Protozoa Flashcards

1
Q

Protozoan parasites do not possess a cell wall

A

True

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2
Q

For nutrition, food synthesis and storage

A

Endoplasm

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3
Q

Protozoan special organs for locomotion

A

Pseudopods (sarcodina)
Flagella (mastigopora)
Cillia (cilliophora)
Nonmotile (sporozoans/coccidians)

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4
Q

Intestinal ameba
A. Sarcodina
B. Cilliophora
C. Mastigopora
D. Coccidians

A

A. Sarcodina

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5
Q

Trophozoites are motile, feeding, & vegetative

A

Yes/true

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6
Q

Sarcodina inhabit the large intestine except

A

E. gingivalis

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7
Q

All Sarcodina are commensals except

A

E. histolytica

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8
Q

Sarcodina undergoes encystation except

A

E. gingivalis

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9
Q

Sarcodina divide through

A

Binary fission

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10
Q

What locomotion organ does intestinal ameba possess?

A

Pseudopods

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11
Q

Mass of chromatin

A

Karyosome

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12
Q

Condensed RNA nuclei

A

Chromatoidal bodies

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13
Q

True ameba possess peripheral chromatin & chromatoidal bodies in cyst and trophozoites

A

True

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14
Q

Entamoeba are true ameba

A

True

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15
Q

What genus belong to other classification of ameba (not rue ameba)?

A

Endolimax & Iodamoeba

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16
Q

Enolimax & Iodamoeba possess peripheral chromatin & chromatoidal bodies

A

False

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17
Q

Conditions that may trigger encystation

A

Amoeba over population
pH Change
Food supply
Available oxygen

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18
Q

Final host of E. histolytica & E. oli

A

Man

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19
Q

E. coli & E. histolytica habitat

A

Large intestine

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20
Q

E. coli & E. histolytica MOT

A

Ingestion of infective stage

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21
Q

Pathogenecity of E. histolytica parasite

A

Pathogenic

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22
Q

Pathogenecity of E. coli parasite

A

Commensal

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23
Q

How many nuclie does E. histolytica have?

A

1-4 /Quadrinucleate

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24
Q

How many nuclei does E. coli have?

A

1-8

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25
Q

Karyosome characteristics of E. histolytica cyst

A

Small, centrally located

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26
Q

Karyosome characteristics of E. coli cyst

A

Large, irregular shape, eccentrically located

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27
Q

Peripheral chromatin characteristic of E. histolytica cyst

A

Finely, evenly distributed

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28
Q

peripheral chromatin characteristics of E. coli cyst

A

Coarse & granular, irregularly shaped, unevenly distributed, arranged along nuclear membrane

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29
Q

E. histolytica cyst cytoplasm characteristics

A

Finely granular, clean-looking

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30
Q

E. coli cyst cytoplasm characteristics

A

Coarse & granulated, dirty looking

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31
Q

Rod-shaped, sausage, cigar shaped chromatoidal bar

A

E. histolytica

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32
Q

Splinter-like with pointed ends chromatoidal bar

A

E. coli

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33
Q

coli or histo: thin nuclear membrane

A

histolytica

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34
Q

coli or histo: Thick nuclear membrane

A

coli

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35
Q

Used to differentiate E. histolytica from E. dispar

A

Isoenzyme analysis

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36
Q

RBC is present in E. histolytica, absent in _____

A

E. dispar

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37
Q

Small race of E. histolytica, no RBCs

A

E. hartmani

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38
Q

Also known as/ well known as Laredo Strain, needs serologic analysis to be identified

A

E. moshkovski

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39
Q

How many nuclei does E. histolytica & coli trophozoites have?

A

1

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40
Q

E. coli & histolytica trophozoite shape

A

Irregular, varies in size and form

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41
Q

Directional, unidirectional & progressive movement

A

E. histolytica (trophozoite)

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42
Q

Nondirectional, Nonprogressive, sluggish movement

A

E. coli (trophozoite)

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43
Q

Hyaline, dendritic & finger-like, blunt/extended pseudopodia

A

E. histolytica (trophozoite)

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44
Q

Granular, blunt, rounded pseudopodia

A

E. coli (trophozoite)

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45
Q

Explosive manner of release of pseudopodia

A

E. histolytica (trophozoite)

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46
Q

Several at a time (manner of release of peudopodia)

A

E. coli (trophozoite)

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47
Q

E. histolytica trophozoite nucleus content

A

1 karyosome

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48
Q

E. coli trophozoite nucleus content

A

1 uneven peripheral chromatin

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49
Q

E. histolytica trophozoite Inclusion

A

RBC

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50
Q

E. coli trophozoite inclusion

A

Vacuoles

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51
Q

Coli or histo trophozoite: Finely granular, clean- looking, w/ crystalline- array of ribosomes, “Ground-glass appearance”

A

E. histolytica

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52
Q

coli or histo: Coarse and granulated, Dirty looking usually vacuolated

A

E. coli

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53
Q

Ameba of oral cavity

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

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54
Q

MOT of E. gingivalis

A

Direct contact (Kissing)

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55
Q

Habitat of E. gingivalis

A

Gums
Line of teeth
Tartar
Gingival pocket of teeth of unhealthy/healthy mouths

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56
Q

Pathogenecity of E. gingivalis

A

Nonpathogenic
But seen in patients with Pyorrhea alveolaris

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57
Q

How many nuclei does E. gingivalis trophozoite have?

A

1

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58
Q

E. gingivalis karyosome characteristics

A

Small, centrally located

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59
Q

Pseudopodia of E. gingivalis is similar to _____ but does not exhibit true progressive locomotion

A

E. histolytica

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60
Q

Cytoplasm of E. gingivalis has ____ that contains cellular debris and numerous bacteria

A

Food vacuoles

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61
Q

Parasite found in intestines of pigs and monkeys

A

E. polecki

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62
Q

How many nuclei does E. polecki cyst have?

A

1

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63
Q

E. polecki cyst chromatoidal body is ___?

A

Angular and pointed

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64
Q

E. polecki cyst possess glycogen mass

A

True

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65
Q

E. polecki cyst karyosome characteristics

A

Cetral, evenly distributed peripheral chromatin

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66
Q

How many nuclei does E. polecki trophozoite have?

A

1

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67
Q

Describe E. polecki trophozoite movement

A

Sluggish

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68
Q

E. polecki trophozoite locomotion mechanism/ movement

A

more blunt/extended used for feeding than locomotion

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69
Q

Endolimax nana cyst description

A

Cross-eyed

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70
Q

E. nana cyst contains ___ nuclei

A

2-4

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71
Q

Chromatoidal body in E. nana cyst is rarely seen

A

True

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72
Q

Describe E. nana cyst karyosome

A

Blotlike

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73
Q

How many nuclei does E. nana trophozoite have?

A

1

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74
Q

E. nana trophozoite karyosome description

A

Large, irregular, blot-like

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75
Q

E. nana trophozoite movement

A

Sluggish, usually nonprogressive

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76
Q

E. nana trophozoite Cytoplasm description

A

Granular, vacuolated, may contain bacteria & inclusions

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77
Q

E. nana trophozoite has peripheral chromatin

A

False

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78
Q

Naegleria fowleri infective stage

A

Trophozoite

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79
Q

N. fowleri MoT

A

Inhalation of trophozoite

80
Q

PAM (Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis) causative agent

A

Naegleria fowleri

81
Q

Culture N. fowleri on non-nutrient agar plated with ____.

A

E. coli

82
Q

Acanthamoeba castellanii infective stage

A

Cyst & trophozoite

83
Q

Acanthemoeba castellanii MOT

A

Inhalation/skin penetration

84
Q

Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis (GAE) & Amebic keratitis causative agent

A

A. castellanii

85
Q

Ways to get Amebic keratitis

A

Contaminated Lens washing

86
Q

Culture of A. castellanii

A
  1. Propagation through Blood agar w/ E. coli
  2. Protease yeast glucose concentration with amphotericin B
87
Q

Blastocystis hominis forms

A
  1. Vacuolated
  2. Amoeba-like
  3. Granular
  4. Avacuolar
  5. Multiple infusion
88
Q

Virulence factor of Blatocystis hominis

A

Protease of genetic subtype 3 (for protein degradation)

89
Q

Ameba of pigs

A

Iodamoeba butschlii

90
Q

Describe I. butschlii nucleus

A

Single but large, basket-like

91
Q

I. butschlii have chromatoidal body

A

false

92
Q

I. butschlii cyst vacuole description

A

Large glycogen vacuole

93
Q

Describe I. butschlii karyosome

A

Larce eccentric, surrounded by achromatic granules

94
Q

Describe I. buschtlii trophozoite nucleus

A

Large vesicular

95
Q

I. butschlii trophozoite karyosome is surrounded by what?

A

Achromatic granules

96
Q

I. butschlii trophozoite movement

A

Sluggish, usually nonprogressive

97
Q

Describe I. butschlii trophozoite cytoplasm

A

Coarsely granular

98
Q

I. butschlii trophozoite have peripheral chromatin

A

False

99
Q

Motor component of Atrial flagellates

A

Flagella

100
Q

Atrial flagellate that does not inhabit the large intestine

A

Giardia lamblia
It inhabits small intestines

101
Q

Atrial flagellates that are not commensals

A

G. lamblia
D. fragilis
T. vaginalis

102
Q

Atrial flagellate that does not undergo encystation

A

Trichomonads

103
Q

Atrial flagellates divides through

A

Binay fission

104
Q

Intestinal parasite flagellate of worldwide distribution

A

Giardia lamblia

105
Q

Final host of Giardia lamblia

A

Man

106
Q

Giardia lamblia habitat

A

Small intestines

107
Q

MOT of Giardia lamblia

A

Ingestion of infective cyst (infective stage)

108
Q

Number of nuclei of Giardia lamblia cyst

A

2-4

109
Q

Giardia lamblia cyst shape

A

Football shaped

110
Q

Describe Giardia lamblia trophozoite nucleus

A

2 nuclei, each with karyosome, lying within the sucking disk

111
Q

Giardia lamblia trophozoite shape

A

Pear
Teardrop
Pyriform
Old man with eyeglasses
Symmetrical

112
Q

How many flagella does G. lamblia trophozoite have?

A

4 pairs/ 8 flagella

113
Q

Giardia lamblia movement/motility

A

Falling leaf
Tumbling motility
Erratic tumbling

114
Q

Diseases caused by Giardia lamblia

A

Gay bowel syndrome
Traveller’s diarrhea
Giardiasis
Backpacker’ diarrhea
Beaver fever

115
Q

Describe G. lamblia axostyle

A

Prominent

116
Q

Giardia lamblia attachment mechanism/organ

A

Ventral sucking disk

117
Q

Describe Chilomastix mesnilli cyst nucleus

A

1 with large karyosome

118
Q

Chilomastix mesnilli cyst shape

A

Tear shape
Lemon shape

119
Q

Describe Chilomastix mesnilli trophozoite nucleus

A

1 large spherical nucleus w/ small central/eccentric karyosome

120
Q

Chilomastix mesnilli trophozoite motility

A

Corkscrew
Borring

121
Q

Describe Chilomastix mesnilli trophozoite flagella

A

3 flagella within the cytosome (Shepherd’s crook)

122
Q

Chilomastix mesnilli has a spiral groove

A

True

123
Q

This parasite is a non commensal amoebo flagellate

A

Dientamoeba fragilis

124
Q

How many nuclei does D. fragilis have?

A

2

125
Q

D. fragilis MOT

A

Injection

126
Q

Diagnosis of D. fragilis

A

Trophozoite is identified in stained specimen

127
Q

D. fragilis and ___ can co-infect a person at the same time

A

E. vermicularis

128
Q

Trichomonads undergoes encystation. T or F

A

No

129
Q

Trichomonads general shape

A

Pear-shaped

130
Q

How many flagella does trichomonads usually have?

A

4-5

131
Q

T of F: trichomonads does not have undulating membrane

A

Mali

132
Q

Trichomonas hominis habitat

A

Intestine

133
Q

Trichomonas tenax habitat

A

Oral cavity

134
Q

What trichomonad resides in the urogenital tract and causes strawberry cervix?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

135
Q

Which trichomonad is the smallest?

A

T. tenax

136
Q

Which trichomonad is medium-sized?

A

T. hominis

137
Q

Which trichomonad is the largest?

A

T. vaginalis

138
Q

Trichomonad with ovoidal nucleus and has jerky motility

A

T. hominis

139
Q

Trichomonad with round nucleus and has a jerky motility

A

T. tenax

140
Q

Tricomonad with undulating membrane that is as long as the costa

A

T. hominis

141
Q

Trichomonad with undulating membrane that has a length of 2/3 of the costa

A

T. tenax

142
Q

Trichomonad that has an undulating membrane that has a length 1/2 of the costa

A

T. vaginalis

143
Q

Which trichomonad has siderophil inclusion bodies?

A

T. vaginalis

144
Q

Specimen/s for the diagnosis of T. vaginalis

A

Urine
Vaginal swab

145
Q

Specimen of choice for the diagnosis of T. tenax

A

Oral scrapings

146
Q

Specimen of choice for the diagnosis of T. hominis

A

Tae

147
Q

Which trichomonad/s is/are (a) commensal parasite/s?

A

T. hominis & T. tenax

148
Q

Which trichomonad/s is/are (a) pathogenic parasite/s?

A

T. vaginalis

149
Q

E. histolytica virulence factors

A

GAL Nac Lectin (adhesion)
Amoebapores (forms pores to cell membranes)
Cysteine proteinases (cytopathic effects to the cells)

150
Q

These parasites may infect the blood, lymph nodes, muscles, and RES

A

Hemoflagellates

151
Q

Most prevalent nonviral STI

A

T. vaginalis

152
Q

T. cruzi & T. brucei infective stage to Final Host

A

Metacyclic trypomastigote

153
Q

Leishmania spp. infective stage to Final host

A

Promastigote

154
Q

East african trypanosoma

A

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

155
Q

West african trypanosoma

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

156
Q

Trypanosoma brucei complex vector

A

Tsetse fly

157
Q

East african trypanosoma primary reservoir

A

Animals

158
Q

West african trypanosoma primary reservoir

A

Humans

159
Q

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense causes (Acute or chronic?) illness

A

Chronic

160
Q

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense causes (Acute or chronic?) illness

A

Acute 👉🏽👈🏽

161
Q

Rhodesiense or gambiense: minimal lymphadenopathy

A

Rhodesiense

162
Q

Rhodesiense or gambiense: Prominent lymphadenopathy

A

gambiense

163
Q

rhodesiense or gambiense: low parasitemia

A

gambiense

164
Q

rhodesiense or gambiense: High parasitemia

A

rhodesiense

165
Q

Trypanosoma brucei complex diagnostic stage

A

Trypomastigote

166
Q

Trypanosoma brucei complex specimen of choice

A

CSF
Chancre aspirate
Lymph node aspirate
Blood

167
Q

T. cruzi & T. rangeli vector

A

Reduviid bugs
Feces of the bug enter through skin break caused by the bug’s bite

168
Q

T. rangeli primary reservoir

A

Wild rodents

169
Q

T. cruzi primary reservoir

A

Opossums, dogs, cats, wild rodents

170
Q

Symptomatic illness ( T. cruzi or T. rangeli)

A

cruzi

171
Q

Asymptomatic illness (T. cruzi or T. rangeli)

A

T. rangeli

172
Q

Cutaneous leishmaniasis causative agent

A

Leishmania tropica

173
Q

Leishmania tropica infective stage

A

Promastigote

174
Q

Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by

A

Elevated skin ulcer/s

175
Q

Leishmania tropica vectors

A

Phlebotomus papatasi & sergeni

176
Q

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis causative agent

A

Leishmania braziliensis

177
Q

Leishmania braziliensis vector

A

Phlebotomus perwensis & verucarum

178
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis causative agent

A

Leishmania donovani

179
Q

Leishmania donovani vector

A

Argentipes

180
Q

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis A.K.A

A

New world leishmaniasis

181
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis A.K.A

A

Kalaazar
Black fever

182
Q

Causes Benign Tertian Malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax

183
Q

72 hour cycle
Infects old cells
Normal sized RBCs

A

Plasmodium malariae

184
Q

Causes Quartan malaria

A

Plasmodium malariae

185
Q

48 hour cycle
Infects lung cells
Enlarged RBCs

A

Plasmodium vivax

186
Q

36-48 hour cycle
Infects any cell
All size RBCs

A

Plasmodium falciparum

187
Q

Causes malignant tertian malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

188
Q

24 hour life cycle
Infect any cells

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

189
Q

Mimics earlier stages of Plasmodium falciparum

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

190
Q

48 hour life cycle
Infect young cells
Enlarged RBCs w/ fibriated edges

A

Plasmodium ovale

191
Q

Plasmodium spp with orange juice dots

A

Plasmodium ovale

192
Q

Sporogony is the asexual reproduction in man

A

False
Sporogony is the sexual reproduction in vector

193
Q

Schizogony is the asexual reproduction in man

A

True

194
Q

Sporozoite is the infective stage to man in Plasmodium spp.

A

Trut

195
Q

Definitive host of malarial parasites

A

Vector (Female anopheles mosquito)

196
Q

Intermediate host of malarial parasites

A

Man

197
Q

Resides in the large intestine
MOT: ingestion of cyst
Has macronucleus for vegetation
Mas micronucleus for reproduction

A

Balantidium coli