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Estudo prova Azul > Prova Azul > Flashcards

Prova Azul Flashcards

1
Q

The Zero Fuel Mass (ZFW) and the Dry Operating Mass (DOW):

A

differ by the value of the traffic load mass.

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2
Q

Prior to departure the medium range twin jet acft is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following data:

  • Performance Limited Takeoff Mass: 67200 kg
  • Performance Limited Landing Mass: 54200 kg
  • Dry Operating Mass: 34930
  • Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
  • Trip Fuel: 9250 kg
  • Contingency and holding Fuel: 850 kg
  • Alternate Fuel: 700 kg
A

13090 kg

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3
Q

An acft is to depart an airfield where the performance limited takeoff mass is 89200 kg. Certified maximum masses are as follows:
- Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
- Maximum Takeoff Mass: 89430 kg
- Maximum Landing Mass: 71520 kg
- Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 62050 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
- Taxi Fuel: 600 kg
- Trip Fuel: 17830 kg
- Contingency, final reserve and alternate: 9030 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg, the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:

A

21500 kg

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4
Q

A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as:

A

Station.

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5
Q

The take-off distance required increases

A

a) due to slush on the runway.

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6
Q

The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as
a suitable area where:

A

An acft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off;

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7
Q

The STOPWAY is an area which allows an increase only in:

A

the accelerate-stop distance available.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is correct ?

A

Which of the following statements is correct ?

a) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.
* *b) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
c) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
d) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.

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9
Q

The length of a CLEARWAY may be included in:

A

a) the accelerate-stop distance available.
b) the take-off run available.
c) the distance to reach V1.
* *d) the take-off distance available.

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10
Q

Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be

A

lower.

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11
Q

For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?

A

a) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
b) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.
* *c) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
d) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.

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12
Q

With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?

A

a) Screen height cannot be reduced.
* *b) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
c) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length.
d) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.

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13
Q

Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?

A

a) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
b) Screen height reduction cannot be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.
* *c) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties.
d) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway.

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14
Q

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the :

A

temperature of the brakes.

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15
Q

Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as

A

the datum.

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16
Q

The Center of Gravity of a body is that point:

A

Through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act;

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17
Q

The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction:

A

parallel to the gravity vector.

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18
Q

During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that:

A

a) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
b) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
c) the aeroplane is overloaded.
d) the centre of gravity is too far forward.

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19
Q

In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

A

a) decrease longitudinal static stability
b) increase longitudinal static stability
c) does not influence longitudinal static stability
d) not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

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20
Q

An additional baggage container is loaded into the acft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The airplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds:

A

Will give reduced safety margins;

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21
Q

Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an airplane in flight?

A

a) Lowering the landing gear;
* *b) Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabilizer) incidence angle;
c) Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties;
d) Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing acft;

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22
Q

In a 5kt right crosswind component behind a taking off acft:

A

he right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway;

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23
Q

The term Drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:

A

the horizontal plane;

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24
Q

In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:

A

100%

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25
Q

Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in :
1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.
2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger.
3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.
4. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A

a) 2, 3
* *b) 1,4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 3

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26
Q

The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

A

provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent following a depressurization.

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27
Q

In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:

A

give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.

28
Q

Supplemental oxygen is used to :

A

a) protect a crew who fights a fire
b) provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurization
c) assist a passenger with breathing disorders
d) provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurization

29
Q

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurized aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:

A

13000 ft

30
Q

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:

A

10000 ft and 13000 ft

31
Q

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:

A

13000 ft

32
Q

In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:

A

done oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow

33
Q

The Density Altitude:

A

Is used to determine the aeroplane performance;

34
Q

An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

A

A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance;

35
Q

A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

A

An increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance;

36
Q

Second segment begins

A

when the landing gear is fully retracted.

37
Q

During take-off the third segment begins:

A

when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

38
Q

With one or two engines inoperative the Best Specific Range at high altitudes is:

A

reduced;

39
Q

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:

A

an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

40
Q

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:

A

a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

41
Q

What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?

A

It will increase the take-off distance;

42
Q

What will be the effect on an aeroplane´s performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?

A

It will decrease the take-off distance required;

43
Q

An increase in atmospheric pressure has among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:

A

A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

44
Q

Density Altitude is the:

A

pressure altitude corrected for “non-standard” temperature;

45
Q

When an acft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include?

A

Cancel distress;

46
Q

When a wire type fire system is tested:

A

The wiring and the warning are tested;

47
Q

Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

A

Fixed lights showing variable white.

48
Q

CAT I approach lights (centerline lights and crossbars) shall be fixed lights showing:

A

Variable intensity white;

49
Q

In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:

A

Fixed lights showing variable white.

50
Q

Runway threshold lights shall be:

A

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

51
Q

The information on holding, approach and departure procedures are found in the following part of the AIP:

A

ENR

52
Q

Which does ATC Term Radar Contact signify?

A

Your acft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated;

53
Q

The Alerting Service is provided by:

A

The ATC unit responsible for the acft at that moment;

54
Q

When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:

A

air traffic control and flight information centers.

55
Q

When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:

A

operational air traffic control centers

56
Q

The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service area:

A

Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centers.

57
Q

Alerting service shall be provided:

A

For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS.

58
Q

When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in:

A

UTC

59
Q

Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?

A

SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions;

60
Q

The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide:

A

b) continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance management

61
Q

Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routing and performance parameters?

A

Multi-Function Control Display Unit

62
Q

On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:

A

c) upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).

63
Q

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5- yaw damping
6- VOR axis holding
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A

a) 2, 4, and 5.
* *b) 1, 2 and 5.
c) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
d) 3, 4, 5 and 6.

64
Q

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
6- yaw damping
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A

c) 3, 4 and 5.

65
Q

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations abbreviated to “CAVOK”?

A

a) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600
* *b) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG
c) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500
d) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG

Estudo prova Azul (1 decks)

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