

define the zone of proximal development

A

the gap between what a child can accomplish alone and what they can accomplish with help from others

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41
Q

what are the 4 temperaments (CHESS & THOMAS)

A
  1. easy = cheerful, regular routines, open to change
  2. difficult = irritable, negative reactions to change
  3. slow to warm up = less active/responsive, withdraw when change occurs
  4. unique = unique blends of characteristics from above 3 categories
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42
Q

define the 4 attachment styles

A
  1. secure = explore with mother and upset when gone, 60%
  2. anxious/avoidant = unresponsive and indifferent, 15%
  3. anxious/ambivalent = strong reaction to mother leaving yet mixed emotions when returning, 10%
  4. disorganized/disoriented = infant is confused and contradictory, 15%
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43
Q

define the q-sort approach

A

observes of parent-child interactions place descriptions of various attachment behaviors into 9 piles, frequent and infrequent behavior’s separated

provides a fluid estimate of the child’s general attachment patterns

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44
Q

what are the 4 parenting styles

A
  1. authoritative = sensitive to child’s needs, nurturing, encourages autonomy
    - high self esteem, cooperative + self
    control
  2. authoritarian = cold, rejecting, demanding
    • low self esteem, anxious, aggressive
  3. permissive = accepting but overindulgent and inattentive
    • impulsive, disobedient, dependent,
      low initiative
  4. uninvolved = emotionally detached, depressed, little time/energy
    • anxious, poor communication and
      anti-social
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45
Q

what is KOHLBERG’S stage theory of moral development

A

1.preconventional = morality center’s on what you can get away with

  1. conventional = morality centers on avoiding others disapproval and obeying rules
    • postconventional* = morality determined by abstract ethical principles
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46
Q

define cellular clock theory

A

suggests we age because our cells have built in limits on their ability to reproduce

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47
Q

define wear and tear theory

A

suggests we age because use of our body wears it out

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48
Q

define free radical theory

A

suggests we age because special negatively charged oxygen molecules become more prevalent in our body as we get older

this destabilizes cellular structures and causes aging

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49
Q

what did DANIEL LEVINSON believe about aging transitions

A

early life transition –>early adulthood –> middle life transition –> middle adulthood

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50
Q

CHAPTER 5

A

CHAPTER 5

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51
Q

define olfactory

A

smell

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52
Q

define somatosensory

A

touch, heat, pain and pressure/damage to skin

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53
Q

define gustatory

54
Q

define sensory transduction

A

process of converting a specific form of environmental stimuli to neural impulses

55
Q

threshold vs absolute threshold vs difference threshold

A

threshold = the point at which the magnitude/intensity of a stimulus initiates a neural impulse

absolute = the minimal stimulus necessary for detection by an individual 50% of the time

difference = minimal difference between two stimuli necessary for detection of a difference between the two

56
Q

define signal detection theory

A

believe the response to a signal depends on an individuals ability to differentiate between the signal and noise and on their response criteria

57
Q

bottom up vs top down processing

A

bottom = perception that proceeds by transducing environmental stimuli into neural impulses that move into successively more complex brain regions

top = perception processes led by cognitive processes (ie. memory/expectations)

58
Q

define the olfactory bulb

A

the first region where olfactory (smell) information reaches the brain on its way from the nose

59
Q

ageusia vs hyposmia vs anosmia vs auras

A

ageusia = inability to taste

hyposmia = reduced ability to smell

anosmia = inability smell

auras = hallucinations involving the sensory system before/during migraines/headaches or seizures

60
Q

what is Meissner’s Corpuscles

A

transduce information about sensitive touch and are found in hairless regions of the body

have sensory receptors that convert physical stimuli about sensory touch

61
Q

define Merkel’s Discs

A

transduce information about light to moderate pressure on the skin

contains sensory receptors that convert information about light to moderate pressure on the skin

62
Q

what are Ruffini’s end organs

A

located deep in the skin and register heavy pressure and movement of joints

contains sensory receptors that respond to heavy pressure and joint movement

63
Q

what are Pacinian Corpuscles

A

buried deep in the skin and respond to vibrations and heavy pressure

64
Q

what is the gate control theory of pain

A

believe certain patterns of neural activity can close a gate to keep pain information from travelling to parts of the brain where it is perceived

65
Q

what is familial dysautonomia

A

the inability to detect pain or temperature as well as the inability to produce tears

66
Q

define neuropathies

A

blocks pain sensations arising from the persons extremities

nerve dysfunction

67
Q

what is the tympanic membrane

A

the eardrum

sound waves enter the outer ear and deflect the eardrum

68
Q

what are the ossicles

A

tiny bones in the ear

malleus, incus, and stapes

69
Q

what is the oval window

A

membrane separating the ossicles and inner ear

deflections causes a wave to form in cochlea

70
Q

define cochlea

A

fluid filled structure in inner ear

contains hair cells

71
Q

define basilar membrane

A

structure in cochlea where hair cells are located

72
Q

what is frequency theory

A

different sound frequencies are converted into different rates of action potentials or firing in our auditory nerves

high frequency = more rapid firing

73
Q

define place theory

A

differences in sound frequency activate different regions on the basilar membrane

the regions on the basilar membrane sends inputs to the brain which are encoded according to the place along the membrane where the input originated

74
Q

conductive deafness vs nerve deafness

A

conductive = a break in the various processes by which sound is transmitted through the inner ear

nerve = results from damage/malformations of the auditory nerve in the brain

75
Q

what is the retina

A

specialized sheet of nerves in the back of the eye containing the sensory receptors for vision

76
Q

define photoreceptors

A

the sensory receptor cells for vision located in the retina

77
Q

rods vs cones

A

rods = photoreceptors responsive to levels of light/dark

cones = photoreceptors responsive to color

78
Q

what is the optic nerve

A

bundle of axons of ganglion ells that carries visual information from the eye to the brain

79
Q

what is the fovea

A

center of the retina

contains only cones, vision is most clear

80
Q

what is the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory

A

3 different receptors for color and each type of receptor responds to a different range of wavelengths of light

one for yellow/red
one for green
one for blue/purple

81
Q

define opponent process theory

A

color pairs work to inhibit one another in the perception of color

result of activity in the lateral geniculate nucleus (in the thalamus)

82
Q

what is prosopagnosia

A

specific kind of visual agnosia

cant recognize faces due to damage to parts of the ‘what’ pathways

83
Q

what is hemi-neglect

A

damage to the ‘where’ pathways

unable to see one side of the visual field

84
Q

binocular vs monocular

A

monocular = visual clues about depth and distance that can be perceived using information from only one eye

binocular = requires both eyes

85
Q

interposition vs motion parallax

A

interposition = an object blocks part of another from our view, see the blocked object as farther away

motion = requires that the observer be moving, the relative movement of objects that are stationary against their background gives us an idea about their relative distance

86
Q

what is retinal disparity

A

the slight difference in images processed by the retinas of each eye

87
Q

define perceptual constancies

A

top-down tendency to view objects as unchanging, despite shifts in environmental stimuli we receive

88
Q

what is strabismus vs amblyopia

A

strabismus = misalignment of eyes, can result in visual loss –> born or caused

amblyopia = partial/complete loss of vison due to abnormal development of brains visual cortex in infancy
- one eye focuses better than the other

89
Q

kinesthetic sense vs vestibular sense

A

kinesthetic = receptors in cell muscles respond if squeezed and shape is changed by movement, tell us whether we are still pr moving in a direction without having to look

vestibular = movement of the fluid in our inner ears detected by hair cells that gets shifted when our inner ear fluid moves
- provides information about our body position, matches visual info provided by our eyes

90
Q

CHAPTER 8

91
Q

encoding vs storage vs retrieval

A

encoding = the recording of information in our brain

storage = retention of information for later use

retrieval =recovery of information when we need it later

92
Q

what is the information processing model

A

believes information must pass through 3 stages of mental functioning to become firmly planted into memory

  1. sensory memory
  2. working memory
  3. long term memory
93
Q

define sensory memory

A

brains retaining a sensory image - less than a second - when first confronted with a stimulus

help keep items we have experienced briefly alive a bit longer

has a large capacity but anything not transferred is lost

94
Q

define iconic memory vs echoic memory

A

visual sensory memory - small copy of the visual event we just saw

auditory system that holds information for a short time

95
Q

short term vs working memory

A

short = a storage location where stimuli could be held for a brief period of time
- Atkinson and Shiffrin multi-store model of
memory
- holds 5-9 items at once

working = different systems responsible for processing the different kinds of information an individual is consciously working on - keeps it available for immediate access
- Baddeley and Hitch
- holds 5-9 items at once

96
Q

explain the 3 subsystems of working memory proposed by Baddeley and Hitch

A
  1. central executive = supervisory system,
    allocating/prioritizing resource’s and info
  2. phonological loop = process spoken/written info (little voice)
    -visuospatial sketchpad = keeps track of
    images and spatial locations for
    navigation (inner eye)
  3. episodic buffer = links together information from other parts of working memory and creates links to time/order and long-term memory
97
Q

define central executive function

A

way of maintaining attention, refers to processing information as it relates to goal directed behavior

98
Q

define executive attention

A

responsible for overseeing the maintenance of goals and controls interference when a person is engaged in complex cognitive tasks

99
Q

define long term memory

A

the system that can retain a seemingly unlimited number of pieces of information for an indefinite period of time

100
Q

define memory stores

A

storing information until something causes a disruption or loss of the memory

101
Q

define parallel distributed processing (PDP) OR connectionist model

A

believes new information immediately joins other previously encountered and relevant information to help form/grow networks of information

memory stored in a network of associations through our brain

102
Q

define rehearsal

A

conscious repetition of information in an attempt to make sure the information is encoded

103
Q

define spaced practice effect vs massed practice

A

spaced = facilitated encoding of material through rehearsal situations spread out over time
- ie. studying material weekly and reviewing
closer to an exam

massed = cramming

104
Q

define semantic code

A

cognitive representation of information or an event based on the meaning of the information

ie. link new things we learn to things we have already memorized based on shared meaning

105
Q

define mnemonic devices

A

technique used to enhance the meaningfulness of information as a way of making them more memorable

106
Q

define schemas

A

knowledge bases that we develop based on prior exposure to similar experiences or other knowledge bases

107
Q

define memory span

A

maximum number of items that can be recalled in the correct order

typically 5-9

108
Q

define chunking

A

grouping bits of information together to enhance ability to hold that information in working memory

109
Q

explicit vs implicit memory

A

explicit = memory that can be consciously brought to mind (ie. middle name)

implicit = memory that a person is not aware of (ie. learned motor behaviors, skills, and habits)

110
Q

semantic memory vs episodic memory

A

semantic = memory of general knowledge of the world

episodic = memory of personal events of episodes from their life

111
Q

define the levels of processing model

A

process information to shallow or deeper depths

information can be superficially processed or have symbolic significance

greater depth = more likely to be recalled later

112
Q

primacy vs recency effect

A

primacy = better at recalling first section of a list than middle/end due to them being encoded into working memory

recency = items at the end of a list are still in working memory and have less interference by other words causing them to be better recalled

113
Q

define priming

A

activation of one piece of information, which in turn leads to activation of another piece, and ultimately to the retrieval of a specific memory

like linking

114
Q

recognition vs recall tasks

A

recognition = asked to identify whether or not they have seen a particular item before

recall = asked to produce information using no or few retrieval cues

115
Q

define context (in terms of memory)

A

the og location where you first learned a concept/idea

makes it more likely to be able to recall information late when in the same location you learned it in

116
Q

what is the encoding specificity principle

A

a theoretical framework

believes memory retrieval is more efficient when the information available at retrieval is similar to the information available at the time of encoding

117
Q

define state dependent memory

A

memory retrieval facilitated by being in the same state of mind in which you encoded the memory in the first place

118
Q

define flashbulb memories

A

detailed and near permanent memories of an emotionally significant event or the circumstance’s surrounding when we learned of the event

119
Q

decay theory cs interference theory

A

decay = suggests memories fade due to neglect/failure to access them over long periods of time

interference = forgetting is influenced by what happens to people before/after they take information in

120
Q

proactive interference vs retroactive interference

A

pro = competing information that is learned before the forgotten material
- new info interferes with old info

retro = learning of new information that disrupts access to previously recalled information
- old info interferes with new info

121
Q

define source misattribution

A

remembering information but not the source causing us to remember information from unreliable sources as true

122
Q

define memory consolidation

A

the process by which memories stabilize in the brain

123
Q

define potentiation

A

synchronous networks of cells firing together

124
Q

define long term potentiation (LTP)

A

repeated stimulation of certain nerve cells in the brain increases the likelihood that the cells will respond strongly to future stimulation

125
Q

define prospective vs retrospective memory

A

pro = ability to remember content in the future

retro = ability to remember content from the past

126
Q

define amnestic disorders

A

organic disorders (occurred organically) in which memory loss is the primary symptom

127
Q

define retrograde amnesia vs anterograde amnesia

A

retro = inability to remember things that occurred before an organic event

anterior = ongoing inability to form new memories after an amnesia-inducing event

128
Q

define neurofibrillary tangles

A

twisted protein fibers found within cells of the hippocampus and certain other brain areas

129
Q

define senile plaques

A

sphere-shaped deposits of a protein that form in the spaces between cells in the hippocampus, cerebral cortex, and certain other brain regions and some blood vessels

130
Q

organic disorders vs dissociative disorders

A

organic = physical causes of memory impairment is identified

dissociative = disruption in memory lack a clear physical cause