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Eksamen Para2 > protozoology > Flashcards

protozoology Flashcards

1
Q

The vectors of Trypanosoma cruzi are

bedbugs
soft ticks
kissing bugs
hard ticks

A

kissing bugs

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2
Q

what is characteristic of “ dollar spot”?

  • displacement
  • predilection site : genitalia
  • 10- 15 cm diameter
    -they always appear in dourine
A

displacement

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3
Q

what is the most frequent cause of death following the 4th phase of dourine?

  • collapse of circulation
  • decubitus
  • facial paralysis
  • pneumonia
A

pneumonia

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4
Q

Which Giardia genotype(s) is (are) zoonotic? (more than one answer maybe correct!)

*A
*B
*C
*D

A

A& B

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5
Q

In which of the following is Toxoplasma gondii highly foetopathogenic?

  • Cattle
  • Sheep
  • Horse
  • Pig
A
  • Sheep
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6
Q

Which species will frequently cause haemorrhages?

T. brucei brucei
T. vivax
T. congolense
None of these

A

T. vivax

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7
Q

what is the approx.. size of giardia cyst?

  • 10-20 micrometers
  • nearly 100 micrometers
  • 30-40 micrometers
  • 20-30 micrometers
A
  • 10-20 micrometers
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8
Q

Which Eimeria sp. is highly pathogenic in chicken?

  • E. maxima
  • E. intestinalis
  • E. necatrix
  • E. mitis
A
  • E. necatrix
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9
Q

Of which Eimeria sp./spp. can the praepatent period be 4 days or shorter? (more than one answer may be right!)

  • E. praecox
  • E.maxima
  • E. acervuline
  • E.mitis
A

E. praecox
E. acervuline
E.mitis

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10
Q

Which of the following pair of Eimeria species has complementary location in the small intestine?

  • E. intestinalis & E. magna
  • E. duodenalis & E. media
  • E. magna & E. magna
  • E. exigua & E. intestinalis
A
  • E. intestinalis & E. magna
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11
Q

What is the characteristic lesion on the hepatic form of pigeon trichomonosis?

  • Pea size necroses
  • Fibrinous perihepatitis
  • Abscess
  • Pinpoint necroses
A
  • Pea size necroses
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12
Q

Which species will cause mucosal thickening distally in the small intestine?

  • Eimeria ovinoidalis
  • Eimeria crandallis
  • Eimeria parva
  • Eimeria bakuensis
A
  • Eimeria ovinoidalis
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13
Q

Which Cryptosporidium sp./spp. occur(s) frequently in post-weaned or older calves? (more than one answer maybe correct!)

  • C. baileyi
  • C. bovis
  • C. andersoni
  • C. parvum
A
  • C. bovis
  • C. andersoni
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14
Q

In which age group are bulls more susceptible to Tritrichomonas foetus?

  • 1-2 years of age
  • Below 3 years
  • Above 3 years
  • 2-4 years of age
A
  • Above 3 years
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15
Q

How does Histomonas meleagridis spread to the liver?

  • Haematogenously
  • From the cloaca
  • From the skin
  • From the navel
A
  • Haematogenously
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16
Q

Which Eimeria sp. is highly pathogenic in chicken?

  • E. acervuline
  • E. mitis
  • E. tenella
  • E. flavescens
A
  • E. tenella
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17
Q

Which protozoon is frequently carried by nutria or coypu?

Giardia
Trichomonas
Toxoplasma
Babesia

A

Toxoplasma

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18
Q

How does Trichomonas gallinae reach the liver?

  • Spreading from heart apex
  • Spreading from the navel
  • Spreading from oesophagus
  • Haematogenously
A
  • Spreading from the navel
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19
Q

Which grographical region has serious problems with cattle tritrichomonosis?

  • None of these
  • Certain US states
  • Europe
  • Hungary
A
  • Certain US states
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20
Q

Which dog breed is predisposed to subclinical babesiosis (carrier state)?

  • Spaniel predisposed
  • Irish setter predisposed
  • German shepherd
  • Dalmatiner
A
  • German shepherd
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21
Q

In which “aberrant” host species is Sarcocystis neurona highly pathogenic?

  • Cattle
  • Sheep
  • Pig
  • Horse
A
  • Horse
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22
Q

Please select the moderately pathogenic Eimeria sp./spp. for which the location is indicated properly?

  • E. irresidua – duodenum
  • E. intestinalis – ileum
  • E. piriformis – colon
  • E. magna – ileum
A
  • E. piriformis – colon
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23
Q

Which of the following pair of Eimeria species has complementary location on the small intestine?

E. brunetti & E. mitis
E. maxima & E. necatrix
E. acervulina & E. mitis
E. acervulina & E. precox

A

E. acervulina & E. mitis

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24
Q

There is no sporocyst in its sporulated oocyst (more than one answer maybe correct)

  • Cryptosporidium
  • Plasmodium
  • Hepatozoon
  • Isospor
A
  • Cryptosporidium
  • Plasmodium
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25
Q

What is the most pathogenic stage of Eimeria acervuline?

  • Second schizont
  • Gamont
  • First schizont
  • Oocyst
A
  • Oocyst
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26
Q

Which are the predisposing factors of pigeon Trichomonosis? (more than one answer may be correct)

  • A-vitamin deficiency
  • Giardiasis
  • Ammonia from litter
  • Iron deficiency
A
  • A-vitamin deficiency
  • Giardiasis??
  • Ammonia from litter
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27
Q

What plays a central role in the pathogenesis of biliary coccidiosis?

  • Cirrhosis
  • Biliary hyperplasia
  • Anaemia
  • Hepatomegaly
A
  • Biliary hyperplasia
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28
Q

Which statement is true for Klossiellosis?

Oocysts form, but are not shed
There is no oocyst
Oocysts are of the Isospora-type
Oocysts pass with the urine

A

Oocysts form, but are not shed

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29
Q

what is not caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?

  • Meningoencephalitis
  • Megalomania
  • Myocarditis
  • Oedema
A

Megalomania

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30
Q

Which plasmodium species is not human pathogenic?

  • P. vivax
  • P. simium
  • P. knowlesi
  • P.ovale
A
  • P. simium
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31
Q

Mostly where does the first schizogony of Leucocytozoon species take place?

In liver parenchyma cells
In endothelial cells
In renal tubular epithelial cells
In muscle

A

In liver parenchyma cells

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32
Q

what is the size range of Trypanosomes?

60-100 μm
30-50 μm
10-20 μm
10-40 μm

A

10-40 μm

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33
Q

How can infection with Encephalitozoon cuniculi typically be acquired?

  • With coprophagy
  • By vectors
  • With eating transport hosts
  • Prenatally
A
  • Prenatally
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34
Q

Where does exoerythrocytaer schizogony of Plasmodium species take place in mammals?

  • Liver
  • White blood cells
  • Lymph node
  • Skin
A
  • Liver
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35
Q

Which host has asymptomatic Trypanosoma brucei evansi infection?

  • Cattle
  • Horse
  • Camel
  • Dog
A
  • Cattle
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36
Q

What may predispose a dog to entamoebosis?

  • Living together with cats which pass cysts in their faeces
  • Eating raw pork
  • Drinking from trophozoite-containing water
  • Entamoebosis of the owner
A
  • Entamoebosis of the owner
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37
Q

The Hepatozoon canis gamont: what is the shape and what cell type is it in?

  • Elliptic, neutrophilic grc.
  • Oval, monocyte
  • Onion-like, splenocyte
  • Round, neutrophilic grc
A
  • Elliptic, neutrophilic grc.
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38
Q

Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen that is taxonomically a protozoon but not a member of phylum Apicomplexa?

  • Cryptosporidium parvum
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Acanthamoeba castellani
  • Encephalitozoon cuniculi
A
  • Acanthamoeba castellani
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39
Q

Which Eimeria sp. May have high pathogenicity similar to that of Eimeria zuernii?

  • E. alabemensis
  • E. ellipsoidalis
  • E. subspherical
  • E. auburnensis
A
  • E. alabemensis
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40
Q

What plays a central role in the background of waving parasitaemia in the case of nagana?

  • Superinfection
  • Exflaggellation
  • VSG expression
  • Immunosuppression
A
  • VSG expression
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41
Q

How many Eimeria spp. May cause either haemorrhagic or fibrinous lesions in the caeca of chickens?

  • Two
  • One
  • Four
  • Three
A
  • Two
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42
Q

How many Eimeria spp. Cause haemorrhagic lesions in the small intestine of the chicken?

  • Five
  • Four
  • Two
  • Three
A
  • Two
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43
Q

Which Eimeria sp. Has low pathogenicity in chickens?

  • E. tenella
  • E. acervulina
  • E. duodenalis
  • E. flavescens
A
  • E. acervulina
44
Q

How can we get infected with giardia from natural water in Central Europe (minimal infectious dose in 10 cysts)?

  • There is no way, because beavers are rare
  • Rarely by drinking natural water
  • During swimming
  • My washing food in natural water
A
  • Rarely by drinking natural water
45
Q

Which does not have cyst?

  • Trichomonas gallinae
  • Giardia duodenalis
  • Acanthomoeba castellani
  • Entamoeba histolytica
A
  • Trichomonas gallinae
46
Q

Please select the highly pathogenic Eimeria sp. For which the location is indicated properly:

  • E. irresidua – jejunum
  • E. flavescens – caecum
  • E. intestinalis – caecum
  • E. magna – duodenum
A

E. flavescens – caecum

47
Q

What is the characteristic lesion of Eimeria bakuensis infection, and in which part of the gut?

  • Haemorrhages in duodenum
  • Colon ulcers
  • Foci in ileum
  • Pseudomembrane in jejunum
A
  • Foci in ileum
48
Q

Of which Eimeria sp. Is it characteristic to cause haemorrhages in a ladder-like pattern?

E. tenella
E. necatrix
E. maxima
E. brunetti

A

E. brunetti

49
Q

what is the characteristic gestation period for neosporosis-related abortions in cows?

  • 2-4 months
  • 4-6 months
  • 8-9 months
  • 6-8 months
A

4-6 months

50
Q

what is the main clinical type of cryptosporidiosis in the birds?

  • digestive
  • renal
  • respiratory
  • ocular
A

respiratory

51
Q

Which are the ways of attenuation in the case of Paracox, Livacox? ( more than one answer)

  • Making subunits
  • Selection for early maturation
  • Gamma irradiation
  • Adaptation to CAM
A
  • Selection for early maturation
  • Adaptation to CAM
52
Q

Which Eimeria species occurs typically in breeding and replacement flocks, but less in broilers?

  • E. acervulina
  • E. mitis
  • E. maxima
  • E. brunetti
A
  • E. maxima
53
Q

Which Trypanosoma sp. Does the causative agent of dourine belong to?

T. brucei
T. equiperdum
T. equinum
T. evansi

A

T. brucei

54
Q

Which protozoon is frequently carried by beavers?

  • Giardia
  • Sarcocystis
  • Trichomonas
  • Babesia
A

Giardia

55
Q

What are the routes of infection with Leishmania spp.?

  • All of these
  • With biting
  • Venereal, transplacental
  • Vector borne
A

All of these

56
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. Cause(s) typically coagulation necrosis?

E. tenella
E. brunetti
E. maxima
E. necatrix

A

E. brunetti

57
Q

Which species will cause mucosal thickening in the colon?

  • Eimeria bakuensis
  • Eimeria arloingi
  • Eimeria ellipsoidalis
  • Entamoeba histolytica
A

Entamoeba histolytica

58
Q

What is characteristic of the pathology of turkey Histomonosis?

  • Generalized form
  • Dry liver necrosis
  • Bloody caecal contents
  • Moist liver necrosis
A

Dry liver necrosis

59
Q

Which is the staining method to distinguish Encephalitozoon cuniculi from protozoan parasites belonging to other groups?

  • Ziehl-neelsen
  • Kinyoun
  • Gram
  • PAS
A
  • Ziehl-neelsen
60
Q

Which Eimeria species does not occur behind the small intestine?

  • E. meleagridis
  • E. meleagrimitis
  • E. gallopavonis
  • E. adenoeides
A
  • E. meleagridis
61
Q

Which phenotype is not characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi?

  • Amastigote
  • Promastigote
  • Epimastigote
  • Trypomastigote
A
  • Promastigote
62
Q

Which of the following lives intracellularly?

  • Promastigote
  • Amastigote
  • Trypomastigote
  • Epimastigote
A
  • Amastigote
63
Q

Infection with which Eimeria species results in sunken eyes, vertigo?

  • E. truncata
  • E. anatis
  • E. anseris
  • E. danailovi
A

E. truncata

64
Q

What should be demonstrated in blood smears in order to diagnose haemoproteosis?

  • Spindle shape Gamont next to the nucleus of white blood cells
  • Spindle shape Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
  • Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
  • Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of white blood cells
A
  • Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
65
Q

What is the host of Eimeria kotlani?

  • Pheasant
  • Duck
  • Goose
  • Turkey
A
  • Goose
66
Q

Which is the main zoonotic Babesia sp. (sensu stricto) in Europe?

  • B. ovis
  • B. bovis
  • B. divergens
  • B. microti
A
  • B. divergens
67
Q

What is the main location of Eimeria maxima?

  • Ileum
  • Rectum
  • Duodenum
  • Jejunum
A
  • Jejunum
68
Q

Which domestic animal is susceptible for the highest number of Cryptosporidium species?

  • Sheep
  • Cattle
  • Pig
  • Dog
A
  • Cattle
69
Q

Which can shed oocysts of Eimeria coecicola?

  • Rabbit
  • Mouse
  • Cat
  • Dog
A
  • Rabbit
70
Q

Which of the following species develops also extraintestinally?

  • Eimeria ninakohlyakimovae
  • Eimeria ovinoidalis
  • Eimeria parva
  • Eimeria crandallis
A
  • Eimeria ninakohlyakimovae
71
Q

How can a dog become infected with Neospora caninum? (more than one answer may be correct!)

  • From raw pork
  • With oocysts
  • Galactogenically
  • Transplacentally
A
  • From raw pork
  • With oocysts ?????
  • Transplacentally
72
Q

Please select the Cryptosporidium sp./spp. For which the location is indicated properly:

  • C. muris – small intestine
  • C. parvum – stomach
  • C. adnersoni – colon
  • C. bovis – small intestine
A
  • C. bovis – small intestine
73
Q

Which Eimeria sp./spp. Have 6 days of prepatent period (More than one may be right!)

  • E. maxima
  • E. brunetti
  • E. necatrix
  • E. tenella
A
  • E. necatrix
  • E. tenella
74
Q

What is the incubation period of dourine?

  • 1-2months
  • 3-4 weeks
  • 14-16 days
  • Can be several years
A
  • 1-2months
75
Q

Where do besnoitia cysts occur in cattle? (More than one may be right!)

  • Respiratory mucosae
  • Epidermis
  • Sclera
  • Genital mucosae
A
  • Respiratory mucosae
  • Epidermis
  • Sclera
  • Genital mucosae
76
Q

Which Eimeria sp. Is highly pathogenic in cattle?

  • E. necatrix
  • E. ellipsoidalis
  • E. zuernii
  • E. bakuensis
A
  • E. zuernii
77
Q

Which Sarcocystis sp. Has carnivores as intermediate hosts?

  • S. rileyi
  • S. procifelis
  • S. cruzi
  • S. neurona
A
  • S. neurona
78
Q

What is the main location of Eimeria tenella?

  • Duodenum
  • Caecum
  • Rectum
  • Jejunum
A
  • Caecum
79
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death in the case of nagana?

  • Heart failure
  • Pneumonia
  • Rupture of spleen
  • Renal failure
A
  • Heart failure
80
Q

What is the incubation period of canine babesiosis?

  • 1 day (also peracute)
  • 4-21 days
  • 1-2 weeks
  • 14-16 days
A
  • 4-21 days
81
Q

Which tick genus includes the main vector of the large babesia of the dog in Europe?

  • Hyalomma
  • Ixodes
  • Haemaphysalis
  • Dermacentor
A
  • Dermacentor
82
Q

Which tick can be the carrier for small babesia in dogs?

A
  • Rhipicephalus
83
Q

Breed disposition to Babesia: (more than one may be right)

  • Dalmatian
  • Spaniel
  • German Shepherd
  • Irish setter
A

spaniel
irish setter

84
Q

Which Giardia genotype occurs frequently in cattle?

  • C
  • D
  • E
  • F
A
  • E
85
Q

What is the end stage of Hepatozoon canis in ticks?

  • Oocysts
  • Syzygium
  • Sporokinetes
  • Free sporozoites
A
  • Oocysts
86
Q

In what can Encephalitozoon spores be found? (more than one answer maybe correct)

  • Faeces
  • Urine
  • Sweating
  • Respiratory secretion
A
  • Urine
87
Q

Which one is not a characteristic sign of surra?

  • Anorexia
  • Anaemia and haemorrhage
  • Paralysis of hind quarters
  • Diarrhoea
A
  • Paralysis of hind quarters
88
Q

Which characteristic of Klossiella species is exceptional among haemogregarines?

  • Development is not restricted to cells of the haemolymphatic system
  • They are homoxenous
  • There may be 40-60 sporocysts in the oocysts
  • Klossiella species are not haemogregarines
A
  • They are homoxenous
89
Q

What is the form Naegleria fowleri does not have?

  • Provided with two flagella
  • Amoebic
  • Cyst
  • Provided with one flagellum
A
  • Provided with one flagellum
90
Q

In which animal does klossiellosis usually have pathogenic significance?

  • Mouse
  • Donkey
  • Rat
  • Horse
A
  • Mouse
91
Q

Which domestic animals do not have Eimeria species?

  • Ducks
  • Carnivores
  • Horses
  • Pigs
A
  • Carnivores
92
Q

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhages?

  • Eimeria anatis
  • Tyzzeria perniciosa
  • Eimeria danailovi
  • Wenyonella philiplevinei
A
  • Eimeria anatis
93
Q

Which clinical sign is not characteristic of encephalitozoonosis?

  • Spasms
  • Ataxy
  • Posterior paralysis
  • Torticollis
A
  • Spasms
94
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death during leishmaniasis?

  • Septicemia
  • Asphyxia
  • Heart failure
  • Renal failure
A
  • Renal failure
95
Q

What can typically result from the infection with cryptosporidium parvum?

  • Crypt hypoplasia
  • Fibrinous pseudomembranes
  • Apoptosis
  • Necrosis
A
  • Apoptosis
96
Q

which ocular sign is usually NOT among tose caused by dourine?

  • strabism
  • nystagmus
  • mydrasis
  • lagophtalmia
A
  • nystagmus
97
Q

what is the incubation period of leishmaniasis?

  • can be up to several years
  • there is no incubation period because of direct inoculation
  • 24-25 days
  • usually 2-3 months
A
  • can be up to several years
98
Q

It sporulated oocyst form in vector (more than one answer may be right)

  • babaesia
  • hepatozoon
  • plasmodium
  • theileria
A
  • babaesia
  • hepatozoon
  • plasmodium
  • theileria
99
Q

which structures can harbour tricomonas foetus?

  • cervix
  • uterus
  • vagina
  • all three
A
  • all three
100
Q

what is cryptosporiduim oocyst?

  • four sporocyst
  • four free sporocyst
  • two sporocyst
  • eight free sporozoites
A
  • four free sporocyst
101
Q

what are likely transport host of tritrichomonas fetus towards cats?

  • earthworm
  • beetles
  • cockroaches
  • slugs
A
  • slugs
102
Q

what is not characterisitcs of equine theileriosis?

  • neurological signs
  • pariental infection
  • hemoglobinuria
  • haemorrhages melaena
A
  • neurological signs
102
Q

what is not characterisitcs of equine theileriosis?

  • neurological signs
  • pariental infection
  • hemoglobinuria
  • haemorrhages melaena
A
  • neurological signs
103
Q

In which host does toxoplasmosis play a large role in the etiology of abortion?

  • sheep
  • cattle
  • cat
  • pig
A
  • sheep
104
Q

Which region of Africa does the acute form of sleeping sickness occur in ?

  • southern
  • central
  • western
  • eastern
A
  • eastern
105
Q

the causative agent of surra

  • does not occur in the EU
  • has broad host spectrum
  • infects only horses
  • its transdermal by tse-tse flies
A
  • its transdermal by tse-tse flies
106
Q

which species occurs also behind the small intestine?

  • Wenyonella philiplevinei
  • eimeria danailovi
  • eimeria anatis
  • tyzzeria pernicosa
A
  • Wenyonella philiplevinei

Eksamen Para2 (3 decks)

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