Protocols Flashcards

1
Q

Abdominal pain/trauma assessment considerations- history

A

-History of traumatic event- mechanism/time
-Vomiting- timing, color, amount
-Stool- timing, color, amount, consistence
-Abdominal surgeries or chronic GI disease
-Previous similar episodes
-Last menstrual period, birth control
-Pregnancy related causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Interventions for patients with suspected or diagnosed bowel obstruction for changes in altitude

A

Place gastric tube prior to flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What exam should be performed for all patients with abdominal trauma

A

eFAST

must document in ePCR: ultrasound completed/indication/impression/image number/ultrasound device number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when should an ultrasound be performed on a pregnant patient

A

when they present with lower abdominal pain with or without vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What complication do you prepare for with potential solid organ injury

A

hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What abdominal injury do you consider a low altitude flight path?

A

If potential for hollow organ rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when can ischemic cardiac pain present as abdominal pain

A

in elderly patient and/or anterior wall AMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What pediatric diagnosis may present with a chief complaint of abdominal pain

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

atraumatic abdominal pain in pediatric patients should warrant what assessment

A

thorough pulmonary assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ACS assessment considerations- history

A

-Presenting symptoms- chest pain
- Associated symptoms- nausea, diaphoresis, shortness of breath, dizziness, lightheaded, back pain
- Risk factors- familial, smoking, obesity, HTN, DM
-Previous episodes- course, treatment, diagnosis
-Hx of cardiac surgery, pacer/AICD, prescriptions
-Recent illicit drug use
- treatment prior to arrival
-Activity prior to onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Minimum O2 sat goal with ACS

A

at or above 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

timeframe to obtain 12 lead

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

STEMI criteria

A

ST segment elevation in two or more contiguous leads
-2mm elevation in leads V2, V3
-1 mm elevation in all other leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Actions for notification after meeting STEMI criteria

A

call STEMI alert to receiving hospital as soon as evident along with the name of cardiologist if known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When to perform serial 12 lead ECGs

A

if patient continues to complain of ACS or prolonged transport time to evaluate potential evolving cardiac events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for patients with evidence of inferior wall MI

A

administer 250 mls LR bolus prior to administering NTG unless SBP>150. Repeat boluses to maintain SBP>100.
Monitor pulmonary assessment for development of pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

nitro administration

A

if SBP greater than 100, give NTG 0.4 SL Q5min x3 or initiate NTG gtt titrated to chest pain relief while maintaining SBP greater than 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

nitro gtt dose

A

5-200 mcg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nitro gtt concentration

A

50 mg in 250mls D5W (200 mcg/ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aspirin administration with ACS

A

give 324 mg chewable ASA. withhold ASA if taken within the last four hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment if no relief of chest pain from NTG or SBP <100

A

-Fentanyl 1-2 mcg/kg (to max single dose 100 mcg) Q5 min
- morphine 2-5mg increments Q5min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Interventions if STEMI and SBP >140 and HR >100

A

-metoprolol 5 mg IV Q115min x3 doses as long as SBP >90 and HR >60
-may be given in conjunction with NTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ACS with symptomatic sinus brady associated with inferior MI

A

Consider Epi injusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Epi concentration

A

1 mg of Epi (1mg/1ml) in 100 mls NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Epi gtt dose

A

0-0.5 mcg/kg/min (IBW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ACS Heparin orders with confirmed STEMI in the field

A

if STEMI is called in the field, call the receiving facility for heparin orders to administer prior to or during transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Interfacility transfer with confirmed STEMI heparin administration

A

If patient has not received Heparin or low molecular weight heparin, administer heparin as follows:
- Heparin bolus: 60 units/kg to max 5000 units
-heparin infusion: 12 units/kg/hr, rounded to the hearest 50 units, max 1000 units/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

heparin gtt concentration

A

mix 5000 units Heparin in 250 ml NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Contraindications for administering heparin with ACS

A

-patient received low molecular weight heparin
-INR over 2.5
-Evidence of bleeding, such as extensive bruising, hematemesis, melena, history of intracranial bleed, or evidence of hepatic failure
- antiplatelet medications are not considered a contraindication to heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Types of low molecular weight Heparins

A

Enoxaprin (Lovenox), Dlteparin (fragmin), and Tinzaparin (Innohep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ACS what to do if patient is taking or has received na anticoagulant other than a low molecular weight heparin

A

consult medical control for orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If patient received TNK, what do you do in regards to anticoagulation

A

must obtain orders for Heparin prior to administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

goal temp for interfacility TTM transfer

A

34-36 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

treatment for shivering in TTM patient

A

no not paralyze if possible, choose analgesia and /or sedation first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

additional consideration for interventions with an inferior MI

A

consider performing a right sided 12 lead EKG (V4R) to assess right sided ventricular involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treatment of heart block associated with ACS

A

-Wenchebach associated with inferior MI is commonly transient and should be treated conservatively
- Mobitz 2 or 3rd degree associated with anterior MI is commonly permanent. Strongly consider placing pacer pads for transportation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

antiplatelet medications

A

ASA, Plavix, Integrilin, Abciximab (Reopro), Tirofiban (Aggrastat), Brilinta, Effient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anticoagulants

A

Angiomax, Argatroban, Warfarin, Eliquis, Pradaxa, Xarelto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ventilator modes okay to utilize for ARDS

A

either volume or pressure control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

goal vent settings with ARDS

A

Plateau pressures <30 with tidal volumes of 6-8 ml/kg/IBW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

PEEP parameters for adults and peds for ARDS

A

May use higher PEEP (up to 14/ up to 10 for pediatrics) without calling medical director. if PEEP >14 at the sending facility, may continue PEEP per sending MD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

SAT goal with ARDS

A

88%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

for ARDS if PEEP >12 and FIO2 100% what other interventions can we do

A

paralyze with Rocuronium 1 mg/kg IV prior to and/or during transport and bolus every 30 minutes to maintain paralysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Requirements for ARDS diagnosis

A

Bilateral diffuse infiltrates on imaging, PAO2:FIO2 ratio <300, acute onset (<1 week), cause felt to not be from fluid overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Classifications of ARDS

A

-Mild (P:F 200-300)
-Moderate (P:F 100-200)
-Severe (P:F <100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Five P’s of supportive therapy

A

Perfusion, positioning, protective lung ventilation, protocol weaning, preventing complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Action to consider when switching an ARDS patient to the transport vent

A

Consider clamping the ETT prior to switching to transport vent to retain recruitment of the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ARDS and fluid status goals

A

ARDS patients do better with lower volume status (goal CVP 4-8) and may benefit from diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Inhaled Flolan or Nitric Oxide

A

may be used by sending facility and may be continued during transport with sending physician orders. Do not suddenly discontinue these as it may cause rebound and fatal hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Number of intubation attempts for careflight

A

limit two endotracheal intubation attempts before an alternate airway is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

SAT goals during intubation

A

goal is to assure no SpO2 <90 during intubation attempts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is required to chart during an intubation

A

lowest SPO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When should an LMA be used?

A

An LMA can be used at any point for adult or pediatric patients, at medical crew discretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How to confirm ETT/LMA placement

A

-Visualization of ETT going through vocal cords
- Appropriate capnography waveform within 30 seconds of airway placement, ETCO2 greater than 10
-Visible chest rise
- Bilateral breath sounds
- Absent epigastric sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When is it appropriate to transport a patient without an advanced airway?

A

if unable to insert ETT/LMA but adequate oxygen saturation can be maintained with BVM with PEEP valve set from 3-8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If unable to establish advanced airway or adequately ventilate with BVM, what interventions are done for adult and pediatric patients

A

Adult: surgical cricothyrotomy
Pediatrics: Needle cricothyrotomy for patients less than 12 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When should you confirm placement of an artificial airway?

A

After every patient move (down a flight of stairs) and after all transfers of care between providers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What monitoring is required for all intubated patients

A

Continuous cardiac and ETCO2 is required, including those receiving CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What do you monitor continuously on all intubated and perfusing patients

A

SpO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What position is used on intubated patients to minimize risk of ventilatory associated pneumonia

A

Elevate head of bed/apply 30 degree reverse trendelenburg unless contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Criteria for using RSI for intubation

A

-intact gag reflex
-Trismus
- GCS 8 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

prepare equipment and medications using O-BLEAK SCENE checklist

A

-Oxygen/OPA/NPA
-Bougie
-ET tube
-Ambu bag
-King vision or laryngoscope
-Suction
-Commercial suctioning device
-End tidal setup
- Neuromuscular blockade
-Effective, appropriate induction agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

factors to take into account prior to intubating a high shock index patient

A

for high shock index >1 ensure patient is adequately resuscitated via IV fluids and administer push dose Epi as needed. consider hemodynamically stable induction agents at a reduced dose to prevent further shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Hemodynamically stable induction agents

A

Etomidate or Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

protocol for preoxygenation prior to intubation

A

pre-oxygenate for 2-5 minutes using high flow oxygen via nasal cannula, assisting ventilation only if apneic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

goal SAT for pre-oxygenation

A

100% SPO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

oxygenation provided during intubation

A

passive apneic oxygenation via nasal cannula 15 lpm throughout procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

when to discontinue intubation attempt based on SPO2

A

if SPO2 drops below 90% in a patient that achieved SPO2 over 95% with passive oxygenation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

intervention after terminating intubation attempt

A

Ventilate with BVM with PEEP valve set from 3-8 to increase SPO2 goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

analgesia and/or attenuation to be used in patient with increased ICP

A

consider Fentanyl 2-3 mcg/kg prior to induction (max single dose 200 mcg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Sedation and intubation drugs and doses

A

-Ketamine: 1-2 mg/kg
-Midazolam 0.2 mg/kg (may repeat x1 up to 10 mg)
-Etomidate: 0.3 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

paralytic for intubation

A
  • Rocuronium: 1 mg/kg (IBW)
  • Vecuronium: 0.1 mg/kg (IBW)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

IBW algorithm for male and female

A

Male: 52 kg + 1.9 kg/inch over 5 feet
Female: 49 kg + 1.7 kg?inch over 5 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

if utilizing cricoid pressure, when should you release the pressure

A

if the patient vomits, release the pressure and suction as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

After induction and paralysis, what criteria must be met prior to intubation

A

when jaw flaccid and gag is no longer present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Interventions if bradycardia occurs during intubation

A

Ventilate using BVM with PEEP valve, set PEEP to 8 and high flow oxygen, if no response, give Atropine 0.02 mg/kg (max dose 0.5-1 mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

sedation protocol post intubation

A

continue sedation/analgesia per Pain and Anxiety protocol immediately after medication assisted intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Continued paralysis- Rocuronium/Vecuronium

A

Roc: 1 mg/kg every 30 minutes
Vec: 0.1 mg/kg every 30 minutes

Both must be accompanied by Versed/Propofol/ketamine for sedation and/or Fentanyl/Ketamine for analgesia if CPOT >2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

PEDS analgesia and/or attenuation of increased ICP

A

consider Fentanyl 2-3 mcg/kg prior to inducation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

PEDS sedation and induction medications and doses

A

-Ketamine 1-2 mg/kg
-Midazolam 0.1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

PEDS paralysis medications and doses

A

-Roc: 1 mg/kg
-Vec: 0.1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Cricoid pressure protocol for pediatric patients

A

Cricoid pressure is contraindicated in PEDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Continued paralysis for PEDS

A

-Roc: 1 mg/kg IV every 30 minutes
-Vec: 0.1 mg/kg IV every 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Different duration in time for PEDs and paralysis

A

Duration is shortest in children 2-11 yo and longest in neonates and infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Sedation to accompany paralysis in PEDS

A

Must be accompanied by Versed or Ketamine for sedation and/or Fentanyl or Ketamine for analgesia if FLACC>2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Protocols if unable to establish advanced airway for PEDS but can oxygenate with BVM

A

If oxygen saturation can be maintained by BVM with PEEP set from 3-8, the patient may be transported without an advanced airway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Protocol if unable to establish advanced airway and unable to oxygenate with BVM- PEDS

A

needle cricothyrotomy is considered for patients <12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When to consider antiemetics for intubated patients

A

for supine patients who have a contraindication to elevated HOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

potential complications from Fentanyl in PEDS patients

A

Rigid chest may occur with rapid administration of
Fentanyl in peds patients and infants and can be treated with Narcan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

patient positioning that can help improve intubation success rate

A

consider elevating patient’s shoulders and allowing the neck to extend in patients in whom cervical motion restriction is not indicated, especially pediatric patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

special considerations for sedation medications for patients in shock

A

it is recommended to stay on the low end of dosing when using Ketamine or Etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Shock index relevance for PEDs patients

A

shock index is not a reliable factor for mortality in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What can be used on intubated patients to help prevent accidental extubation

A

cervical collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

advanced airways and burn patients

A

LMA may be an adequate airway management tool in patients with airway burns, the majority of airway burns do not descend below the vocal cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Initial things to check when a patient starts to deteriorate

A

immediately recheck ETT/LMA position if patient condition starts to deteriorate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

BVM ventilation between administration of paralytic and intubation

A

once paralyzed, air can b easily introduced into the stomach with BVM ventilation. Avoid BVM ventilation between administration of paralytic and intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Treatment of airway obstruction in awake adult

A

Abdominal thrusts until the obstruction is alleviated or patient is unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Treatment of airway obstruction in unconscious patient

A

-position head, finger sweep, attempt ventilation
-if unable to ventilate, attempt visualization with laryngoscope. If visible, attempt removal with McGill forceps, taking care not to cause further obstruction
- if still unable to ventilate, attempt intubation. If unable, move to surgical cricothyrotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Treatment of airway obstruction in awake PEDS patient- younger than 1 year old

A

chest thrusts and back blows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Treatment of airway obstruction in awake PEDS patient- over 1 yo

A

abdominal thrusts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Treatment of airway obstruction in unconscious PEDS patient

A

-position to open airway, attempt assisted ventilation
-if unable to ventilate, attempt visualization with laryngoscope. if visible, attempt removal with McGill forceps, taking care not to cause further obstruction.
-If still unable to ventilate, attempt intubation. if unable, move to needle cricothyrotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Allergy/Anaphylaxis/Extrapyramidal reaction/Angioedema History questions

A

-time of onset of symptoms
-progression of symptoms
-trigger, if known
-prior episodes
-known allergies, history of angioedema in first degree relatives
-treatment by patient, bystanders, or first responders
-new medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Allergy/Anaphylaxis/Extrapyramidal reaction/Angioedema physical questions

A

-flushing, presence of rash, evidence of scratching
-edema- location, extent
-ability to talk, muffled/stridor, ability to handle secretions
-dysphagia/pain with swallowing
-breath sounds- wheezes, stridor, absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Extrapyramidal reaction

A

-Diphenhydramine 25 mg IV/IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Mild-swelling, itching, redness, hives

A

-Diphenhydramine 25-50 mg IM or slow IVP
- Famotidine 20 mg IVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Moderate- mild symptoms and wheezing, difficulty swallowing, mild HOTN

A

-Diphenhydramine
-Famotidine
-Methylprednisolone 125 mg IVP
-Albuterol HHN up to 3 doses
- consider Epinephrine 0.5 (1mg/ml) IM, with progression of symptoms or history of severe reaction. may repeat x1 dose
-If sedation is required, consider Ketamine 0.5-1 mg/kg IV/IO if wheezing or bronchorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Severe- impending respiratory failure, severe HOTN

A

-Epi 0.5 mg IM
-Epi 0.1 mg Q3 min, up to a max of 0.3 IV/ETT (1mg/10ml
) only if impending or actual cardiac arrest. IV Epi should be reserved for symptoms refractory to IM Epi or impending cardiovascular collapse.
-Diphenhydramine
-Famotidine
-Methylprednisolone
-LR 20 ml/kg (IBW) bolus. repeat as necessary
Ketamine 0.5-1 mg/kg if wheezing or bronchorrhea
-consider Epi infusion for continued HOTN at 0-0.5 mcg/kg/min (IBW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

PEDS Mild allergic reaction- swelling, itching, redness, hives

A

-Diphenhydramine 1mg/kg IV or IM, max 25 mg
-Famotidine 1 mg/kg, max 20 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

PEDS Moderate- mild symptoms with wheezing, difficulty swallowing, mild HOTN

A

-Diphenhydramine 1mg/kg, max 25 mg
-Famotidine 1 mg/kg, max 20 mg
-Methylprednisolone 0.5-1 mg/kg IVP
-Albuterol HHN up to 3 treatments
-Consider Epi 0.01 mg/kg IM (1mg/ml) max 0.3 mg with progression of symptoms or history of severe reaction. repeat x1 if needed
-If sedation is required, consider Ketamine 0.5-1 mg/kg if wheezing
-Consider starting IV LR here instead of waiting for more profound HOTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

PEDS- severe allergic reaction- impending respiratory failure, severe HOTN

A
  • Epi 0.01 mg/kg IM, max 0.3 mg. repeat x1 if needed
    -Epi 0.01 mg/kg IV q3 min, max single dose of 0.1 mg. Max total dose of 0.3 mg and use as a bridge to Epi drip when symptoms are refractory to IM Epi
    -Diphenhydramine
    -Famotidine
    -Methylprednisolone
    -Ketamine if sedation is required
  • NS or LR IV bolus 20 ml/kg, repeat as necessary
  • consider Epi drip 0.1-1 mcg/kg/min for continued HOTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Allergic reaction association between severity and time to onset of symptoms

A

the shorter the time from contact to onset of symptoms, the greater the potential for severe reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

most common causes of anaphylaxis

A

-foods, particularly nuts and shellfish
-insect stings
-drugs, particularly antibiotics
-latex
-iodine contrast dyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Angioedema treatment

A

It is not an allergic reaction but we treat it as such. prepare for intubation if symptoms are progressing because diphenhydramine and Epi have little effect. consider discussions with sending facility of plasma (FFP) transfusion for prolonged transfers in patients with hereditary angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Epi for anaphylaxis precautions

A

use cautiously in patients who are >50 years of age, have a history of cardiac disease or if the patient’s HR is >150. Epi may lead to cardiac ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

possible complications from Epi

A

Associated with high incidence of ventricular dysrhythmias, hypertensive crisis, and pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Medications that can lead to extrapyramidal side effects

A

Antipsychotic medications such as Haldol, or phenothiazine derivatives such as promethazine or compazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

extrapyramidal side effects

A

dystonia, akathisia, and or agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

treatment for extrapyramidal side effects

A

diphenhydramine (this is not an allergic reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

initial intervention with any altered mental status

A

measure blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Treatment for hypoglycemia, Adult

A

<60 give 100-200 ml of D10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Treatment for hypoglycemia, PEDS

A

<1 month of age: BGL <40, give 2ml/kg of D10

> 1 month of age: BGL<60, give 2ml/kg D10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

For PEDS patients, dextrose infusion should be initiated to prevent recurrently hypoglycemia once they are euglycemic

A

<1 month of age: D10 at 5ml/kg/hr

> 1 month of age: D10 at 2ml/kg/hr

increase rate by 1ml/kg/hr every 15 minutes to maintain blood sugar above 40 for infants and above 60 for children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How often do you repeat a blood glucose after interventions

A

Repeat assessment every 10 minutes, repeat dextrose as needed until patient alert and oriented or normal glycemia is achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

When can oral glucose be utilized

A

if the patient is alert with a glucose <60 (only on CCT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What else can be given if the hypoglycemia is suspected to be due to chronic alcoholism or severe malnutrition

A

Thiamine 100 mg slow IV push

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Adult dose for Narcan

A

0.4 mg IV/IO/ET/IM or 2 mg IN. titrate by doubling the dose each time Q5 min to max of 2 mg if cause of decreased LOC is not immediately apparent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

PEDS dose for Narcan

A

0.1 mg/kg every 5 min (max single dose 0.4) up to 2 mg IV/IO/IM/ET/IN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

potential next step if AMS and no response to dextrose or Narcan and unable to protect airway

A

Advanced airway management if patient unable to protect airway or maintain adequate oxygenation/ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

AMS- when to obtain 12 lead EKG

A

If suspected cardiac cause, cardiotoxic ingestion or electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What needs to be ruled out with AMS prior to intubation

A

Rule out reversible causes such as hypoglycemia, drug or narcotic toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Considerations when dosing Narcan

A

only give enough Narcan to achieve adequate ventilation, but not to “wake” the patient completely. prepare for possibility of vomiting/withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Acute confusion and signs of sepsis

A

sepsis is common cause of AMS in elderly, typically females is UTI and men is PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

signs of opioid overdose post Narcan administration

A

a rapid, pronounced increase in LOC, dilation of pupils, piloerection, rhinorrhea and return or respiratory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

AEIOU-TIPS mnemonic for causes of AMS

A

A- Alcohol, Apnea, Arrhythmia, Anaphylaxis
E- Epilepsy, Environmental (heat, cold)
I- Insulin
O- overdose
U- uremia
T- trauma
I- infection
P- Psychiatric, poisoning
S- Stroke, shock, sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Common causes of coma for PEDS

A

poisoning, diabetes, child abuse or neurologic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Thermalregulation and PEDS with AMS

A

AMS in PEDS who is exposed can become quickly hypothermic, assure application of continuous temp monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

continuous monitoring for patients receiving medications for anxiety/agitation

A

SPO2 and side stream ETCO2 is recommended when not intubated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Versed- Adult dosing for push and gtt

A

IV/IO/IM: 1-5 mg Q5 min, max dose 10 mg. may give alone or in combination with an antipsychotic (reduce by 50% in chronically ill or geriatric patients)
Drip: 1-10 mg/hr continuous infusion (10 mg/100mls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Ketamine- Adult dosing push and drip

A

IV/IO: 0.5-1 mg/kg Q10 minutes
IM: 0.5-2 mg/kg, may repeat x1 at 0.5-1 mg/kg
IN: 0.5-3 mg/kg, may repeat x1 at 0.5-1 mg/kg
Post intubation: 1-2 mg/kg Q10 minutes
Excited delirium: 0.5-2 mg/kg IM initially, continue with 1-2 mg/kg IV

Drip: 0.1-2 mg/kg/hr (500 mg in 100mls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Extreme agitation or excited delirium Haldol dose

A

5 mg IM/IV Q5-10 minutes, titrate to max 15mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

PEDS Versed IV/IO dose

A

0-5 yo: 0.05-0.1 mg/kg Q10-15 minutes
6-12 yo (less than 50kg): 0.025-0.05 mg/kg
>12 yo: adult dosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

PEDS versed IM, IN, post intubation

A

IM: 0.05-0.1 mg/kg, max total dose 10 mg
IN: 0.2 mg/kg single dose, may repeat in 15 in, max dose 10mg/dose
Post intubation: 0.05-0.12 mg/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

PEDS Ketamine dosing

A

IV/IO: 0.5-1 mg/kg Q10 minutes
IM: 0.5-2 mg/kg, may repeat x1 at 0.5-1 mg/kg
IN: 0.5-3 mg/kg, may repeat x1 at 0.5-1 mg/kg
Post intubation: 1-2 mg/kg Q10 minutes

Drip: 0.1-2 mg/kg/hr (500 mg in 100mls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

IN administration practices

A

50% in each nostril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Contraindications for Ketamine infusion

A

Globe injury, liver disease, uncontrolled HTN, history of psychosis.

Avoid in older patients, schizophrenics and patients with heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

settings where ketamine is useful

A

-when initial treatment such as benzos or antipsychotics have failed
- In patients with excited delirium (agitated delirium)
-adrenergic excess often related to acute-on-chronic drug abuse in patients who may have mental illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

during of action for ketamine

A

10-20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

side effects of Ketamine

A

HTN, tachycardia, laryngospasm, emergence reactions, and vomiting (more common after a rapid IV administration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

When to consider other sedation medications aside from Ketamine

A

in patients with significant HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What medication can be considered to attenuate psychotropic effects and recovery agitation when giving Ketamine

A

Versed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Aortic Emergencies VS goals

A

Goal HR <60 and SBP 100-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

If an aortic emergency, what intervention should be performed

A

12 lead EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What medication should not be used that is within the Pain/Anxiety protocol

A

Ketamine due to its mechanism of action and potential to worsen the patients’ overall outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is given to avoid HTN and tachycardia

A

beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Medications given for suspected aortic dissections

A

Start with Labetalol 10-20 mg IVP. may repeat x1 in 10 minutes. If target VS is not achieved, begin Labetalol gtt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Medications for confirmed dissection

A

-Labetalol gtt 1-10 mg/min to goal HR/BP (100mg/100mls)
-Nipride, Nicardipine or Clevidipine may be requested from the sending facility if Labetalol is max and HR <50, SBP >120. Dose to be ordered by sending provider
-If above are not available, Nitro infusion may in initiated. 5-200 mcg/min to achieve target SBP (premix 50 mg/250D5W)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is the goal bedside time for Aortic Dissection patients

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Typical location of dissection based on symptoms

A

Ascending (type A) may present with anterior chest pain
Descending (Type B) pain will often be experienced posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Special considerations when calling report for dissection

A

Be sure to clearly state that the patient is an “aortic emergency”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What to do in aortic emergency patients with available lab values

A

If labs show a decrease in HGB or additional evidence of bleeding, consider requesting the sending facility send blood, either O negative or type specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What to do if drop in HGB or evidence of bleeding but no type and cross

A

Do not delay transport for type and cross to be done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

In what scenario should you consult a physician prior to starting Beta blocker for an aortic emergency patient

A

if the patient has used meth or cocaine within the past 72 hours, consult physician. isolated Beta blocker use can cause unopposed alpha stimulation resulting in increased blood pressure. need alpha antagonist if going to give beta blocker in this patient population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

first line treatment for meth/cocaine users with aortic emergency and HTN/tachycardia control

A

Benzos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

typical symptoms to raise suspicion of an aortic emergency

A

chest pain tearing to back is a typical presenting symptom but higher suspicion if associated with neurological changes or new onset heart murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Symptoms of involvment of the ascending aorta

A

back pain, anterior chest pain, hemodynamic instability, diastolic cardiac murmur, tamponade, syncope or stroke, weak or absent carotid or subclavian pulse, upper extremity pain/parasthesia/motor deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

symptoms of a descending aorta

A

back pain, chest pain, abdominal pain, weak or absent femoral pulses, lower extremity pain/paresthesia/motor deficit, acute paraplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

possible EKG findings iwth aortic emergency

A

right coronary artery involvement and signs of ACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

trauma and aortic emergencies

A

trauma will rarely cause classic dissection, however, it may induce a tear at the aortic isthmus. hive a high index of suspicion for possible aortic rupture or transection in patients suffering from blunt chest trauma secondary to acute decelerations (MVAs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

classification for HTN crisis

A

SBP>210 or SBP>110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

what additional parameters are necessary to initiate treatment for HTN crisis

A

if the patient is symptomatic and after two confirmed blood pressure readings five minutes apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

besides antihypertensives, what other meds can be given for HTN

A

relief of pain/anxiety may lower blood pressure to acceptable levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Additional test to get with HTN

A

12 lead ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What percentage do we not want to surpass for how quickly you decrease the BP

A

BP should not decrease by more than 25% of initial reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Labetalol administration for HTN

A

10-20 mg SIVP over 1-2 minutes, repeat x1 in 10 minutes (if HR >60)

Labetalol infusion: initiate infusion at 1-10 mg/min (100mg/100mls remove 20 mls from bag)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Nicardipine infusion for HTN

A

initiate at 5mg/hr, titrate by 2.5 mg/hr Q10 minutes. max dose 15 mg/hr (25mg/100mls, remove 10 mls from bag)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Hydralazine dose for HTN

A

10-20 mg SIVP Q15 min, max dose 60 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Patient population to use hydralazine with caution

A

in patients with suspected cardiac morbidities due to possibility of reflex tachycardia with resultant increased oxygen demand and ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

non anti-htn medication treatment for patients with HTN emergency due to illicit drug use

A

sedation with benzos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Medication to avoid in HTN patients with illicit drug use

A

Avoid use of Beta blocking agents alone as this may easily result in HTN emergency and end organ failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Definition of HTN emergency

A

diagnosed by evidence of end organ dysfunction or failure such as elevated BUN and Creatinine or oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Interventions for asymptomatic and otherwise healthy patients with severe essential HTN

A

these patients should not be treated due to possible relative HOTN and subsequent end organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Goal in treating most HTN emergencies

A

reduce BP by 25% in the first 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

patient population that is an exception and requires a more rapid reduction in blood pressure

A

patients with aortic dissection are treated more aggressively. Must call for a much more rapid blood pressure reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Epi push for HOTN

A

5-20 mcg (0.5-2mls) IVP Q1-5 minutes (Mix 1 ml of Epi in 9 ml saline, 10 mcg/ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Criteria for HOTN

A

2 consecutive SBP <60 documented 2 minutes apart (to avoid treating a false reading of HOTN) or significant HOTN with other indications of hypoperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

PEDS push Epi dose

A

1 mcg/kg max dose 20 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Epi dose for imminent threat of cardiac arrest with a pulse

A

250-500 mcg of 0.1 mg/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

pharmacology for Epi

A

Epi has Alpha 1 and 2, Beta 1 an d2 so it is an inopressor. the onset of effects are seen in <1 min and while the duration of a single dose may last 10 minutes, in almost all cases the effects are gone within 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Interfacility transfer administration of blood products

A

Verify patient name and DOB with the patient, with order, and that patient is wearing ID band with correct information. Verify with two clinicians prior to initiating the infusion and document names in PCR.

Confirm donor number, blood product type, expiration date, and patient ID all match blood product paperwork.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Indications for prehospital emergent blood administration

A

patient must have: penetrating injury, significant blunt traumatic injury or significant visible hemorrhage

And 2 of the following:
-SBP <90 and HR>120
-or SBP <70
- HGB <7 if lab work is available
- hypovolemia confirmed by POCUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

PEDS vitals criteria for emergent blood transfusion

A

-SBP <70
-HR >150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Documentation for emergent blood administration

A

Verify blood product type, expiration date, blood product paperwork, and donor number with
both crew members prior to initiating infusion. Visually confirm that the blood product appears to
have no foreign objects, discoloration, clots, sediment, or cracks in the container leading to
leaking. Document verification in PCR including name of hospital sending the product, MD
releasing the blood, and number and type of product released to provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Informed consent for emergent blood transfusion

A

Informed consent to be obtained as soon as possible with patients who are responsive. In
patients who are non-responsive, emergent administration should be initiated without consent.
Documentation of patient’s mental status and emergent reason for administration should be
done in the PCR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

PEDS infusion for blood products

A

max dose of 20 ml/kg of blood. infuse at a wide open rate with pressure bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Adult-Rate to administer blood products for emergent transfusion

A

infuse at a wide open rate with a pressure bag. monitor closely for s/s of transfusion reaction and /or volume overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

vital signs during blood transfusion

A

document VS Q10 minutes with both pre and post transfusion VS including temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Fluids compatible with blood products

A

NS, ABO compatible plasma or albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Rate for administering non emergent blood products

A

start at 60-120 ml/hr for 15 minutes then as rapidly as tolerated to complete within 4 hours from removal from blood bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Complications to monitor for from blood transfusion

A

fluid overload, pulmonary edema, poor cardiac or renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What can be given with some complications from a blood transfusion

A

consider giving lasix if the patient develops signs of fluid overload or TRALI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What do you do with the blood products once you arrive at the facility

A

leave all blood products used and unused, tubing and documentation with the receiving facility and document name of the person who received it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

S/s transfusion reaction

A

pain at infusion site, back and substernal pain, dyspnea, HOTN, bleeding due to DIC, mental status changes, hives, itching, fever, wheezing, HA, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

some blood transfusion reactions present as mild allergic reactions to anaphylaxis, now are they treated

A

treat as appropriately according to the allergic reaction protocol when necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

interventions for a blood transfusion reaction

A

stop transfusion, get immediate vital signs, notify receiving MD, note what time unit was stopped and how much was infused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

PEDS non emergent transfusion administration rate

A

Start at 2.5 ml/kg/hr to avoid circulatory overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

PEDS non emergent transfusion administration rate for patients at risk for volume overload

A

Decrease to 1 ml/kg/hr or call PICU MD for verbal order on rate, product type and volume to be infused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Special consideration for vital signs for pediatric patients and blood administration

A

keep patient warm, monitor temperature using continuous temp probe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Transfusion parameters based on hgb

A

in patients with a documented hgb >7, limit further transfusions unless actively bleeding or hemodynamically unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Fluids to avoid giving with blood products

A

no LR, dextrose or calcium containing solutions or medications in the same line at the same time as blood. Can be given through a different lumen of a central line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Expected change in labs from one unit of RBC

A

one unit of PRBC contains approximately 200 ml of red cells and in an adult will increase hgb by 1 point and the hct by 3-4% unless patient is continuing to bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Current recommendations for “damage control” massive transfusion

A

Massive transfusions are 1:1:1 ratio of PRBC/FFP/Plt to ensure hemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Temperature monitoring and blood transfusions

A

it is essential to maintain normal body temperature to prevent further coagulopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Blood warmer temperature parameters

A

if using a blood warmer, do not heat blood product above 40 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

oxygen release in transfused RBC vs normal RBC

A

oxygen release by transfused RBC is diminished in comparison to normal RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

stored RBC and 2, 3 diphosphoglycerate (DPG) levels

A

Blood storage decreases 2, 3 diphosphoglycerate (DPG) levels, leading to a left shift in the
carboxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. Therefore, there may be immediate problems with
oxygen unloading post transfusion. However, RBC’s regenerate 2, 3 DPG to normal levels
within 6-24 hours after transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Consideration for calcium replacement with blood transfusions

A

If a patient has received greater than 4 units of PRB’s, consider the necessity for calcium
replacement. Stored blood products contain citrate, an anticoagulant / preservative that
functions by binding ionized calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

hypocalcimia and the clotting cascade

A

significant calcium depletion may interfere with the function of several key clotting factors in the coagulation cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

potential electrolyte issues in infants and patients with impaired renal function

A

patients with impaired renal status may develop hyperkalemia due to intracellular shifts during blood storage or irradiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

blood product type to consider for men and women in an emergent blood transfusion

A

consider O neg or O pos for men and women whom child bearing is not a consideration

for girls, pregnant women and women of childbearing age, consider O neg if possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

History questions for flame injury

A

-Fire occurred in enclosed space or outside?
-Patient location when found (inside or outside)?
-How did the patient escape the fire?
-Did the clothes catch on fire?
-How long did it take to extinguish the flames and how were the flames extinguished?
-Was there an explosion and did the patient get thrown?
-Was the patient unconscious at the scene?
-Evidence of fuel or chemical spill that could result in a chemical burn as
well as thermal injury?
-ETOH/drug use?
-Are the purported circumstances of the injury consistent with the burn characteristics
(i.e., is abuse a possibility)?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

History questions for scald injuries

A

-What was the temperature of the liquid (from faucet, cooking)?
-How much and what was the liquid?
-Was the burned area cooled and with what?
-How long was it cooled for?
-Who was with the patient when the burn took place?
-How quickly was care sought?
-Where did the burn occur (e.g., bathtub, kitchen)?
-Are the purported circumstances of the injury consistent with the burn characteristics (i.e., is
abuse a possibility)?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

history questions with chemical injury

A

-What was the agent(s)?
-How did the exposure occur?
-What was the duration of contact?
-What decontamination occurred?
-How long was the patient decontaminated for?
-Is there a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) available? -Is there any evidence of ocular
involvement ?
-Is there any evidence of illegal activity?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

History questions with electrical burns

A

-What kind of electricity was involved: high (>1000volts) or low voltage, AC or DC?
-What was the duration of contact?
-Was the patient thrown or did they fall?
-Was there loss of consciousness?
-Was CPR administered at the scene?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

assessment with flame and chemical injury

A

Assess for inhalation injury:
-facial burns
-singed nasal hair
-carbonaceous sputum
-hoarseness and/or stridor (soot on the face is not an inhalation burn unless accompanied by any of the above findings)

Circumferential burn and area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Assessment with scald injuries

A

-Percentage of burns
-Evidence of abuse- even lines vs spatter pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Assessment for chemical injuries

A

location and extent of burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Assessment for electrical injuries

A

Describe wounds and locations, do not attempt to identify entrance and exit wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Measuring percentage body surface area burned

A

Estimate percentage of partial and full thickness burns using Rule of Nines or patients full palm, including fingers, as an estimate of 1% of BSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

When to intubate a patient with burns

A

intubate early if sings of inhalation injury and airway compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Burn patients and removal of clothing

A

remove clothing that does not adhere to the patient along with jewelry and other constricting objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

oxygenation interventions if carbon monoxide poisoning is possible

A

administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Ideal positioning of burned limbs

A

elevate burned limbs if possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

body temp management with burn patients

A

cover with blankets or chemical blanket and provide continuous temperature monitoring. Administer heated IV fluids. Increase temperature of transport vehicle

Consider plastic sheeting such as Chux with plastic to patient’s skin or silver emergency blanket, to preserve heat and prevent evaporative fluid loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Fluid resuscitation for flame, scald and chemical burns

A

For partial thickness and full thickness burns greater than 20% BSA, initially administer warmed
IV fluids at 500 ml/hr while calculating fluid administration formula: 2mL x weight in Kg x %
TBSA burned over 24 hours. Flow rate to give 50% of total fluid over the first 8 hours from time
of injury. LR is preferred for burn care. Interfacility transfer: ask sending facility for enough LR to
complete the trip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Intervention for PEDS burns to figure out fluid recommendations

A

If possible call UC Davis for fluid recommendations. Call UMC or Sunrise Hospital and Medical Center for burns originating out of central/south Nevada where Las Vegas is the closest burn center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

PEDS- initial warmed fluid rate while calculating burn formula

A

0-5yo: 125 ml/hr
6-13yo: 250 ml/hr
>13 yo: 500 ml/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

PEDS burn fluid resuscitation equation

A

3ml x weight in Kg x % TBSA over 24 hours, flow rate to give 50% of total fluid over first 8 hours from time of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Additional fluids given for PEDS burn patients <14 yo

A

add D5W at maintenance rate in addition to fluid resuscitation

Maintenance rate:
- 4ml/kg for first 10 kg plus
-2 ml/kg for next 10 kg plus
-1 ml/kg for every kg after that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

For chemical injuries, what must be done prior to loading patient into the aircraft

A

Ensure patient has been decontaminated per HAZMAT protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

intervention for small chemical injuries

A

for small, isolated chemical burns, decontaminate patient using running water for 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Initial action when arriving to a scene with an electrical injury

A

stop and confirm that the scene is safe. do not approach the victim until the scene has been cleared of active wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

CPR and lethal rhythms after electrical injuries

A

initiate CPR as needed, treat dysrhythmias per cardiac Dysrhythmia protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Fluid resuscitation for Electrical injuries- all ages

A

4ml x weight in KG x %TBSA burned over 24 hours. Give 50% total fluid over first 8 hours from the time of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Burn injuries that may be transported directly to a burn center include the following

A
  • partial thickness burns of greater than 10% of the TBSA
    -Significant burns that involve the face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum or major joints
    -third degree burns in any age group
  • electrical burns, including lightning injury
    -chemical burns
    -inhalation injury
  • burn injury in patients with preexisting medical disorders that could complicate management, prolong recovery or affect mortality
  • burn injury in patients who will require special social, emotional or rehabilitative intervention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Exclusion criteria to patient not going to a burn center but meets the burn center criteria

A

the burns are complicated by major trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Protocol to bring patient to burn center and patient originates in the state of nevada

A

The Care Flight staff member will contact an ED physician at RRMC via phone or radio to inform the trauma center that the patient meets burn center referral criteria
and can be transported to the burn center without unreasonable delay. The physician can then
elect to have the patient bypass the ED and continue to UC Davis Medical Center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

If the ED physician agrees to have the patient continue transport by air directly to UCD, the medical crew member will contact the ACS. what information is relayed to the ACS by satellite phone:

A
  • Type of burn injury (thermal, chemical, electrical)
    -TBSA %
  • location of burns
  • airway status
    -age and sex of patient
    -Name and DOB - satellite phone only since this is protected health information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Next step after information is relayed to ACS

A

ACS will contact UCS and request admission of the patient to the burn unit. If the ICU is able to accept the patient, then the aircraft will continue

ACS will then call the burn unit to relay the provided information to the unit. the aircraft will call a radio report as usual to the UCD ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Steps if UCD is unable to accept the patient

A

the patient will go to RRMC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Steps if UCD is unable to accept a burn patient and the patient originates from Cali

A

Follow California LEMSA policy for transfer to the most appropriate facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

If you are transporting a patient that has a dressing on the burn what should you do

A

remove dressings and examine burn to re-estimate depth of bun and BSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Airway management for flame inhalation burns

A

flame inhalation rarely affect the area below the vocal cords. A LMA is a reasonable alternative to ETT intubation if attempts at intubation have failed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Airway management for liquid and aerosolized chemicals

A

liquid and aerosolized chemicals are more likely to affect the supraglottic areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

burns that affect subglottic area

A

subglottic injury occurs from smoke inhalation (may be toxic from burning chemicals) and presents with primarily wheezing and bronchorrhea. Endotracheal intubation is considered to be the definitive airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What other intervention should be requested from the sending facility

A

Foley placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What can you expect with the BSA over time

A

expect the BSA and depth of burn to extend. Reassess and adjust fluid calculations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Way to decrease extension of burn

A

maintaining normothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

special considerations for elderly and very young patients in regards to burns

A

these populations have thin skin. burns in these age groups may be deeper or more severe than they initially appear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Heart rate expectations with burns

A

normal adult HR should be 100-120 with burns. if HR is less than 100, investigate reasons such as medications, cardiac abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Blood pressure expectations with burns

A

HOTN is not expected in burn patients. assess for other causes, such as trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

possible complication from full thickness chest burns

A

may restrict chest expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

interventions with full thickness chest burns and high peak pressures

A

Remove form the vent and check compliance with BVM with PEEP valve set at 8, check for airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Circumferential burns and time frame to cause restriction

A

It typically takes hours for circumferential burns to cause restriction, so that is not usually a problem with scene flights. If interfacility transfer and patient is already some time into the burn, consider Escharotomy by the transferring physician prior to flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Treatment for escharotomy on areas other than the chest

A

it is not recommended to complete until the patient reaches the burn center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

interventions for patients with facial burns

A

inspect eyes, if suspected burn to eyes, instill ophthalmic anesthetic and irrigate with sterile NS if time allows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Considerations for PEDS with scald burns

A

scald burns are frequently associated with abuse. abuse is much more likely if the burn is symmetrical. Burn from spilled liquids or when a child steps into hot water tend to be unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Rule of 9’s adult measurements

A

Head- 9%
Chest- 18%
Back- 18%
Front arm (each)- 4.5%
Back arm (each)- 4.5%
Front leg (each)- 9%
Back leg (each)- 9%
Genital- 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Rule of 9’s PEDS measurements

A

Head- 14%
Chest- 18%
Back- 18%
Front arm (each)- 4.5%
Back arm (each)- 4.5%
Front leg (each)- 8%
Back leg (each)- 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Rule of 9s INFANT measurements

A

Head- 18%
Chest- 18%
Back- 18%
Front arm (each)- 4.5%
Back arm (each)- 4.5%
Front leg (each)- 7%
Back leg (each)- 7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Supportive measures initiated for PEA/asystole

A

-CAB (compressions, airway, breathing)
- CPR, rhythm checks no more than every 2 minutes and for no longer than 10 seconds. Pulse check only if organized rhythm is present
-cardiac monitor
-ETT/LMA placement
-Obtain IV access. IO access after 2 failed IV attempts or if IV is not feasible
-confirm in at least two leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Consider possible causes for PEA/asystole

A

-hypovolemia
-tension pneumothorax
-hypoxia
-acidosis
-cardiac tamponade
-hypothermia
-pulmonary embolism
-myocardial infarction
-drug overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

treatment for PEA/asystole causes

A

-NS fluid bolus
-chest decompression
-check tube placement
-ventilate
-pericardiocentesis
-remove from
-environment/actively rewarm
-Narcan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Epi administration IV or ETT

A

1mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes or 2.5 mg ETT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

how to obtain additional orders or orders to terminate treatment

A

consult medical control for possible administration of sodium bicarb, termination of efforts, or permission to transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

What must be completed prior to termination of efforts

A

a minimum of 3 rounds of epi must be given and cardiac US must be done to confirm cardiac standstill/fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

What does a large increase in ETCO2 usually indicate

A

a return in spontaneous circulation, stop CPR and check for pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

supportive measurements to initiate for Afib RVR (>120)

A

-Chest compressions, airway, breathing
-administer oxygen to assure adequate oxygenation
-cardiac monitor
-obtain IV access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Classifications of Afib with RVR

A

-Stable- asymptomatic and normotensive
-unstable- shock: SBP<80, or MAP <60
-Symptomatic- Lightheadedness, SOB, hypoxic (requiring more than 10 liters), chest pain, syncope but adequate BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Interventions for stable Afib with less than 20 minutes transport time

A

monitor without therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Interventions for stable Afib with more than 20 minutes transport time

A

-SBP >100 give metoprolol 5 mg IV, if no response to HR and SBP >100, may repeat x1
- if no response after second dose, call medical control for additional orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Treatment for unstable AFib

A

-Synchronized cardioversion with sedation (100/150/200J)
-Address hotn with fluids and/or pressors consurrent with amio 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
-begin amio infusion IV at 1 mg/min (40 ml/hr) (mix 150 mg amio in 100 mls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

treatment for acute symptomatic AFib

A

-Amio 150 mg x1 over 10 minutes
-if greater than 20 minutes transport, may start amio infusion at 1 mg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

treatment for symptomatic chronic afib

A

-Metoprolol 5 mg IV x1
-If HR remains >110, Metoprolol 5 mg every 5 minutes to a total of 15 mg
-to maintain HR <110 start IV Labetalol drip at 0.5-10 mg/min (hold for SBP <80) (Mix 100mg of Labetalol in 80 ml NS) (1mg/ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

If patient has pre-exising bundle branch block Afib with RVR may appear as a wide complex tachycardia

A

if unsure of pre-existing BBB, assume to be ventricular in nature and treat accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

treatment of afib >48 hours and risk of CVA if converted back to SR

A

Avoid cardioversion in these patients unless unstable, otherwise make all attempts at rate control only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Association between rate of patients with AFib in the ICU

A

up to 30% of chritically ill patients will convert into afib during icu stay due to cardiac irritation from primary illness and/or electrolyte abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

information needed for chronic Afib patients

A

be sure to acquire anticoagulation history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Supportive measures initiated for patients with bradycardia (HR<60 with signs snd symptoms of poor perfusion)

A

-Maintain patient airway, assist breathing as needed
-Administer oxygen to assure adequate oxygenation
-Monitor EKG, blood pressure, oximetry
-Obtain and interpret 12 lead EKG
-Obtain IV access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Treatment for 2nd degree type 2 or 3rd degree heart block with s/s of poor perfusion

A

Immediate TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Treatment not 2nd degree type 2 or 3rd degree with s/s poor perfusion

A

-Atropine 1 mg !V every 3-5 minutes. Max 3 mg
-TCP if unresponsive to Atropine or unable to obtain IV access. If conscious, consider pain/sedation management
-If refractory to interventions, consider Epi infusion at 0-0.5 mcg/kg/min (IBW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

treatment for any bradycardia with no s/s of poor perfusion

A

transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Atropine should not be given for a high degree AV block with poor perfusion if it delays what intervention

A

TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Atropine should be used cautiously in the presence of what acute/chronic medical health issue

A

acute coronary ischemia or MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

supportive measures initiated with narrow complex tachycardia

A
  • Chest compressions, airway, breathing
    -Administer oxygen to assure adequate oxygenation
    -cardiac monitor
    -Obtain IV access
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

possible alternate causes of narrow complex tachycardia

A

Sepsis, PE, hypovolemia, excessive energy drink consumption, drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Intervention for narrow complex tachycardia with s/s poor perfusion and patient is not verbally responsive

A

Cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Steps for interventions for SVT with s/s poor perfusion

A

-valsalva maneuver
-Adenosine 6 mg
-Adenosine 12 mg
-Sychronized cardioversion (100/150/200J)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Interventions for Afib/AfL with s/s of poor perfusion

A

synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Interventions for narrow complex tachycardia with no s/s of poor perfusion

A

contact medical control for Adenosine orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Intervention that must be done when given Adenosine

A

perform continuous EKG strip during administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Supportive measures initiated for Vfib or pulseless VT

A

-Chest compressions, breathing, airway
-CPR, rhythm checks no more than every 2 minutes and for no longer than 10 seconds. pulse check only if an organized rhythm is present
-Use cardiac US during one of the pulse checks, it it can be done in less than 10 seconds, to evaluate for tamponade and cardiac activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

protocol for unwitnessed arrest

A

after 2 minutes of CPR, defibrillate at 120J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

protocol for witnessed arrest

A

Defibrillate at 120J, give 2 minutes of cpr then check rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Pulseless VT/VF treatment

A

-Defib 150J, CPR 2 minutes, ETT/LMA placement, IV/IO placement
-Epi 1 mg IV/IO or 2.5 mg ETT every 3-5 minutes
-Defib 200J. CPR 2 minutes
-Amio 300 mg IV/IO or
-Lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg
-Defibrillate 200J, CPR 2 minutes
-Amio 150 mg IV/IO or lidocaine 0.5-0.75 mg/kg
-Defib 200J. CPR 2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Medication that can be started if transport time is over 20 minutes.

A

Amio gtt at 1 mg/min (150 mg in 100 mls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

If IV/IO access is not possible, what medications besides Epi can be given through the ETT

A

Lidocaine may be administered via ETT at 3mg/kg and repeated once. If this converts the patient to a perfusing rhythm, begin a Lidocaine gtt at 2-4 mg/min (2 mg in 500mls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Medication given for Torsades de Pointes

A

2mg IV magnesium wide open (2mg in 100 mls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Intervention to be performed after 3 unsuccessful standard defibrillation attempts for refractory VF

A

place a new set of pads A/P and continue energy delivery at 200J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Intervention completed if patient is in refractory VF and another cardiac monitor is available

A

move to Double Sequential External Defibrillation (DSED) after 3 unsuccessful standard defibrillation attempts. Place a second set of pads A/P, charge both monitors to 200J and deliver shocks. Verify that pads are not touching to reduce risk of damage to the defibrillators. Ensure the same provider is administering the defibrillation to prevent simultaneous discharge and to allow for a 1sec delay in between defibrillation shocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

Wide complex tachycardia with a pulse initial interventions

A

-if HR<150, obtain a 12 lead EKG to confirm rhythm
-if HR >150, use the algorithm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

interventions for patient that is alert, conscious and without signs of poor perfusion

A

-amio 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
-transport and consider amio gtt at 1mg/min if over 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Wide complex tachycardia and the patient is not conscious, alert and shows signs of poor perfusion

A

-if conscious, sedate per Anxiety/Agitation protocol
-Synch cardioversion 100J, if no response
-Synch cardioversion 150J, if no reponse
-Synch cardioversion 200J, if no response
-Synch cardioversion 200J, if no response
-Amio 150 over 10 minutes, if no response
-synch cardioversion 200J then contact medical control for further orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

What intervention is performed on all patients with chest trauma

A

eFAST examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

signs of tension pneumothorax

A

absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation, HOTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

what intervention is performed when there is evidence of tension pneumothorax

A

needle thoracostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

what is performed if needle thoracostomy is unsuccessful x2

A

simple thoracostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Becks triad

A

-jugular venous distention
-muffled heart sounds
-narrow pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

when to perform pericardialcentesis

A

with evidence of potential for pericardial tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Interventions for evidence of large flail segment with decreased gas exchange

A

intubation and positive pressure ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

what to do for a sucking chest wound

A

apply occlusive dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

intervention for impaled objects

A

stabilize the object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Treatment for patients suspected to have pulmonary contusions

A

use judicious fluid administration. If intubated, assess plateau pressure and implement PRVC mode on the ventilator for lung protection strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Interventions for a pneumothorax greater than 25%

A

consider placing chest tube prior to transport. if possible, confirm chest tube placement prior to transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

PEDS and chest trauma

A

Pediatric chest walls are thinner and more pliant. the lungs are more easily injured. Bony injury is rare and should lead to suspicion of abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

initial interventions to rewarm patient

A

remove wet and constrictive clothing, remove rings from fingers and constrictive jewelry. only remove wet clothing if possibility of cold exposure is decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

positioning of cold trauma patient

A

maintain supine position, avoid rough movement and excess activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

warming blankets and heat pack placement

A

cover with chemical warming blanket focusing on the truncal areas. Apply chemical hot packs to axilla/groin, chest, and back (in that order). Heat should never be applied directly to the skin to prevent burning. Utilized a barrier between chemical blankets and/or hot packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

IV fluids with cold trauma

A

IVF should be warmed. Rapid rewarming to temp slightly above body temperature is the single most effectvie treatment. Re-warm until the skin is pliable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

monitoring core temp

A

monitor core temp using rectal or esophageal probe. rectal temp should be placed in a warm environment to limit exposure of patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

methods to not use to rewarm patient

A

do not re-warm with exercise or rubbing. do not break blisters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Circumstance/area to not re-warm patient

A

do not re-warm in the field if there is a risk of refreezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

how to protect areas of involvement

A

protect areas from further injury with padding and bandages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

positioning of affected limbs

A

elevate and immobilize affected areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

medication to be given with signs of frostbite

A

give 324 ASA if patient is able to safely swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

when to not perform CPR for cold trauma patients with absent pulse or breathing

A

patients with lethal injuries, avalanche burial >35 minutes with complete airway obstruction by snow and asystole, or chest is too stiff for CPR, do not resuscitate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

assessing for signs of life

A

assess for signs of life for up to 1 minute by palpating central artery and assessing cardiac rhythm. may use ultrasound to assist with assessing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Defibrillation if core body temp is <30 degree C

A

deliver one attempt at defibrillation at the usual dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Defibrillation if core body temp >30 degrees C

A

may repeat defibrillation attempts per ACLS protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Medication dose and frequency with ACLS and cold trauma

A

give usual dose for medications being administered, but dosing intervals should be twice as long as usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

transportation of hypothermic patients

A

transport all severely hypothermic patients regardless of response to ALS procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

Mild hypothermia (32-35 degree C)

A

-patient may be shivering, with clear consciousness or slightly altered level of consciousness.
-Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hyperventilation. ataxia, dysarthria, and impaired judgment may be noted
-Prevent heat loss and insulate. remove wet clothing and insulate with blankets
-Encourage shivering and calorie intake. passive external rewarming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Moderate Hypothermia (28-32 degree C)

A

-patient is not shivering with impaired/altered LOC
-Bradycardia with CNS depression, lethargy, Osborne wave on ecg, hypoventilation, muscle rigidity
-Prevent heat loss, insulate, active external and internal warming. Hot packs to truncal areas, chemical blanket to truncal areas.warmed IVFs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Severe hypothermia (below 28 degree C)

A

-patient is comatose, unconscious or may appear to be dead
-Arflexia, organized rhythm on EKG, cold and inflamed skin, fixed pupils, apnea
-ABCs, intubate and continue CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Profound hypothermia (<13.7 degree C)

A
  • Death as a result of irreversible hypothermia or apparent death
    -CPR may be delayed after evacuation if it is not possible or safe to perform CPR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Core temperature afterdrop

A

caused by conductive heat loss after removal from cold exposure. Stems from the warmer core heat loss to the cooler peripheral tissue as blood flow increases. This has a potential to cool the heart causing VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Circumrescue collapse

A

related to patients of cold water immersion just before, during, or after
removal from water. This may be caused by threatening hypotension or sudden onset VF.
Removing the patient from water decreases hydrostatic pressure allowing blood to pool in
dependent areas causing syncope, collapse, and core temperature afterdrop. Keeping a patient
horizontal and being gentle allows mitigation of decreased hydrostatic pressure to avoid
afterdrop and hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

fluid resuscitation for moderate to severely hypothermic patients

A

saline lock IVFs after boluses will help prevent further cooling from the cooling IVFs. continuous IVFs are not recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

fluid bolus type

A

LR is contraindicated in hypothermia patients due to the cold liver’s inability to metabolize lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Intubation in cold trauma patients

A

RSI with paralysis may not be effective in overcoming trisus produced by profound hypothermia. Cricothroidotomy may be required for cold induced trismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

rectal and esophageal temperature monitoring

A

rectal temp may lag behind core temp by as much as an hour versus esophageal temp monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

additional route to provide rewarming

A

consider HHFNC for rewarming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

benefits of intermittent CPR for patients in severe to profound hypothermia

A

patients with core temp <28 degree C should receive 5 minutes of CPR with alternating periods of <5 min without CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Frostnip

A

Partial freezing of tissue, superficial
- redness
-mild swelling
-pallor
-edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Frostbite

A

True freezing injury of tissue. made evident by sudden blanching of skin, followed by tingling. Intense numbness, followed by cold. Officially considered frostbite when the area becomes painless. partial thickness involves skin and subcutaneous tissue.
-clear blisters
-numbness or burning
-redness and/or graying of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

Deep frostbite

A

involves bode, muscles, tendons
- bluish, gray skin with bleeding blisters and severe swelling
-loss of function and tissue destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

fluid bolus for DKA patient

A

bolus 20 ml/kg of LR over one hour if not initially given. If hemodynamically unstable, rapidly infuse bolus and treat with additional fluid bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

if insulin gtt was not started by the sending facility,

A

initiate infusion at 0.1 unit/kg/hr to a target BG <300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

K level that you should not start the insulin gtt

A

less than 3.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

change to insulin gtt after BG drops below 300

A

decrease insulin gtt to 0.05 units/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

BG level to no let the BG level drop below

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

intervention if BG drops below 250

A

begin D10 maintenance gtt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

intervention if BG drops below 100

A

stop insulin gtt and recheck BG in 15 minutes, continue D10 gtt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

intervention if BG less than 80 despite D10 gtt

A

give 50-100 D10 bolus and recheck BG in 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Interventions if K at sending facility is less than 5.3

A

request than potassium be added to maintenance bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

how frequently do you check the BG

A

every 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

DKA vs HHS

A

DKA in adults often have a glucose level of 350-500 mg/dL compared to HHS where there is
little or no keto acid accumulation, with a glucose level often >1000 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

risk for cerebral edema in DKA patients

A

Cerebral Edema is more common in patients younger than 20yo and occurs from too rapid correction of osmolarity (too quick of a drop in glucose or changes in sodium). Symptoms
emerge 12-24 hours after initiation of treatment of DKA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

S/s of cerebral edema

A

Headache is the earliest clinical manifestation, but may include vomiting, altered and/or fluctuating mental status, focal neurologic deficits, and lethargy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

bicarb administration in DKA

A

Bicarbonate therapy is controversial in DKA/HHS use as it may cause a decreased rate of recovery of ketosis, neurological deterioration, and post-treatment metabolic alkalosis. It is not
recommended in our protocol unless ordered by sending provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

treatment for euglycemic DKA

A

This DKA management is the same as above, but being cautious to start dextrose fluids early to prevent hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

PEDS DKA fluid bolus

A

Fluid bolus 10ml/kg of NS. An additional bolus of 20 ml/kg may be administered if patient remains hemodynamically unstable or exhibits signs of poor perfusion. max dose is 30 ml/kg total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

Insulin gtt protocol for PEDS

A

Insulin gtt should be started at a rate of 0.05-0.1 units/kg/hr. insulin gtt should never be discontinued unless severe hypoglycemia occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

target BG for PEDS

A

<250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

BG level that is classified as severe hypoglycemia in PEDS and calls for discontinuing insulin gtt

A

<100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

Insulin gtt rate for PEDS <5 yo or with insulin sensitivity

A

gtt may begin at 0.025 units/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

PEDS and insulin bolus

A

Insulin bolus should be avoided in PEDS patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

maintenance rate of NS for PEDS DKA patients

A

initiate maintenance rate of NS at 1.5x the normal calculated rate

Maintenance rate
-4ml/kg for first 10kg plus
-2 ml/kg for the next 10kg plus
-1ml/kg for every kg after that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

Adjustment to insulin/fluids after BG reaches 250- PEDS

A

D10 should be initiated at rate of 1.5x the normal calculated rate and insulin infusion should be continued at the same rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

Goal to maintain BG above a certain level for PEDS DKA

A

BG should be kept above 150 during transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

interventions if BG drops below 100- PEDS DKA

A

stop insulin infusion and continue D10 at 1.5x the normal rate and consult medical direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

Potassium parameters for replacement DKA for PEDs

A

If serum K from sending facility is less than 5.0 request potassium to be added to maintenance bag. Over 5.5, no Potassium replacement is to be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

frequency of BG check for PEDS DKA

A

every 30 minutes or more frequent monitoring is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

Special considerations for who initiates insulin gtt for PEDS pt

A

If the patient originates from a hospital and an insulin gtt has be initated, ask if the insulin was ordered by the receiving Peds intensivist. If the insulin order did not come from a peds intensivist and you are unable to contact the peds intensivist, discontinue the insulin gtt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

DKA criteria

A

-hyperglycemia: usually BG >200
-Metabolic acidosis: Venous pH <7.3 or plasma bicarb <18
-Ketosis: presence of ketones in the blood or urine, elevated serum beta hydroxybutyric acid
-Be aware that there are rare cases of normoglycemic DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

DKA criteria for PEDS patients, different from adult

A

Expect the PEDS DKA patient to present with a total potassium deficit, despite a possible elevated serum potassium level from lab data. This occurs due to intracellular exchange of hydrogen ions for potassium, leading to urinary potassium loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

Criteria for HHS

A

-Hyperglycemia usually >600
-Minimal acidosis
-Absent to mild ketosis
-Marked elevation in serum osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

Insulin administration with HHS in PEDS patients

A

Delayed insulin administration is recommended in PEDS for HHS. Contact Peds intensivist for further orders with HHS in PEDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

Treatment for DKA that can increase risk of cerebral edema

A

-No insulin bolus should be administered prior to starting insulin gtt
-Bicarbonate therapy has been associated with development of cerebral injury. Rapid correction of acidosis with bicarb may result in hypokalemia
-Failure for sodium levels to rise as the glucose level decreases is associated with cerebral injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

danger of hypoglycemia

A

hypoglycemia is much more dangerous in any patient than hyperglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
391
Q

Positioning intervention for extremity trauma/amputation

A

Immobilize injured extremity and reassess pulses, motor function and sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
392
Q

Dressing for open fractures

A

Apply sterile dressing to open fractures. carefully note wounds that appear to communicate with bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
393
Q

Care for open fractures that are grossly contaminated

A

have dirt/debris removed by saline irrigation or wiping followed by sterile dressing application. Vaseline dressings may be utilized as an initial layer over an open fracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
394
Q

areas to splint from extremity trauma

A

areas of tenderness or deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
395
Q

how to splint a deformity

A

try to immobilize the joint above and below the injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
396
Q

realigning fractures/dislocations by applying gentle axial traction only if indicated

A

-restore distal circulation and only if >15 minutes ETA
-Immobilize adequately
-for extricate or to position in aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
397
Q

Treatment of simple extremity injuries

A

elevate extremity and apply cold packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
398
Q

Medication given with an open fracture or any break in skin over obvious fracture

A

Administer Ceftriaxone 2 gm SIVP (Mix 2gm in 20 ml NS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
399
Q

PEDS dose of medication given with an open fracture or any break in skin over obvious fracture

A

PEDS over 7 days old: 50 mg/kg SIVP (up to 2gm). mix in 10 ml NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
400
Q

Treatment of amputaions

A

-apply a tourniquet just proximal to the level of amputation
-Rinse wound with sterile saline, place moist sterile dressing over stump and pressure wrap
-Rinse amputated part in sterile saline, wrap in dry pads and place in dry container on ice. Avoid cold injury to part. Transport part with patient whenever possible
-Do not remove foreign bodies, stabilize securely
-Consider administration of ASA in interfacility setting if bleeding is controlled and there is a possibility of reimplantation. ASA sending facility to administer an ASA suppository per rectum if available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
401
Q

Treatment for partial amputation

A

-Place in anatomical position and splint
-Wrap in bulky sterile saline moistened dressing and keep moist
-Save any avulsed tissue

402
Q

when to consider tourniquet conversion

A

Convert extremity tourniquet to hemostatic packing and/or pressure bandage as soon as practical to help salvage tissue and prevent TQ related injury

403
Q

criteria to perform tourniquet conversion

A

-If the patient is not in shock
-If the wound can be closely monitored
-If TQ is not providing bleeding control for an amputation
-If TQ has been in place for <6 hours

404
Q

hemorrhage with amputations

A

most amputations do not create uncontrolled hemorrhage, arteries frequently contract into the stump

405
Q

If MAP <65 consider causes of hotn and hemodynamic instability. Initiate vasopressors while addressing volume status

A

-Levo infusion at 0-1 mcg/kg/min (IBW) (mix 4mg in 250 D5W)
-For continued hotn with max dose levo, may start Epi 0-0.5 mcg/kg/min (IBW)
- Consider push dose Epi as a bridge until the vasopressors are infusing. Epi 5-20 mcg

406
Q

Push dose PEDS dose

A

1 mcg/kg, max dose of 20 mcg

407
Q

Special consideration for hypovolemic shock

A

Administer 500ml fluid boluses, max of 2L, to maintain MAP >65 prior to or concurrently with starting vasopressors. Reassess frequetly for s/s of fluid overload. Consider inferior vena cava US to further assess hypovolemic state.

408
Q

Special considerations for cardiogenic shock

A

Caution with aggressive IVF resuscitation in the cardiac patient and monitor for pulmonary edema frequently. Initiate Levo early to maintain MAP >65. Use Epi as a second line agent. May require additional inotropic support including Dobutamine (5-20 mcg/kg/min), Dopamine (2-20 mcg/kg/min), Milrinone (0.375-0.75 mcg/kg/min) or mechanical circulatory support (IABP, Impella) as well which will require an order from the sending facility or call for medical direction.

409
Q

Special consideration for Obstructive shock

A

Consider potential causes including tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade (use bedside US to assess), or pulmonary embolism. Administer 500 ml fluid boluses, max of 1L to maintain MAP >65 while initiating vaopressor support. If known massive PE, consider discussing thrombolytic therapy with the sending provider prior to transfer

410
Q

PEDS BP goals (SBP at least 5th percentile for age)

A

-<1 month: at least 60
-1 month-10 years: 70 + (2x year in age)
-10 years or older: at least 90

411
Q

PEDS treatment for hotn

A
  • 20 ml/kg bolus of LR up to 3 doses for continued hotn without signs of fluid overload
    -Epi 1mcg/kg, max dose of 20 mcg
  • continued hotn initiate vasopressors
    -Levo 0.1-2 mcg/kg/min
  • if from sending, normal dosing for Milrinone: 0.25-0.75 mcg/kg/min or Dobutamine: 2-20 mcg/kg/min
412
Q

Special considerations for PEDS cardiogenic shock

A

5-10 ml/kg bolus x1 over 15-30. call for additional boluses

413
Q

PEDS physiologic indicators of perfusion to assess after fluid boluses

A

-Mental status
-Quality of central and peripheral pulses (strong, distal pulses equal to central pulses)
-Skin perfusion (warm, with cap refill <2 seconds)
-Urine output >1 ml/kg/hr once effective circulating volume is restored

414
Q

Signs and exams used to confirm patient volume status peri fluid boluses

A

Utilized POCUS to perform eFAST exam along with other clinical signs confirming patient’s volume status. Consider a small fluid challenge before large boluses if volume depleted

415
Q

Vasopressor to consider asking for if R sided heart failure is considered

A

Consider obtaining Vasopressin (0.03-0.04 units/min) fromt he sending facility if R sided heart failure is suspected. Vasopressin will increase preload without increasing myocardial oxygen demand.

416
Q

Additional situations where Vasopressin may be beneficial

A

Great adjunct to Levo in septic shock and in shock from gastrointestinal hemorrhage in a cirrhotic patient (clamps down on splachnic perfusion)

417
Q

Why is milrinone not ideal for the transport environment for heart failure

A

Milrinone has a long onset time (hours) and needs to be renally adjusted

418
Q

special considerations for administration of Dobutamine

A

dobutamine shoudl typically be administered wiht LEvo after patient stabilization has occurred. The simultaneous use of these medications is typical as the Dobutamine can induce hotn secondary to its beta 2 adrenergic stimulation

419
Q

efficiency of Levo in various forms of shock

A

Levo has some inotropic effects (beta stimulation) in addition to its strong vasopressor (alpha) component. in studies of patients in shock (including cardiogenic) it outperform sother typical inotropes including Epi ad Dobutamine

420
Q

Additional treatments for septic shock

A

consider stress dose steroids (hydrocortisone 50 mg IV q 6hrs) as an adjunct for BP stabilization if the patient remains hotn despite adequate fluid resuscitation and on 2+ pressors

421
Q

Spinal assessment with blunt head injury victims

A

Assess the need for spinal immobilization in blunt head injury victims. Assure that the cervical collar does not restrict venous return from the head

422
Q

Interventions to reduce ICP

A
  • elevate head at least 30 degrees, even if patient is hypotensive
    -ensure that head is stabilized in midline
    -avoid flexion of limbs
    -limit airway suctioning, if possible
    -control pain and anxiety
  • control nausea and vomiting
  • consider chemical paralysis to minimize high airway pressures and abolish physical resistance and ventilator dyssynchrony, adjust venilator to minimize peak pressures
423
Q

BP parameters for head/facial trauma

A

Maintain MAP >80-90 in order to optimize CPP with the use of IV fluids, then pressors.

424
Q

Calculation for CPP

A

CPP= MAP - ICP

425
Q

ETCO2 parameters with head/facial trauma

A

Maintain normal ETCO2 35-45. If signs of cerebral herniation, target ETCO2 should be 28-32.

426
Q

Signs of cerebral herniation

A

Bradycardia, HTN, unilaterial blown pupil, asymmetrical pupillary reactivity, extensor motor posturing, or deterioration of GCS by more than 2 points when intial GCS was less than 9

427
Q

management of free drainage from nose or ears

A

Do not attempt to stop free drainage

428
Q

Treatment of elevated BP in patients wth facial/head trauma

A

Treatment of elevated BP should be with a physician order only. Obtain parameters for treatment, in addition to when medication should be used. In general, treatment goals are aimed at keeping SBP >90, but not treating high SBP.

429
Q

Airway and facial trauma patients

A

airway is the primary concern in facial and anterior neck trauma and may supersede the need for complete spinal immobilization or spinal motion restriction. Consider early intubation if potential for swelling that may occlude airway

430
Q

impact of hypoxia or hotn with facial/head trauma

A

Even a short episode of hypoxia or hypotension significantly increase mortality. incidence of both worsens outcome

431
Q

significance of I/O prior to arrival

A

Consider I/O prior to our arrival. If possible negative fluid balance, replace fluid before administering pressors

432
Q

extra precaution for head injury patients

A

Consider hearing protection

433
Q

TBI and hypertonic saline

A

In traumatic brain injury patients, consider requesting a physician’s order for hypertonic saline

434
Q

Dont forget to rule out other causes of altered level of consciousness in patients with head trauma

A

consider metabolic conditions including hypoglycemia that may manifest unilateral signs

435
Q

Facial injury and altered LOC

A

the sinuses and bony structures of the face are protective. Blunt trauma to the face without a blow to another part of the head rarely leads to brain injury

436
Q

Consideration for clear drainage from nose

A

spinal fluid contains glucose, mucus does not. If unsure about clear drainage, test with glucometer

437
Q

Head trauma incidence with PEDS patients

A

Non-accidental injury accounts for 95% of severe neurologic injuries in children. Be alert for evidence of physical abuse.

438
Q

PEDS and hypoxia with TBI

A

Children are particularly susceptible to secondary brain injury related to hypoxia. Hypoxia happens more quickly in children.

439
Q

physical examination for patients with heat illness/malignant hyperthermia

A

Physical examination should include thorough and focused assessments to identify evolving end-organ dysfunction (neuro, pulmonary, CV, renal, GI)

440
Q

Interventions in setting of suspected or identified mils-moderate heat illness

A

-Do not allow the patient to return to the previous activity
-Prompt extrication from the environment should be performed
-Remove clothing if appropriate and/or feasible
- If no contraindications exist and the patient remains able to tolerate and consume fluids by mouth, the administration of cool/cold water (preferably supplemented with oral rehydration solutions) should be attempted
- Initiate both passive and active cooling measures immediately. These can include shade, fans, air conditioning within a structure or transport vehicle, as well as the peripheral and central application of “cold packs” (core placement is preferred- axilla, groin and abdomen), and the administration of cool/cold isotonic crystalloid solutions can be considered.
- Initiate continuous core temp measurement. Rectal, foley, or esophageal monitoring is preferred method for accurate temp measurement

441
Q

Antipyretic agents and heat illness

A

administration of antipyretic agents is not recommended in the setting of mild-moderate heat illness as they are ineffective in managing the pathology

442
Q

s/s consistent with heat stroke

A

end organ dysfunction in the setting of an associated core body temp of greater than 104 degrees F or 40 degrees C

443
Q

Interventions for patients with s/s consistent with heat stroke

A
  • Initiate previous interventions for heat exhaustion with an increased focus placed on resuscitation and stabilization of the respective end organ systems involved (i.e. neurologic, pulmonary, CV, etc.)
  • Rapidly cool the patient with continuous temp monitoring to 38 C/100.4F to 39C/102.2F or until the patient regains the ability to exhibit shivering.
  • Adequately rehydration through fluid resuscitation is essential without over-correcting the sodium if derangements exist. All fluid resuscitation should be cooled maximally prior to administration
444
Q

Fever vs clinical hyperthermia

A

Distinguishing between fever and clinical hyperthermia is vitally important as a fever of unknown origin can be subsequently misinterpreted as a hyperthermic emergency

445
Q

definition of fever

A

Core body temp elevation due to an internal response

446
Q

Definition of clinical hyperthermia

A

Core body temp elevation due to uncontrolled heat generation. Temps are often higher than in the setting of fever. Unlike fever, hyperthermia involves complete loss of thermal control

447
Q

Definition and s/s of heat exhaustion

A

State of dehydration and weakness following environmental exposure to extreme heat. usually <104F
-Polydipsia
-N/V
-Cool, clammy skin
-Weakness
-Muscle aches
-Diaphoresis
-Tachycardia, tachypnea
-dizziness and/or lightheadedness
-Lethargy
-HA

448
Q

Definition and s/s of heatstroke

A

Severe hyperthermia with a loss of adequate compensatory mechanisms and end organ dysfunction. Threshold temp is usually >104F
- No sweating
- Hot and dry skin
- N/V
- HOTN
- Altered LOC
- Tachycardia
- SOB
- Decreased UO

449
Q

Frequency of heatstroke in NV

A

Heatstroke is rare in NV due to low ambient humidity

450
Q

Definition of malignant hyperthermia

A

Related to an autosomal dominant mutation of a gene and causes an uncontrolled release of calcium during muscle contraction resulting in increased metabolism. Usually observed following initial administration of Succinylcholine, as well as volatile halogenated anesthetics except nitrous oxide

451
Q

Clinical manifestations of malignant hyperthermia

A
  • High fever (rate of 1 degree every 10 minutes)
  • Muscle rigidity (esp. masseter muscle)
  • Tachycardia, tachypnea, HOTN
  • Prolonged coagulation
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Increased ET capnography, increased O2 consumption
452
Q

Complications of Malignant hyperthermia

A
  • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy (DIC)
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • Lactic and respiratory acidosis
453
Q

Clinical management and treatment for malignant hyperthermia

A
  • increase FiO2 to 100% and optimize oxygenation
  • Rapid administration of isotonic fluids
  • Initiate passive and active cooling measures
  • Immediate administration of Dantrolene: 2.5 mg/kg IV initial dose with repeated doses of 1 mg/kg every 5 min to a total dose 10 mg/kg
  • Block of the neuromuscular junction with the administration of a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
454
Q

Dantrolene

A

Unlike the classic paralytic medications that function by blocking postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors, dantrolene acts intracellularly in skeletal muscle to lessen the excitation-contraction coupling interaction between actin and myosin within the individual sarcomere. This function occurs by antagonizing receptors which inhibits the release of calcium ions vital to the contraction process

455
Q

Two main goals of Hemorrhage control

A
  • BP control
  • Control of life threatening external hemorrhage
456
Q

BP management for penetrating trauma and hypovolemia

A

Permissive hotn goal SBP 70-90, MAP 60-65

457
Q

BP management for blunt trauma and TBI

A

Goal SBP 100-120 with a MAP >85

458
Q

Fluid administration for goal BP

A

crystalloids only indicated if above BP goals are not met and blood transfusions not immediately available. If crystalloids indicated, give LR in increments of 250 ml to max 1L until BP goals accomplishes

459
Q

Methods to control life-threatening external hemorrhage

A
  • Apply direct pressure to the wound
  • Apply an approved tourniquet (CAT or SWAT-T) for life threatening hemorrhage that is anatomically amenable to tourniquet application
  • Pack wounds with an approved hemostatic dressing (combat gauze) for life threatening hemorrhage observed from a readily compressible site that is not amenable to tourniquet application. Wound packing with hemostatic gauze should be followed by at least 3 minutes of direct pressure.
  • Consider pelvic binder or pelvic sheeting in the presence of high energy trauma with lower abdominal pain, flank/perineal/scrotal ecchymosis, bleeding at the penile meatus/vagina, or unstable pelvis
460
Q

TXA

A

administration should be optimized through early administration if it is clinically indicated

461
Q

TXA inclusion criteria

A
  • Traumatic injury with suspected or observed internal and/or external hemorrhage requiring large volume crystalloid resuscitation or predicted blood product administration
  • Moderate traumatic brain injury (GCS greater than 8 and less than 13) presenting within three hours of injury
  • Postpartum hemorrhage with suspected or observed internal and/or external hemorrhage requiring large volume crystalloid resuscitation or predicted blood product administration
462
Q

Exclusion criteria for TXA

A
  • time out from injury greater than 3 hours
  • Concomitant administration with other approved procoagulant agents (factor 7, protamine, APCC)
463
Q

Administration of TXA

A

Bolus: administer 1gm of TXA SIVP over 5-10 minutes (mix 1gm TXA in 10 mls)

464
Q

TXA dose for PEDS 30 days to 14yo

A
  • TXA 15 mg/kg, max dose 1gm
  • NS 20 ml/kg bolus
  • Repeat after 5 min if no improvement
  • Repeat again after 5 min if no improvement
465
Q

treatment for hemorrhage for PEDS <30 days old

A
  • 10 ml/kg NS bolus
  • Repeat once after 5 min if no improvement
466
Q

Best method to prevent death d/t hemorrhage

A

Prevent blood loss

467
Q

Early identification and subsequent treatment of both external and internal hemorrhage remains contingent upon the transport team’s ability to complete the following:

A
  • Accurately determine the mechanism of injury and/or nature of the underlying illness
  • Thoroughly conduct a focused physical assessment
  • Collect any relevant and pertinent underlying medical history
  • Initiate appropriate and targeted treatment modalities early in the patient’s clinical course
468
Q

Utilizing the US for hemorrhage patients

A

The utilization of point of care US can substantially increase your team’s assessment capabilities. US should be utilized and an eFAST exam conducted for any patients with suspected injuries to the thoracic, abdominal, and retroperitoneal regions

469
Q

Appropriate tourniquet applicatoin

A

Tourniquets should be applied “high and tight” on the affected extremity and not over bulky clothing or equipment that would decrease their operational effectiveness. Once applied, a tourniquet should not be loosened or removed unless the projected time to definitive care will be unreasonably delayed. Tourniquets applied by laypersons or other on scene medical personnel should be thoroughly evaluated for their effectiveness and may be adjusted, adjuncted, converted, or removed at the transport teams discretion.

470
Q

Intervention for lower extremity injuries with identified external hemorrhage that remain amenable to tourniquet application

A

Frequently require a second tourniquet to adequately control hemorrhage

471
Q

Suspected pelvic fractures carry with them the potential for profound blood loss and as such the following interventions should be initiated

A

Application of a commercially developed and approved pelvic sling/binder should be completed early during the patient’s clinical course if signs of pelvic instability are observed, or if a significant mechanism of injury is associated with the patient’s injury pattern (i.e. significant blunt force trauma or blast injury patterns). Assessment of pelvic instability should be conducted in a thorough and stepwise manner to minimize the likelihood of producing additional injuries.

472
Q

TXA and blood product administration

A

TXA should not be administered through the same IV/IO line as blood or blood products or in a line utilized for administration of rFVIIa or penicillin

473
Q

Contraindications to HHFNC

A
  • Ventilatory failure- where BIPAP or intubation is more appropriate
  • Abnormalities of the face/airway/nose
  • Insufficient O2 to complete transfer
  • Severe facial trauma or Basilar skull fracture
  • Respiratory/cardiac arrest
  • Inability to protect airway or GCS <8
474
Q

special considerations for transferring a patient with HHFNC

A
  • Ensure enough sterile water is available for the duration of transport
  • Ensure an adequate amount of oxygen is in oxygen tanks for the duration of transport
475
Q

Initiating HHFNC

A

Ensure appropriate nasal cannula size, approximately 3/4 of the patient’s nostril. Initiate high flow at 60 L/min, FiO2 at 100% and wean down rapidly to maintain O2 Sats>90%

476
Q

special considerations for HHFNC interfacility transfers

A
  • Obtain hospital settings and mimic settings
  • Flow rate can range from 2-60L
  • if oxygen saturation remains low and work of breathing remains high, increase liter flow in 5L increments up to 60 LPM. Additional NRB at 15 LPM can be added over the HHFNC if unable to maintain O2 sats
  • Weaning of high flow will begin with FiO2 per saturation while keeping the flow at current LPM
  • If sats continue to remain low, consider other means of oxygenation and ventilation such as BIPAP or intubation per Ventilatory Management protocol
  • Treat underlying respiratory condition per Respiratory distress protocol
  • Continuous O2 sats and cardiac monitoring
477
Q

Initial settings for HHFNC for PEDS

A

Initiate HHFNC at 2L/kg/min up to 60 L/min. Start at 100% FiO2 and wean down to maintain oxygen sats between 92-99%

478
Q

PEDS considerations for HHFNC

A
  • Flow rate ranges from 2-60 L/min
  • Ensure proper fitting cannula with application of wigglepads
  • Continuous SpO2 and cardiac monitoring
  • Treat underlying condition per respiratory distress protocol
479
Q

PEDS flow rate range for <1 month and <4 kg

A
  • 5-8 L/min
480
Q

PEDS flow rate range 1 month - 1 year and 4-10 kg

A

8-20 L/min

481
Q

PEDS flow rate range 1-6 years and 10-20 kg

A

12-25 L/min

482
Q

PEDS flow rate range 6-12 yrs and 20-40 kg

A

20-30 L/min

483
Q

Signs of respiratory failure and intolerance of HHFNC

A
  • decreasing level of consciousness
  • inability to maintain respiratory effort
  • Cyanosis
484
Q

PEEP administered with HHFNC

A

HHFNC administers approximately 1cmH20 of PEEP for every 10L/min, if the patient’s mouth is
closed. If open, it gives approximately 0.3cmH20 of PEEP for every 10L/min

485
Q

Interventions if a patients requires increased amounts of PEEP

A

transitioning to BIPAP may be beneficial

486
Q

is HHFNC compatible with a trach

A

HHFNC may be utilized via trach tube with a proper attachment piece

487
Q

Interventions if sedation is required

A

consider using Ketamine per anxiety/agitation protocol as Ketamine has bronchodilatory properties which may help optimize both oxygenation and ventilation

488
Q

Possible complications from HHFNC

A

abdominal distention, aspiration and barotrauma (rarely)

489
Q

History that can lead to suspected hyperkalemia

A
  • Kidney disease (acute or chronic)
  • DKA
  • Crush injury or rhabdomyolysis
  • Dialysis
  • Burns
  • Overdose: digitalis drugs, potassium supplements, Potassium sparing diuretics
490
Q

Criteria to treat a patient for hyperkalemia in a prehospital patient

A

All patients must have a suspected risk for hyperkalemia and a 12 lead indicating cardiac abnormality (peaked T wave)

491
Q

ADULT medications for hyperkalemia in prehospital setting

A
  • Calcium chloride 1gm (10 ml) slow IVP over 3-5 min
  • Albuterol 10 mg continuous neb treatment
  • Lasix 20 mg IVP if acute/chronic kidney disease or overdose patient (do not give diuretic in DKA, burn, crush or rhabdo patients
492
Q

PEDS medications for hyperkalemia

A
  • Calcium chloride 20 mg/kg slow IVP
  • Albuterol 5 mg neb treatment
493
Q

Additional medications for known hyperkalemia for an IFT

A

ask for orders from sending provider for additional possible therapies (insulin and glucose, K binder like Veltessa/Lokelma) if appropriate

494
Q

Interventions for suspected hyperkalema and crush injury

A

If suspected crush injury with entrapment/compression for greater than 4 hours, administer 20 ml/kg NS, in addition to above treatment

495
Q

Impact of Calcium in hyperkalemia treatment

A

Calcium has an immediate onset of action from 1-3 min. It stabilizes the myocardium membrane and does not promote the intracellular shift of elimination of potassium

496
Q

Impact of albuterol in hyperkalemia treatment

A

Albuterol inhalation stimulates Na/K/ATPase, which causes an intracellular shift of potassium.

Albuterol can decrease serum potassium levels by 0.3-0.6 mEq within 30 minutes.

497
Q

side effects of this dose of albuterol

A

This dose will cause tachycardia in most patients

498
Q

sodium bicarb and treating hyperkalemia

A

Bicarb is not indicated unless in a severely acidotic patient as it does not decrease serum potassium significantly or rapidly

499
Q

Major changes in EKG for K levels 5.5-6.5

A

Tall peaked T waves

500
Q

Major changes in EKG for K levels 6.5-7.5

A

Loss of P waves

501
Q

Major changes in EKG for K levels 7.0-8.0

A

Widening of QRS

502
Q

Major changes in EKG for K levels 8.0-10.0

A

Sine wave, ventricular arrhythmia, asystole

503
Q

History requested when transporting a patient with an impella

A
  • circumstances leading to impella placement
  • Type of impella in place (CP, 5.5, RP)
  • lab results: LA trends, CBC, CMP, MG, Phos, ACT trends
  • imaging: Echo confirming placement, Xray
  • Hemodynamics: PA catheter trends, CPO and PAPI scores
  • EKGs
504
Q

how to monitor BP for an impella CP or 5.5

A

do not use the impella CP or 5.5 aortic pressure as a real time BP, utilize our monitor or arterial pressures

505
Q

What screen should the impella always be on when not making adjustments

A

Console should always be kept on placement signal screen to be able to rapidly assess location via placement signals and motor current waveforms

506
Q

positioning of patients with impella in place

A

for femoral insertion (CP and RP) reverse trandelenburg patient only, do not elevate HOB. Impella 5.5 or RP flex IJ okay to elevate HOB >30

507
Q

angle of insertion of Impella catheter

A

Catheter insertion site shold be kept at a 45 degree angle to avoid kinking and hematoma

508
Q

Preparing purge system for IFT of impella

A

Prior to transfer, ensure spare purge cassette and purge fluid available. typically this is D5W with 25U/ml of Heparin. In patients with HIT or increased risk of bleeding a sodium bicarb purge fluid may be used (D5W with 25 mEq of sodium bicarb)

509
Q

Goal ACT for impella patient with heparin

A

160-180

510
Q

What fluid should not be used in the purge system

A

Saline

511
Q

Normal purge pressures on impella

A

300-1100 mmHG

512
Q

checklist prior to transporting a patient with an impella

A

-Verify current impella settings and type of impella
- Secure and stabilize all wires and cables
- use a knee immobilizer to assist with securing
- ensure all connnections tight
- do not stress the connections or wires from the impella to the patient, as this may dislodge the system

513
Q

Impella and battery time

A

Keep the impella connected to AC throughout the transport. Battery life of the impella pump without being plugged in is 60 minutes. When disconnected form AC power, the impella device will been once every 5 min while disconnected

514
Q

ACLS interventions with impella

A

Decrease to P2 prior to initiating CPR.

If cardioversion or defibrillation indicated, do not touch wires, controller or catheter. You may defibrillate or cardiovert without changing the P level

515
Q

Interpreting perfusing during arrhythmias

A

Patients may have flat arterial line, lack of palpable pulse, and may still perfuse during arrhythmias.Assess for need for CPR based on perfusion and lack of pulsatile motor current despite proper placement

516
Q

PA catheter monitoring during transport of a patient with an Impella

A

Monitor PA waveform continuously through transport, checking the CVP every hour or as needed with suction alarms or hemodynamic changes

517
Q

How to address Impella alarms

A
  • Turn down to P2 if position alarm, or noted dysthythmia requiring CPR
  • Check AC power
  • Ensure connections and tubing are connected and not kinked
  • Change purge cassette-follow instructions on Impella console
  • Reposition the patient, we are not allowed to reposition the catheter itself
  • Maintain MAP >65 and CVP >10
  • Call ahead to the receiving facility to notify of possible device malfuntions or migration
518
Q

How to address suction alarms

A
  • Decrease P level by one to two levels to break suction
  • Assess cm markings and placement waveforms to ensure catheter did not migrate
  • Assess CVP. If catheter has not migrated and CVP <10 administer 250 ml bolus every 15 minutes up to 3 times to achieve adequate preload. Assess hbg, if ,7 and at sending facility discuss blood product administration.
  • If still alarm suction despite adequate preload reposition patient laterally slowly to try and break suction.
  • Once alarm is resolved slowly increase back to prior P level to ensure suction does not recur.
519
Q

Engaging “flight mode” on the console

A

Engage “flight mode” on console by pressing and holding airplane button on rear of console for 3 seconds followed by selecting menu > enable flight mode. This will disable Wi-Fi and trigger console to give transport specific troubleshooting prompts if required. Disable flight mode in reverse order on arrival to receiving facility.

520
Q

What to do if troubleshooting fails

A

treat the patient

521
Q

Uses of the left sided Impella

A

Used as a short term, temporary ventricular support devices indicated for the treatment of acute cardiogenic shock secondary to myocardial infarction, open heart surgery, myocarditis, acute decompensated heart failure, and cardiomyopathy.

522
Q

Uses of right sided impella

A

RV failure related to MI or secondary to LV failure. Used in tandem with medical management and can be a bridge to additional therapies (ECMO)

523
Q

pathophysiology for ventricular assist devices

A

Mechanical circulatory support devices allow for decompression of the left ventricle, reducing myocardial wall stress, improving perfusion of coronary arterial circulation, and assisting with formation of coronary collateralization

524
Q

Risks of an Impella

A

TIA, Cardiac Tamponade, Perforation, Limb ischemia, bleeding form site, Vfib/Vtach, MI, sepsis, and hemolysis

525
Q

When in flight should you monitor purge pressures

A

during altitude changes

526
Q

FAA approved altitude for Impella

A

8000 feet

527
Q

Weight of Impella device

A

about 35 pounds

528
Q

Impella CP

A
  • Left sided support device directly offloading the left ventricle
  • Inserted femorally in cath lab under fluoroscopy, can achieve flow rates up to 4.3 L/min
  • Placement signal consist of aortic and left ventricular waveform
529
Q

Impella 5.5

A
  • Left sided support device directly offloading the left ventricle
  • Inserted in the OR by CT surgeon via axillary cutdown or direct aortic insertion via sternotomy and delivers peak flow rates up to 6 L/min
  • Placement signals consist of aortic and LV waveform
  • Ensure catheter is externally secured at 3 points due to high risk for massive blood loss with accidental dislodgement
530
Q

Impella RP

A
  • Right sided support device directly offloading the RV
  • Often femorally placed but can be placed via IJ (Impella RP Flex).
  • Delivers flow rates of greater than 4 L/min
  • Placement signal is PA waveform
  • Should always be at level P6 or higher with flow rate greater than 1.5 L/min to prevent clotting due to being in the venous system
  • RP patients should still have a PA catheter in place for placement confirmation and monitoring of CVP, PA pressures, and SVR. However, Fick calculations are performed to assess CO/CI instead of thermodilution
531
Q

CPO (cardiac power output)

A

CPO = (CO + MAP)/451

  • predictor of survivability in cardiogenic shock patients, indicator of end organ perfusion
  • Measured in watts, like a lightbulb, the brighter the better, indicating a stronger heart
  • Normal = >1-1.5 watts, <0.6 is critical and indicative of increased mortality
532
Q

PAPI (Pulmonary artery pulsatility index)

A

PAPI = (PA systolic/PA diastolic)/CVP

  • Hemodynamic index indicative of RV failure in the setting of acute inferior wall MI
  • Normal is >2.0, <1.0 indicative of severe RV failure and need for Impella RP
533
Q

Physical assessment of patient with an LVAD

A

Patient may not have a palpable pulse- perfusion is assessed by skin signs patient’s mental function, EtCO2 and urine output.

534
Q

O2 Sat for LVAD patients

A

pulse oximetry measurement may be inaccurate and should be considered with other clinical indicators to determine hypoxia

535
Q

Blood pressure and LVAD patients

A

Blood pressure measurement is done by manual cuff and palpation or doppler: BP may not be obtainable. The pressure at which arterial flow becomes audible is the MAP

536
Q

Does Care Flight transport patients with LVADs?

A

Care Flight provides transport for any patient with an LVAD. If the transport is due to a malfunctioning LVAD, Care Flight medical staff members will contact the receiving facility’s accepting physician and the LVAD troubleshooting center to ascertain safe transport of the patient, Care Flight RN will consider obtaining orders from the receiving physician in case the patient’s condition deteriorates in flight

537
Q

Special precautions to have in place before transporting a patient with an LVAD

A

Prior to transport, review with the patient, caregiver, or sending care provider alarms associated with the LVAD, procedure for changing the battery, and assessing connections, should the patient become unable to do so. Ensure continued availability of power source prior to transport. Extra batteries and battery charger should be transported with the patient. The patient’s back-up battery should be available in the aircraft at all times

538
Q

Being that SpO2 can be difficult to monitor in a patient with an LVAD, what other form of monitoring should be utilized

A

EtCO2 is highly recommended for monitoring perfusion status

539
Q

Treatment of ECG findings in patients with LVAD

A

Do not treat ECG findings unless the patient is symptomatic- AMS, poor skin signs, chest pain, etc.

540
Q

LVAD and defib/cardioversion

A

patients can be defibrillated and/or cardioverted. If cardiac monitor is not able to synchronize the ECG, perform unsynchronized Cardioversion

541
Q

Treatment of shock in a patient with an LVAD

A

Shock may be treated according to specific protocols, with the understanding that treatment according to specific vital signs is not appropriate; patient care decisions are based upon signs of decreased perfusion such as change in level of consciousness, poor skin signs, chest pain.

542
Q

Blood pressure guidelines for LVAD

A

Hypertension: >90
Hypotension: <60

543
Q

Common complications with LVAD

A

Right heart failure, infection and bleeding

544
Q

Pacer pad placement for LVAD patient

A

Pacer pads should be placed anterior/posterior for best conduction. Avoid placing pads over the apex of the heart, where the device is located

545
Q

Displacement of LVAD with CPR

A

Limited data shows a lower incidence of pump displacement when CPR is performed

546
Q

Renown stocked devices for LVAD

A

Renown ER stocks two Heartmate 3 batteries

547
Q

Care Flight flight crew and patients with obvious LVAD pump issues

A

When a flight crew encounters a patient with obvious LVAD pump issues, the flight team needs to contact the patient’s LVAD center for medical direction. If the patient is not in extremis, the flight team should make every effort to transport the patient directly to the closest appropriate LVAD center rather than a local hospital for definitive care

548
Q

LVAD patients and AICD/pacemaker

A

LVAD patients commonly have an AICD/pacemaker placed as they have cardiomegaly

549
Q

LVAD and blood thiners

A

Patients with LVADs must be on anticoagulants/antiplatelet drug. Monitor for bleeding

550
Q

LVAD and fluid challenge

A

Passive leg lifts are effective in determining patient’s responsiveness to fluid challenges prior to administration of fluids. US of IVC is an objective measurement of fluid status

551
Q

Right heart failure and LVADs

A

Right heart failure is common in patients with LVADs. Consultation with the LVAD center should be made to determine plan of care while in flight. (I.E. administration of Lasix, Epinephrine infusion, BiPap…) If BiPap is used, consider using a lower PEEP setting if possible

552
Q

TXA and LVAD patients

A

TXA is appropriate to administer to trauma patients when the benefit of decreased internal bleeding is greater than the possible risk of future emboli formation

553
Q

Non-functional LVAD patient with MAP >60

A

If an LVAD has been non-functional and the patient has a MAP >60, contact with the LVAD center should be made prior to attempting to restart the LVAD due to the increased risk of thrombus formation

554
Q

ADULT Zofran dose

A

4 mg IV/IO/IM/PO q 15 minutes for unrelieved nausea and/or vomiting, maximum total dose 12 mg

555
Q

Interventions if patient is unresponsive to Zofran

A

Consider Promethazine (Phenergan) 6.25-35 mg IV/IM

556
Q

NG/OG placement

A

Consider NG/OG tube placement if not contraindicated

557
Q

Medications if Zofran and Phenergan do not work

A

Consider Diphenhydramine 12.5-25 IV/IM for vomiting unresponsive to the other medications or if there is a contraindication to the other drugs

558
Q

PEDS dose of Zofran

A

0.15 mg/kg (max 4 mg) IV/IO/PO q 15 minutes for unrelieved nausea and/or vomiting, max 3 doses

559
Q

PEDS dose and considerations for Phenergan

A

Over 2 yo: con\sider Phenergan 0.25 mg/kg IV/IM for vomiting unresponsive to Zofran. Maximum single dose 12.5 mg

560
Q

Special considerations and mechanism of action for Zofran

A

Zofran selectively antagonizes serotonin 5-HT3 receptors; has rarely been associated with QT prolongation and precipitation of Torsades de Pointes. Use cautiously in family history of prolonged QT, ventricular arrhythmias, hepatic insufficiency, and recent myocardial infarction

561
Q

Special considerations and mechanism of action for Phenergan

A

Promethazine is in the phenothiazine class of meds, and possesses anticholinergic properties (antiemetic and sedative effects). May cause severe hotn if patient is dehydrated- deliver LR fluid bolus before administration of drug. May cause extrapyramidal reactions; treat per protocol with Diphenhydramine. Infusion may cause tissue necrosis if administered through an infiltrated IV. Monitor closely and assure IV line is patent prior to administration. It is associated with severe respiratory depression in children and is not recommended for children younger than 2 years of age

562
Q

Correlation between blood sugar and N/V

A

Alterations in blood glucose may cause N/V

563
Q

Infants vomiting vs spit up

A

In infants, there is a difference between vomiting and “spitting up, although parents and caregivers may use the term interchangeably. “Spitting up” is more of a symptom of GERD and occurs immediately after burping.

564
Q

Evaluation for patients with continuous vomiting and associated fever

A

Assess for signs of AMS relative to age, dehydration, dry membranes, delayed cap refill, and decreased urine output

565
Q

Male newborns and forceful vomiting

A

Forceful vomiting and newborns, especially male newborns may be related to pyloric stenosis

566
Q

NEO history questions

A

Numbers of babies in this gestation

Pre birth questions:
- Expected gestational age
- Amniotic fluid color- is it clear?
- Additional risk factors (drug use, illness, prenatal complications, etc)
- Umbilical cord management

567
Q

NEO physical assessment

A
  • Breathing or crying
  • Muscle tone
  • Skin color
  • Blood sugar
  • APGAR score at 1 min, 5 min, and 10 min
568
Q

NEO interventions HR >100 and pink

A
  • delay cord clamp 30-60 seconds
  • Warm- continuous temperature monitoring device (skin or rectal)
  • Dry- only if it is a term baby, as this will damage the preterm infant’s skin
  • Stimulate- run 2 fingers on either side of the spine
  • Position and suction airway if needed (mouth before nose)
  • Place on monitor
  • For all babies, place in a plastic bag to preserve warmth
569
Q

NEO interventions HR >100 but central cyanosis

A
  • Place pulse oximeter on right hand (preductal)
  • Give supplementary oxygen if SpO2 <90 after 10 minutes
  • Preterm (<35 weeks) gestation should have oxygen started at 21% and titrated to achieve preductal O2 saturations as for healthy term neonates
  • Always start at 21% FiO2, if possible, place on a blender with a flow meter at 10 LPM
570
Q

NEO interventions HR >100 with labored breathing or low O2 sat despite free flow oxygen

A
  • CPAP- Make a tight seal around T-Piece resuscitator on infants’ face
  • Do NOT apply to crying baby- may result in pneumothorax
571
Q

NEO interventions for HR<100 or apneic, persistent cyanosis

A
  • Positive pressure ventilation within 10 seconds
  • If Meconium staining noted, provide PPV and only intubate/suction if complete airway obstruction found
  • PPV breath cadence: “Breath, 2, 3, Breath, 2, 3” approximately 40-60 BPM
572
Q

Once PPV has been initiated, how often to assessments occur

A

in 15 second intervals

573
Q

1st assessment/HR after 15 seconds PPV- HR increasing

A
  • Continue PPV
  • 2nd HR assessment in 15 seconds
574
Q

1st assessment/HR after 15 seconds PPV- HR not increasing but chest moving

A
  • Continue PPV
  • 2nd HR assessment after 15 seconds of PPV that moves chest
575
Q

1st assessment/HR after 15 seconds PPV- HR not increasing and chest NOT moving

A
  • Ventilation correction steps until chest movement with PPV
  • Continue PPV that moves chest
  • 2nd HR assessment after 30 seconds of PPV that moves chest
576
Q

Ventilation Corrective Measures- MR SOPA

A
  • Mask adjustment- lift jaw, 2 hand hold
  • Reposition neck- neutral alignment, extended

Deliver 5 breaths- No chest Movement, proceed to SO

  • Suction- mouth before nose (bulb or catheter)
  • Open mouth, lift jaw forward

Deliver 5 breaths- no chest movement, proceed to P

  • Pressure increase- increase PIP in 5-10 increments (full term max 40, preterm max 30)

Deliver 5 breaths- no chest movement, proceed to A

  • Alternate airway- laryngeal mask or ETT
577
Q

2nd Assessment/HR after 30 seconds of PPV that moves chest- HR >100

A
  • Continue PPV 40-60 BPM until spontaneous effort
578
Q

2nd Assessment/HR after 30 seconds of PPV that moves chest- HR 60-99

A
  • Reassess ventilation
  • Ventilation corrective steps PRN
579
Q

2nd Assessment/HR after 30 seconds of PPV that moves chest- HR <60

A
  • Reassess ventilation
  • Ventilation corrective steps PRN
  • Alternate airway
  • If no improvement, start 100% oxygen and chest compressions
580
Q

What respiratory criteria must be met prior to starting compressions on a NEO

A

Newborns must receive 30 seconds PPV WITH chest rise before compressions/meds

581
Q

NEO interventions HR <60

A
  • PPV at least 30 seconds with chest rise, consider intubation
  • Chest compressions- increase FiO2 to 100% once chest compressions start
  • 3:1 compressions to ventilation ratio cadence: “1 and 2 and 3 and breath” (90:30)
  • Epinephrine 0.02mg/kg = 0.2 ml/kg (0.1 mg/ml) UVC/IV/IO OR Epi 0.1 mg/kg= 1 ml/kg ETT if no UVC/IV/IO access. Once access is established, may immediately give IV dose
  • Fluid bolus NS 10 ml/kg X1 over 5-10 minutes. Call for orders for repeated fluid boluses
  • Flush with 3ml NS following medications
  • HR assessed at 60 second intervals following chest compressions
582
Q

If interventions for NEO with Hr <60 fail

A

Re-check effectiveness of ventilation, chest compressions, endotracheal intubation, and Epi delivery

583
Q

interventions for NEO if HR remains absent for >20 minutes despite resuscitation

A

Consider calling for termination of efforts

584
Q

If mother and baby are to be transported

A

Transport neonate with mother

585
Q

NEO interventions for BG<40

A

Administer D10 at 2ml/kg

586
Q

how to deliver PPV to a NEO

A

PPV with the T-Piece resuscitator. Set PIP to 20-25 (full term set PIP 30-40 first few breaths, then decrease to 20-25) Set PEEP to 5

587
Q

NEO BP parameters

A

Minimum MAP should be equivalent to gestational age for NEO. Ex: 39 weeks= MAP of 39, 28 weeks= MAP of 28

588
Q

What to do for an unstable neonate being delivered in health care facility

A

Call dispatch for activation of neonate team. At least one CF crew member to stay with neonate until neonate team arrives. Both should stay if mother’s condition allows it. NICU team will not respond unless the baby is born. It takes approximately 45min-1hr from dispatch to in transit

589
Q

Preferred advanced airway for NEO

A

Attempt ETT intubation for medication administration. Epi cannot be given via LMA

590
Q

When should a LMA be utilized first for a NEO

A

For abnormalities of the mouth/tongue/cleft palate, utilize LMA first

591
Q

When is an LMA not indicated for NEO

A

LMA is not indicated for <28 weeks preemie

592
Q

When to place an OG for NEO

A

Place OG for prolonged BVM to decompress the stomach. Attach syringe to remove air/contents and then leave the valve open to vent

593
Q

How to provide cricoid pressure for NEO

A

Provide cricoid pressure by pressing down and to the baby’s right ear if needed

594
Q

Treatment for pneumothorax for NEO

A

Decompress with up to a 20G angiocath. Do not leave the catheter in, instead, once decompressed, remove catheter and seal with a tegaderm

595
Q

Interventions if unable to place UVC or PIV for NEO

A

pediatric IO may be used without the drill and placed manually. The umbilicus may also be cannulated on the outside towards the abdomen, similar to an IV

596
Q

UVC placement

A

Usually there are two smaller arteries and one large/collapsible vein. Artery “winks” with cleaning. <38 weeks measure length of cord plus 1cm. 38+ weeks measure length of cord plus 2 cm

597
Q

Type of fluids used for NEO

A

NS is the preferred IV fluid for the NEO. LR is hypotonic and can decrease serum Na

598
Q

Temp management for NEO

A

Temp monitoring is essential. NEO must not be allowed to be hypothermic or hyperthermic (keep temp between 36.5-37.5C)

599
Q

How long can a NEO have cyanosis

A

Central cyanosis may remain up to 10 min, color is not a reliable indicator of O2 sat. Acrocyanosis may last 24 hours

600
Q

Benefit of delayed cord clamping in NEO

A

Delayed cord clamping 30-60 seconds benefits neurodevelopmental outcomes in term babies and decreased the need for BP support/transfusion and increases survival in preterm babies

601
Q

Quick sizing chart for NEO

A

If you can hold the baby in:
- one hand: 1 kg (approximately 28 weeks)
- 2 hands: 2 kg (approximately 28-34 weeks)
- hold them in the crook of your arm like a normal baby: 3kg or greater (approximately >35 weeks)

602
Q

APGAR categories

A
  • Activity (muscle tone)
  • Pulse
  • Grimace (reflex irritability)
  • Appearance (skin color)
  • Respiration
603
Q

APGAR activity scoring

A
  • Absent (0 pt)
  • Arms and legs flexed (1 pt)
  • Active movement (2pt)
604
Q

APGAR Pulse scoring

A
  • Absent (0 pt)
  • below 100 bpm (1 pt)
  • over 100 bpm (2 pt)
605
Q

APGAR Grimace scoring

A
  • Flaccid (0 pt)
  • Some flexion of extremities (1 pt)
  • Active motion (sneeze, cough, pull away) (2 pt)
606
Q

APGAR Appearance scoring

A
  • Blue, pale (0 pt)
  • Body pink, extremities blue (1 pt)
  • Completely pink (2 pt)
607
Q

APGAR scoring Respiration

A
  • Absent (0 pt)
  • Slow, irregular (1 pt)
  • Vigorous cry (2 pt)
608
Q

APGAR score ranges

A
  • 0-3 severely depressed
  • 4-6 moderately depressed
  • 7-10 excellent condition
609
Q

Targeted pre-ductal SpO2 after birth

A
  • 1 min 60-65%
  • 2 min 65-70%
  • 3 min 70-75%
  • 4 min 75-80%
  • 5 min 80-85%
  • 10 min 85-95%
610
Q

History questions for OB/childbirth

A
  • prenatal care
  • complications during pregnancy
  • last normal menstrual period
  • gravidity and parity
  • previous pregnancies- duration of labor, C-section or vaginal, complications
  • single vs multiple fetus (es)
  • presence of vaginal bleeding/discharge
  • Presence of abdominal/back pain
  • presence or absence of contractions
  • presence of meconium
  • urge to push
611
Q

physical questions for OB/childbirth

A
  • external vaginal exam
  • crowning or fetal parts
  • bleeding/discharge- amniotic fluid, meconium stain
  • FHR by doppler before transport and at least every 15 minutes during transport
  • FHR upon transfer of care
  • During and between contractions- rate, variability, early or late decelerations
  • Pedal and/or facial edema
  • Lab work for evidence of HELLP
  • Fetal monitor strip from sending facility- evaluate for rate, variability, early or late decelerations
612
Q

positioning of OB patient

A

Position patient on her left side, or elevate right side of body on a pillow. Right lateral recumbent is also acceptable if left lateral recumbent is not possible

613
Q

IFT of OB patient

A

The sending physician or OB RN should be asked to perform a vaginal exam prior to transport to ensure stability, including cervical dilation/effacement, for transport. If, in the opinion of the medical crew, the patient is not obstetrically or otherwise stable enough for transport, the medical crew member will call the perinatologist on call and remain at the sending facility until contact with the perinatologist is made.

614
Q

IFT to Reno hospital with OB patient

A

All maternal IFT to Reno hospitals must be arranges through Perinatology Associates. If this contact has not been made by the sending physician, the clinician will call the perinatologist on call prior to departure

615
Q

Interventions for childbirth

A

If crowning present, contractions are less than 2 min apart, the mother is bearing down/pushing, or states she “can feel the baby coming” stay and assist delivery
- Place mother in lithotomy position
- Drape mother, place absorbent pads under pelvis, don PPE
- Prepare for neonatal resuscitation
- Assist delivery- guide and control to prevent precipitous delivery, do not pull on the head of the baby, but allow for the baby to come naturally
- Document time of birth
- See Neonatal Resuscitation protocol for care of the newborn
- Wait 30-60 seconds after delivery to clamp the umbilical cord in two places approximately 8-10” from the infant- in both term and preterm infants not requiring immediate resuscitation. Cut the cord between the clamps
- Transport- Do not wait for or attempt delivery of the placenta. If placenta delivers spontaneously, bring to the hospital.
- Once the placenta is delivered, bleeding can be controlled by massaging the uterine fundus

616
Q

Excessive vaginal bleeding and/or signs of shock

A
  • Massage fundus ( regardless of placenta delivery) and increase IV/IO flow rate to wide open
  • Administer O2 to maintain SpO2 of 100%
  • Initiate breastfeeding if feasible
  • Initiate Oxytocin infusion by mixing 20 units in 250ml of NS. Administer 125 ml of this solution IV/IO over 10-20 minutes, then infuse at 31.2 ml/hr
  • Administer TXA if previous interventions are unsuccessful. Bolus: Administer 1 gm of TXA SIVP. Mix 1 gm TXA in 10 ml NS
617
Q

Prolapsed cord

A
  • Place mother on back with hips elevated or place her in knee/chest position
  • Place gloved index and middle fingers into the vagina and gently push the neonate up to relieve pressure on the cord
  • Check cord for pulse. If cord is outside the canal, and if feasible, wrap in sterile wet dressing
  • Transport and notify receiving hospital of impending arrival. Do not remove hand until adequate assistance is available (typically all the way into the OR)
618
Q

Abnormal fetal presentation or decreased FHT

A
  • Placed mother in left lateral recumbent position
  • Transport and notify receiving hospital of impending arrival
619
Q

Rupture of membranes with decreased FHT

A
  • Place mother on back with hips elevated or place her in knee/chest position if no improvement
  • Perform vaginal exam to insure that cord is not compressed between cervix and the baby’s head
  • Sweep finger between cervix and babies head in attempt to remove pressure from cord
  • Frequently monitor FHR with mother maintained in knee to chest position to ensure that the cord does not become compressed again
620
Q

Delivery completed before arrival

A
  • Protect infant from temperature loss- place on wrapped chemical blanket
  • Check infant’s VS (perform NRP as necessary)
  • Clamp the umbilical cord in two places (8-10” from the infant) and cut the cord between clamps
  • Suction, warm, dry, and stimulate infant
  • Do not pull on cord or attempt to deliver placenta
  • Massage uterus firmly to control bleeding
621
Q

Breech presentation

A
  • Allow infant to deliver to the waist with support only, no active assistance. Once the legs and buttocks are delivered, the head can be assisted out. If the head does not deliver within 4-6 minutes, insert a gloved hand into the vagina to create an airway for the infant.
  • A position change for the mother may assist in birthing the breech baby.
  • If there is a limb presentation (incomplete breech), the success of delivery is small
  • If breech delivery is in progress with a transport time >20 min, contact perinatologist for possible delivery assistance
622
Q

Cord wrapped around the neck

A
  • Slit it over the head off the neck. It may be necessary to clamp and cut the cord if it is tightly wrapped
623
Q

Shoulder dystocia

A
  • Signs of shoulder dystocia: infant presentation after head delivery retracts tightly against the perineum or normal downward traction does not deliver the shoulders
  • Perform McRoberts maneuver and suprapubic pressure: have the mother flex her legs int a knee-chest position. If not successful, apply pressure to just above the pubic symphysis. Do not apply pressure to the fundus but help to displace the infant posteriorly
  • If both maneuvers fail to deliver the baby, rapid transport should be initiated
624
Q

Interventions if not a positive response to drying and stimulation

A

Avoid unnecessary delays in initiating ventilation if there is not a positive response to drying and stimulation

625
Q

Interventions if meconium is present

A

It is no longer necessary to intubate and suction using a meconium aspirator for meconium staining. new recommendations are to quickly initiate BVM with 21% oxygen and PEEP valve set to 8 and titrate to achieve SpO2 as noted in NRP chart

626
Q

What to look for in postpartum hemorrhage

A

look for the 4 T’s: Tone, Trauma, Tissue, and Thrombin for reasons for hemorrhage

627
Q

Special considerations for ETT size for pregnant women

A

An ETT 0.5-1 mm smaller than that used for non-pregnant women should be used

628
Q

CPR special considerations for pregnant women in 3rd trimester

A

CPR should be performed higher on the sternum

629
Q

VEAL CHOP for determining fetal heart tone variability

A

FHTs:
- Variable
- Early decelerations
- Accelerations
- Late decelerations

Underlying reason:
- Cord compression
- Head compression
- Okay
- Placental insufficiency

630
Q

History questions for OB preterm labor different from term labor

A
  • Estimated date of confinement
  • Blood type/Rh
631
Q

Preterm labor physical examination different than term delivery

A
  • Lab work for evidence of HELLP/UTI/Infection
632
Q

Positioning of preterm labor mom

A

Position the patient on her side, or elevate the side of the body on a pillow to maximize maternal venous return. Left side if preferable, but the right side is acceptable

633
Q

SpO2 goal for preterm labor patient

A

SpO2 goal of 98% with supplemental oxygen PRN if suspected fetal distress; i.e. fetal HR>160 or <110, place mother on NRB mask at >12 LPM

634
Q

Fluid given to preterm labor patient

A

Administer 500 ml bolus of IV LR, up to 2000 ml if no evidence of heart failure

635
Q

Interventions if IV fluids do not slow contractions

A

Initiate tocolytics:
- Terbutaline 0.25mg SQx 3 doses Q 20 min (hold for previous sensitive to medication or HR >120)
- Phenergan 12-25mg IV over 3-5 minutes (for N/V and mitigate side effects of Terbutaline administration)

Magnesium loading dose:
- Mag 4 mg over 20 minutes on the pump (300 ml/hr). Mix 4gm in 100ml NS
- Mag continuous infusion: 2gm/hr (50 ml/hr) Mix 4gm in 100 NS

636
Q

What to assess when giving Mag infusion

A

Assess DTRs at least once every 15 minutes to assess for impending cardiovascular collapse

637
Q

Urine production and interventions for preterm labor patient

A

Foley catheter should be placed to monitor adequate hydration secondary to fluid boluses. The patient should produce approximately 0.5ml/kg/hr of urine. Titrate fluid boluses and maintenance fluids accordingly

638
Q

Signs of mag toxicity

A

Decrease in DTRs or respiratory rate less than 12 BPM

639
Q

Interventions with suspected mag toxicity

A

Immediately stop infusion, give Calcium Chloride 1 gm/10ml IV over 3 minutes

640
Q

Interventions for late decelerations or sustained bradycardia (FHR <110)

A
  • Reposition patient (if no change in FHR within 60 seconds continue to attempt improvement in HR with additional repositioning)
  • Administer oxygen to achieve SpO2 >98%
  • Administer LR bolus 500 ml
  • Increase/administer tocolytics per MD order in attempt to decrease contractions
  • If detected prior to departure discuss transport with the sending facility and perinatologist
  • If detected while in flight notify receiving perinatologist of suspected fetal compromise as soon as possible
641
Q

IFT of preterm labor patient, what must be completed prior to transport

A

The sending facility must be asked to examine the patient prior to transport to ensure stability, including cervical dilation/effacement, for transport

642
Q

Excluding criteria for sending physician performing a vaginal examination

A

Vaginal exam should not be performed prior to departure if no premature rupture of membranes due to increased risk of further rupture of membranes, placenta previa, and infection. The patient should have a vaginal exam if she feels the urge to push or have a bowel movement

643
Q

Intervention if the medical crew does not view the patient stable enough for transport obstetrically or otherwise

A

The medical crew member will call the perinatologist on call and remain at the sending facility until contact with the perinatologist is made

644
Q

Risks associated with rupture of membranes in a preterm labor patient

A

Rupture of membranes is associated with increased risk of cord compression ergo the FHR should be monitored for 2-3 minutes after rupture of membranes occurs to assess for fetal compromise

645
Q

Side effects of magnesium

A

bradycardia, hotn, hypothermia, decreased DTR, drowsiness, respiratory depression, dysrhythmias, flushing, nausea, vomiting, sweating, drowsiness, weakness

646
Q

Terbutaline side effects

A

Jitteriness, N/V, flushed feeling, tachycardia, palpitations, and restlessness

647
Q

Phenergan side effects

A

Prolonged QT, CNS depression, lowered convulsive threshold, sedation, somnolence, respiratory depression

648
Q

Special considerations if sending facility administers steroids prior to transport

A

monitor neonate for hypoglycemia closely if born during transport

649
Q

Additional precautions for patients with Pregnancy induced hypertension to reduce stimulation

A

Protect patient from unnecessary stimuli such as direct sunlight noise and flicker due to increased risk of seizure activity

650
Q

IVF rate for patients with pregnancy induced hypertension

A

When possible, limit total IVF to 100 ml/hr to minimize risk of possibly exacerbation of hypertension

651
Q

Goal BP for pregnancy induced hypertension

A

SBP<160, DBP<110

652
Q

How frequently to assess BP in PIH

A

every 10 minutes

653
Q

Labetalol for BP control

A
  • Administer Labetalol 10 mg IV/IO over 2 minutes
  • Continued BP elevation: continue Labetalol 10 mg IV/IO every 10 minutes, increasing dose by 10 mg each time to a single maximum dose of 80 mg, or a total of 360 mg, including doses given PTA.
  • Hold Labetalol if HR <60
654
Q

Interventions if Labetalol contraindicated or not effective in lowering BP

A
  • Hydralazine 2-5mg IV/IO followed by 10 mg Q15-20 min (max dose 40 mg)
  • May request Nicardipine gtt from sending facility if Labetalol is ineffective
655
Q

Interventions for active seizure lasting more than 1 minute

A

Midazolam 10 mg IM, may repeat X1 (preferred), alternatively 5 mg IV, may repeat X1

If patient continues to seize, initiate magnesium

656
Q

Magnesium dosing

A
  • Loading dose: 4 gm over 20 minutes on the pump (300 ml/hr)
  • start mag continuous infusion: 2-4 gm/hr (50 ml/hr)
657
Q

If magnesium drip started, how frequently do you assess DTR

A

at least once every 15 minutes

658
Q

Interventions if seizure activities continue

A
  • repeat Midazolam dosage and prepare to manage airway/ventilation per airway protocol
  • Contact Perinatologist for additional antiepileptic options
659
Q

HELLP Syndrome

A

Manifested by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. S/s include headache, vomiting, visual disturbances, HTN, peripheral and central edema, and DIC like bleeding

660
Q

Treatment for HELLP

A

Treatment en route is the same as for PIH

661
Q

Timeframe where Eclampsia can occur

A

up to 6 weeks postpardum

662
Q

treatment for direct trauma (blunt or sharp) to the eye

A
  • DO NOT attempt to remove any foreign bodies from the eye itself
  • Immobilize impaled object
  • If not contraindicated, place the patient in a semi-fowler or sitting position to reduce intraocular pressure
  • Remove superficial foreign bodies from the skin surface of the eyelids
  • If the patient has complaints of eye discomfort or foreign body sensation, instill topical eye anesthetic. This is CONTRAINDICATED with any penetrating trauma injury to the eye
  • Cover BOTH eyes to prevent eye movement while making certain that the protection does not place pressure on the eyes
  • For eye(s) that are dislodged from the orbit: cover the eye and orbit with saline soaked gauze and then cover both eyes to prevent eye movement. Ensure the gauze remains wet during transport
663
Q

Treatment for ocular chemical burns

A
  • Instill several drops of topical eye anesthetic to the involved eye(s)
  • While gently holding the lids open, using gauze if necessary to maintain traction on the skin, irrigate the eye with high volumes of normal saline solution. Continue eye irrigation throughout the course of transport until arrival at the end destination hospital
  • Consider contacts and remove immediately
664
Q

Treatment for thermal ocular burns

A
  • Thermal burns to the eye are relatively uncommon and are usually associated with severe facial burns. Treatment should be directed to the more emergent lifesaving procedures as necessary
  • If the patient has complaints of eye discomfort, instill several drops of topical eye anesthetic to the involved eye(s)
665
Q

Considerations for flight altitude and intra ocular injury

A

Consider altitude restriction for patients with possible increased ocular pressure or penetrating trauma to the eye

666
Q

Blunt ocular trauma and bleeding

A

Blunt trauma to the eye can result in hyphema; a collection of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. If the patient is upright, a layer of blood may accumulate at the bottom of the cornea. If the patient is flat blood may accumulate in a ring around the cornea. Occasionally, the blood may appear as wisps across the cornea. This is much easier to see in a patient with light colored eyes. Vision will become red or brown if there is enough blood to cover the pupil

667
Q

Retinal detachment in ocular trauma

A

Blunt trauma to the eye or head can cause retinal detachment. The patient may complain of “flashers” or “floaters” or that a curtain obscures part of the vision

668
Q

ocular trauma with small projectiles

A

Small projectiles may penetrate the globe. If the object is entirely within the globe, only a small accumulation of vitreous humor may be present on the sclera over the puncture wound. Commonly, the pupil will become misshapen and will “point” toward the area of penetration

669
Q

Ocular trauma and possible impact of ocular muscles

A

Orbital fractures may trap ocular muscles, preventing normal eye movement. If awake, the patient may complain of diplopia when looking through both eyes, but not when looking through one. The eye may not move through normally when examining extraocular muscle movement. Gently palpate orbit for indication of possible step-off injury

670
Q

Ideal pain scales used for assessing pain level

A

A pain scoring tool such as the 0-10 pain scale or Wong-Baker pain scale for children is used, if possible, to assess comfort

671
Q

Pain scales used if patient is incapable of self-reporting pain intensity

A

Either the Critical care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT) or the FLACC score.

672
Q

Pain score treated for pain scales used for a patient incapable of self reporting pain intensity

A

Pain scores of greater than 2 should be addressed and documented in the medical record

673
Q

Adult Fentanyl pain dosing

A
  • IV/IO: 1-3 mcg/kg (max single dose 200 mcg) q 5-10 minutes, titrate to effect
  • IN: 1-3 mcg/kg q5-10 min, titrate to effect
  • IM: 100 mcg Q 1 hr PRN
  • Continuous infusion: 25-300 mcg/hr, titrate to effect. Mix 300 mcg in 100 ml of NS
674
Q

Adult morphine pain dosing

A
  • IV/IO: 2-5 mg IV/IO q 15-20 min, titrate to effect
  • IM 2-10 mg once for pain
675
Q

Adult Ketamine pain dosing

A
  • IV/IO/IM/IN: 0.15-0.3 mg/kg q 5-10 min, titrate to effect
  • Continuous: 0.1-0.2 mg/kg/hr (mix 500 mg in 100 ml NS
676
Q

Indications to be able to start continuous Ketamine drip

A

Transports greater than 30 minutes, after initial bolus, with no contraindications

677
Q

What medication can be given to help with some side effects of Ketamine

A

Consider Atropine 0.4 mg IV for hypersecretion related to Ketamine administration

678
Q

Adult Acetaminophen pain dosing

A

1000 mg IV over 15 minutes once. May use for mild/moderate pain.

679
Q

Contraindication to IV Acetaminophen

A

Those with known cirrhosis

680
Q

Medication given for pain secondary to IO infusion

A

IO: Lidocaine 2% (cardiac bristojet) 20-40 mg IO slowly over 2-3 minutes

681
Q

Medication given for pain secondary to IV insertion

A

Intradermal: 0.2 ml or less of 2% lidocaine

682
Q

PEDS Fentanyl pain dosing

A

!V/IO/IN: 0.1-1 mcg/kg q 5-10 min, titrate to effect

683
Q

PEDS Morphine pain dosing

A

IV/IO: 0.1 mg/kg q10 min, titrate to effect

684
Q

PEDS Ketamine pain dosing

A

IV/IO/IM: 0.15-0.3 mg/kg Q 5-10, titrate to effect

685
Q

PEDS meds for possible side effects with Ketamine

A

Consider Atropine 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO (minimum 0.1 mg, maximum 0.4) for hypersecretion related to Ketamine administration

686
Q

PEDS Acetaminophen pain dosing

A

Children >2yo: 15 mg/kg IV over 15 minutes once. May use for mild/moderate pain

687
Q

PEDS pain medication secondary to IO infusion

A

IO: Lidocaine 2% 0.5-1 mg/kg no to exceed 30 mg

688
Q

PEDS pain medication secondary to pain associated with IV infusion

A

Intradermal: 0.2 ml or less of 2% Lidocaine

689
Q

Methods to consider for pain management prior to medication administration

A

Padding, positioning, splinting, warmth and distraction

690
Q

IN administation

A

should be divided into 50% in each nostril, if possible

691
Q

special considerations for when to choose morphine as the treatment for analgesia

A

Consider Morphine in patients with longer transport times and before transfer to emergency department where there may be a delay in analgesia

692
Q

When would you consider giving Versed to a patient receiving Ketamine

A

Consider Versed 1mg IV, if hemodynamically stable, to attenuate psychotropic effects and recovery agitation

693
Q

Ketamine infusion contraindications

A

Globe injury, liver disease, uncontrolled hypertension or history of psychosis

694
Q

What is the recommended pain control medication for burn patients

A

Morphine is recommended. Consider higher doses to achieve analgesia, wile maintaining blood pressure and ventilation

695
Q

Benzos with analgesia medications

A

Benzos do not potentiate the analgesic effect of narcotics, they only sedate the patient. A patient in pain without muscle spasm needs analgesia or a dissociative anesthetic

696
Q

Effects of Ketamine on patient

A

Ketamine dissociates the patient from the perception of pain

697
Q

Initial supportive measures for PEA/Asystole for PEDS patients

A
  • CABs (chest compressions, airway, breathing)
  • CPR, rhythm checks no more than every 2 minutes and for no longer than 10 seconds. Pulse check only if an organized rhythm is present
  • cardiac monitor
  • ETT or supraglottic airway placement
  • Obtain IV access. IO access after 2 failed attempts, or if IV access not feasible
  • Confirm in at least 2 leads
698
Q

Possible causes to consider for PEDS Asystole/PEA

A
  • hypovolemia
  • Tension Pneumothorax
  • Hypoxia
  • Acidosis
  • Cardiac Tamponade
  • Hypothermia
  • Pulmonary Embolism
  • Myocardial Infarction
  • Drug Overdose
699
Q

Treatment for possible causes of PEDS Asystole/PEA

A
  • NS fluid bolus
  • Chest decompression
  • Check ET tube placement
  • Ventilate 20-30 bpm
  • Pericardiocentesis
  • Remove from environment/active rewarm
  • Naloxone
700
Q

Epi PEDS dose for Asystole/PEA

A

0.01 mg/kg (0.1 mg/ml) IV/IO push OR 0.1 mg/kg (0.1 mg/ml) ET repeat every 3-5 minutes

701
Q

Interventions if PALS is unsuccessful

A

Consult medical control for possible administration of sodium bicarbonate, or termination of efforts

702
Q

How many round of PALS must be completed and other interventions prior to terminating efforts

A

Prior to termination of efforts, a minimum of three rounds of Epi must be given and cardiac US must be done to confirm cardiac standstill/fibrillation

703
Q

What change in VS could lead to stopping CPR prior to the pulse check

A

A sudden, large increase in ETCO2 is usually an indication of return of spontaneous circulation. Stop CPR and check for pulses

704
Q

Initial question to ask for PEDS with bradycardia arrhythmia (<60) that helps determine course of treatment

A

Is the patient alert, behavior appropriate for age, without signs of poor perfusion?

  • Yes, then transport patient
  • No, then consider possible causes
705
Q

PEDS dose Narcan

A

0.1 mg/kg max single dose 0.4 mg Q 5min up to 2 mg IV/IO/IM/ET/IN if clinically necessary, repeat

706
Q

Intervention PEDS bradycardia to assist with oxygenation

A

If breathing is inadequate, assist ventilations with BVM, PEEP valve at 3-8

707
Q

PEDS interventions with signs of severe cardiopulmonary compromise

A

If signs of cardiopulmonary compromise and the heart rate remains <60, initiate chest compressions

708
Q

Additional possible cause for Bradycardia

A

Hypoglycemia- check a blood sugar

709
Q

Parameters and treatment for hypoglycemia

A
  • Alert with BG <60: consider oral glucose
  • <1 month of age: blood glucose less than 40: D10- 2 ml/kg IV/IO
  • > 1 month of age: blood glucose less than 60: D10- 2 ml/kg IV/IO
710
Q

Interventions if cardiopulmonary compromise persists after interventions

A

Administer Epi 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO of 0.1 mg/ml or 0.1 mg/kg of 1 mg/ml ETT q 3-5 minutes

711
Q

PEDS intervention for bradycardia with increased vagal tone or primary AV block

A

Administer Atropine 0.02 mg/kg IV/IO/ET (minimum dose is 0.1 mg, maximum dose is 0.5 mg), may repeat once in 3-5 min

712
Q

Criteria for tachycardia in infants and children

A

Infants greater than or equal to 220

Children greater than or equal to 180

713
Q

Interventions for PEDS narrow complex tachycardia with signs of poor perfusion and not verbally responsive

A

Consider cardioversion first

714
Q

Interventions for PEDS narrow complex tachycardia with signs of poor perfusion in SVT and verbally responsive

A
  • Valsalve maneuver, if no response
  • Adenosine 0.1 mg/kg IV/IO, if no response
  • 0.2 mg/kg IV/IO, if no response
  • Sychronized Cardioversion 0.5-1 J/kg. If conscious consider sedation and analgesia
715
Q

Interventions for PEDS narrow complex tachycardia with no signs of poor perfusion

A

contact medical control for Adenosine order

716
Q

What intervention needs to be completed when administering Adenosine

A

Run a continuous EKG strip during administration

717
Q

Additional supportive measure utilized in PEDS VF/pulseless VT

A

Use cardiac US during one of the pulse checks if it can be done in less than 10 seconds to evaluate for tamponade and cardiac activity

718
Q

Defib for PEDS VF and pulseless VT

A

Defibrilate at 2 J/kg (max 150 J)

719
Q

Interventions for Perfusing rhythm after 2 minutes of CPR PEDS

A
  • Reassess
  • Support CABs
  • Transport and treat per protocol
720
Q

Interventions for Pulseless VF/VT after 2 minutes of CPR following defibrilation PEDS

A
  • Consider possible causes, ETT/LMA placement
  • Obtain IV access, IO access after 2 failed attempts, or if IV access not feasible
  • Ventilate at a rate of 20-30 bpm
  • Epi 0.01 mg/kg (0.1 mg/ml) IV/IO or 0.1 mg/kg (of 1mg/ml) ETT every 3-5 minutes
  • Defibrillate 4 J/Kg. CPR (2 min)
  • Amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV/IO max dose 300 mg or Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV/IO
  • Defibrillate 4-10 J/kg. CPR 2 min
  • Amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV/IO max 150 mg or Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV/IO
  • Find and treat reversible causes
721
Q

Antiarrhythmic that can ge given if IV access can not be established

A

Lidocaine may be administered via ET at 2.5 mg/kg, this may be repeated once.

722
Q

Subsequent dosing if IV/IO is established after first dose is given

A

IV dose may be repeated at 1 mg/kg.

723
Q

Interventions if Lidocaine pushes convert patient to a perfusing rhythm PEDS

A

Premix a Lidocaine drip at 20-50 mcg/kg/min (Lidocaine premix is 2 gm in 500 ml NS)

724
Q

PEDS treatment for Torsades de Pointes

A

Treat with slow (over several minutes) IV push of Magnesium Sulfate 25-50 mg/kg. Max single dose 2gm

725
Q

Max dose for Pediatric AMio

A

15 mg/kg in 24 hours

726
Q

Wide complex tachycardia interventions based on heart rate being above or below 150

A

If HR< 150 BPM, obtain a 12 lead EKG to confirm VT

If HR> 150, use the PEDS algorithm

727
Q

If patient is conscious, alert, without signs of poor perfusion

A
  • Consider Adenosine if rhythm regular QRS monomorphic, if rhythm persists
  • Amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV/IO over 20 min, if rhythm persists
  • transport
728
Q

If patient is NOT conscious, alter, and without signs of poor perfusion

A

If conscious, sedate per Anxiety/agitation protocol
- Synchronized Cardioversion 0.5-1 J/KG, if no response
- Synchronized Cardioversion 2 J/kg, if no response
- Amiodarone 5 mg/kg over 10 min, if no response
- Synchoronized Cardioversion 2 J/kg, if no response
- Call Medical control for further orders

729
Q

Interventions for PEDS with moderate to severe dehydration

A
  • Maintain body temperature, actively warm if hypothermic
  • 30 days to 12 yo (<50): 20 ml/kg NS bolus over 5-15 min, May repeat x1. Contact medical control for further doses
  • Less than 30 days old: Ns 10 ml/kg bolus. Repeat once after u5 min if no improvement
730
Q

Treatment for fever in PEDS patient

A

If oral, temporal, or rectal temp is > 100.4 and the child has not had Acetaminophen in the last 4 hours, medical crew may give Acetaminophen 15 mg/kg PO or PR. IV dose of 15 mg/kg over 15 minutes may also be administered once.

731
Q

PEDS maintenance fluids

A
  • 4 ml/kg for the first 10 kg plus
  • 2 ml/kg for the next 10 kg
  • 1 ml/kg for every kg after that
732
Q

Fluid selection for PEDS

A

NS is preferred over LR in a critically ill PEDS patient

733
Q

pathophysiology for PEDS fever

A

Fever is a normal immune response to illness. However, for the child in shock or for the child with a pulmonary or cardiac abnormality, the increased metabolic demands can be detrimental and may offset any immunologic benefit from the fever. Reducing fever makes the patient more comfortable. Treating fever does not prevent febrile seizures

734
Q

PEDS with fever and covering the patient with blankets

A

Bundling does not affect fever. Fever is determined by the hypothalamus. Cover the patient enough to make him/her comfortable

735
Q

History questions for poisoning/overdose

A

-Suspected substance, amount, time of exposure, route of exposure
- Cause of exposure- recreational, accidental, suicide attempt

736
Q

Interventions and observations on the scene for a poisoning/overdose

A

Look for evidence on scene, such as pill bottles, recreational drugs and paraphernalia, unusual odors or spills. Bring medication containers to the emergency department with patient. In some cases the patient may no realize they have been exposed, careful history of events leading to the illness may be the biggest clue

737
Q

Immediate interventions for poisoning/overdose patient

A

If skin was exposed to substance (refer to Hazardous Materials protocol), remove clothing and rinse patient with copious amounts of water (see Chemical Burns section of Burns protocol)

738
Q

Carbon Monoxide symptoms ADULT

A

HA, malaise, nausea, dizziness, chest apin, dyspnea, syncope, confusion, tachypnea, tachycardia, ALOC

739
Q

Carbon Monoxide poisoning symptoms infant/toddler

A

Only symptoms may be fussiness or difficulty feeding

740
Q

Treatment for carbon monoxide

A

Non-rebreather mask 15 lpm O2. Do not rely on pulse oximeter. Supportive care

741
Q

SpCO values: 0-5%

A

Considered normal for non-smokers. When >3% with symptoms, consider high flow oxygen and recommend transport. If asymptomatic, no further medical evaluation necessary for SpCO. Counsel patients on signs and symptoms to watch for offer transport to ED, if refused complete AMA

742
Q

SpCO value: 5-10%

A

Considered normal for smokers, abnormal for non-smokers. If symptoms are present, consider high flow oxygen and recommend transport to ED

743
Q

SpCO value: 10-15%

A

abnormal in any patient. Assess for symptoms, consider high flow oxygen and recommend transport to ED

744
Q

SpCO value: >15%

A

Significantly abnormal in any patient. Administer high flow oxygen and recommend transport to ED

745
Q

SpCo value: 30%

A

Consider transport/referral to hyperbaric facility (consider referral to hyperbaric facility if >25% for patients with ALC or pregnant)

746
Q

Symptoms of Tricyclic antidepressant

A

ALOC, HOTN, dysrhythmias, seizures, cardiac arrest

747
Q

Supportive treatment of Tricyclic Antidepressant overdose

A

Supportive care, aggressive fluid resuscitation, vasopressors if still hypotensive after fluid resuscitation (Levo or Neo preferred)

748
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant treatment if QRS > 100 ms

A

a sodium bicarbonate 2-3 mEq/kg IV, max 150 mEq bolus, followed by the initiation of a bicarb infusion (40 mEq in 250 D5W). Infuse at 250 ml/hr for adults or 2x maintenance fluid calculation for pediatrics.

749
Q

Precautions to take when completing an IFT on a patient where they have started a bicarb gtt

A

Make all attempts to obtain a 1 Liter bag of D5W and 150 mEq sodium bicarbonate form the sending facility and mix 150 mEq in 1L. Initiate infusion at 250 ml/hr for adults and 2x the maintenance fluid calculations for peds

750
Q

Organophosphate (insecticide) poisoning symptoms

A

Muscle tremors, ALOC, seizures, HOTN (hypovolemia), SLUDGE

751
Q

SLUDGE

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI distress
Emesis

752
Q

Atropine in Organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine 4 mg IV, doubled every 3-5 min for bronchorrhea or heart rate less than 50, until improvement in symptoms

753
Q

Interventions with dermal exposure for organophosphate

A

Patient must be decontaminated prior to transport in helicopter. see Hazmat protocol

754
Q

Seizure treatment for organophosphate poisoning

A

treat per seizure protocol

755
Q

Treatment for HOTN/hypovolemia associated with organophosphate poisoning

A

Ensure adequate volume resuscitation 500-1000 ml NS bolus

756
Q

RSI considerations with organophosphate poisoning

A

Succinylcholine should be avoided. Rocuronium is preferred but higher doses may be needed

757
Q

PEDS dosing for Atropine in organophospate poisoning

A

Atropine 0.05 mg/kg IV (max 3 mg) every 3-5 minutes for bronchorrhea or heart rate less than 60, until improvement in symptoms

758
Q

Acids/Alkalis poisoning and inducing vomiting

A

If ingested, do not induce vomiting; prevent vomiting per protocol

759
Q

Patients that ingest more than one toxin

A

It is very common that a patient ingests more than one toxin. Combinations may create atypical presentations

760
Q

Interventions if patient received oral activated charcoal prior to transport

A

Take measures to prevent vomiting and protect aircraft interior from contamination with charcoal

761
Q

Ethylene glycol and methanol ingestions treatment

A

Are treated with an ethanol drip (goal is to maintain blood alcohol at .10) so that the body preferentially metabolizes the ethanol and the other alcohol can be excreted intact. Fomepizole is a drug that blocks alcohol dehydrogenase, the enzyme that the body uses to metabolize alcohol, allowing the alcohol to be excreted intact. This drug is given in an IV bolus, not a drip. The usual dose is 15 mg/kg IV loading dose, followed by 10 mg/kg q 12 hours x4 doses

762
Q

Salicylate (ASA, oil of wintergreen) ingestion treatment

A

Salicylate over dose results in a metabolic acidosis. Do not deter hyperventilation. Toxic ingestion is greater than 150 mg/kg. Toxic serum level is more than 40 mg/dl. Toxic levels may be treated with activated charcoal if ingestion is recent and with IV sodium bicarb (1-2 mEq/kg, max 100 mEq, IVP over 3-4 min)

Administer glucose if the patient has ALOC even if BGL is normal

763
Q

PEDS dosing of sodium bicarb to treat Salicylate poisoning

A

1.5-2 times calculated maintenance rate

764
Q

Ibuprofen overdose treatment

A

Ibuprofen toxicity is not measure with serum tests; serum levels do not accurately reflect amount ingested or metabolized. Ibuprofen toxicity affects renal function. Despite high rates of acute NSAID overdoses, few patients experience poor outcomes, most require no medical interventions. Those that do usually experience GI upset and potentially gastric bleeding or renal dysfunction and receive supportive care only as there is no specific antidote

765
Q

Acetaminophen overdose treatment

A

Acetaminophen metabolism results in a metabolite that is toxic to the liver. The younger the patient, the less this metabolite is produced; this is why Acetaminophen is so safe for infants. Serum APAP levels, 4 hours after ingestion, of 140 mg/kg or greater are considered toxic. Activated charcoal may be useful if given within 4 hours of ingestion. N-acetylcysteine (NAC, Mucomyst) is the antidote. it replenishes the liver’s supply of essential enzymes, allowing removal of toxic metabolites. It requires a physician’s order and can be given PO, OG/NG, or IV. The standard initial PO dose is 140 mg/kg, followed by half the calculated amount every 4 hours for 17 doses. IV dose is 150 mg/kg over 60 minutes, then 50 mg/kg over 4 hours, then 100 mg/kg over 16 hours. Dilutions may very.

766
Q

CNS stimulants (cocaine, methanphetamines, PCP, Ecstasy or medications prescribed for narcolepsy, ADHD, and obesity)

A

Oral ingestions may be treated with activated charcoal. Treat following anxiety/agitation protocol

767
Q

Hydrocarbon toxicity (found in petroleum, natural gas, coal, and bitumen)

A

The immediate danger is an aspiration; if the hydrocarbon was ingested, prevention of vomiting is paramount. Aspiration can cause pneumonitis, which may take several hours to develop. Treat per nausea/vomiting protocol. Systemic absorption may cause decreased LOC, heart blocks, Vfib, vomiting, and GI bleeding. Provide supportive care, especially for respiratory distress, consider Albuterol, HHFNC, Bipap and/or mechanical ventilation as necessary. if wide complex tachycardias develop, ACLS prn, consider Lidocaine instead of Epi

768
Q

Calcium channel blockers

A

5-10 times the usual dose results in severe overdose. Overdoses of immediate-release MLBs are characterized by rapid progression to hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and cardiac arrest, while overdoses of extended-release formulations can result in delayed onset of dysrhythmias, shock, sudden cardiac collapse, and bowel ischemia. Calcium can be administered IV/IO to patients who present with symptomatic HOTN or heart block. Usual dose, with physician order: Calcium 1-4 g in adults

Patients may also receive Glucogen, Dextrose, and Insulin. Ensure fluid resuscitation, Atropine for bradycardia, and Levo/Epi for hypotension

769
Q

Calcium chloride dose for PEDS

A

20 ml/kg IV over 10-15 min. Call medical control for orders

770
Q

Cyanide (released in smoke when certain substances are burned; it is also used in hard-rock mining) poisoning treatment

A

Cyanide binds to the ferric ion of cytochrome oxidase, inhibiting this final enzyme in the mitochondrial cytochrome complex. The cell must then switch to anaerobic metabolism of glucose to generate ATP. Despite an ample oxygen supply, cells cannot utilize oxygen because their poisoned electron transport chain. Inhaled Cyanide is lethal within minutes. patients may survive longer if Cyanide is orally ingested. If a patient with suspected cyanide exposure is receiving Hydroxocobalamin (Cyanokit) infusion prior to arrival, continue infusion during transport and monitor patient for adverse reactions (allergic reaction, HTN). Cyanokit is usually given 70 mg/kg; 5 grams is the standard dose, given over 15 minutes IV.

771
Q

Which platforms can transported in a prone position

A

CCT and fixed wing

772
Q

Who should be updated within the company prior to transporting someone prone

A

the Chief Nursing Officer or SOC

773
Q

Questions to be addressed prior to transporting a patient in the prone position

A
  • Assess if the patient has demonstrated the ability to maintain SaO2/hemodynamic stability in prone positioning prior to transfer
  • Is the patient able to tolerate prone positioning for the duration of the transport?
  • Does the sending provider understand the risk of delayed response for CPR and the increased risk of device dislodgement during transport in a prone position?
774
Q

Devices that should be in place prior to performing IFT on prone patient

A

Request the sending facility place a bite block, NG/OG and pacer pads prior to transferring

775
Q

Placement of lines and critical medications for prone patient

A

place critical lines/medications on the opposite side as the patient’s head is facing. Disconnect IV lines if possible. Verify they are not underneath the patient before, during and after transfer

776
Q

Special intervention with ETT when transferring patient to stretcher and between ventilators

A

Clamp the ETT to retain alveolar recruitment

777
Q

Positioning on the stretcher for a prone patient

A

Place pillows under bony prominences. Place patient in a swimmer position or modified swimmers crawl with the face turned away from the aircraft wall, tilted slightly to optimize access to the patient’s face and ETT. Consider raising patient’s arm opposite from their face to facilitate ease of turning if needed. Patients may be slightly tilted from the swimmer’s position to optimize access to the ETT and patient’s face

778
Q

Restraints for prone patient

A

place bilateral soft wrist restraints on the patient, assess CMS before and after placement

779
Q

Sedation and paralysis for prone patient

A

maintain adequate sedation and paralysis throughout the transport. Consider getting orders from the sending provider for a Vecuronium drip

780
Q

Steps to turning the patient from prone to supine if the patient condition changes, necessitating turning the patient into a supine position

A
  • Ensure one person is at the head of the patient to maintain the ETT throughout the move
  • Additional crew members will secure the patient in a sheet/blanket, and secure tubing and ETT for turning the patient. Roll the patient in the direction they are facing while assessing and maintaining ETT and lines
  • Clamp the ETT and disconnect ventilator tubing prior to turning. If time allows, consider disconnecting IV drips as well
781
Q

Reassessment of skin for prone patient

A

Skin should be reassessed at a minimum of every 2 hours to reduce risk of pressure ulcers

782
Q

Intervention to eyes to reduce risk of trauma

A

Consider taping the eyes closed

783
Q

What alternatives can be done to a full prone position

A

Awake proning or side lying position if patient is able to tolerate on all transport planforms

784
Q

SpO2 goal for a patient with COPD

A

90-95%

785
Q

Interventions for asthma/reactive airway disease

A
  • Albuterol 2.5-5 mg until symptoms improve. Use Albuterol in HHNC continuously if necessary
  • Consider Albuterol/Ipratropium in nebulizers 2 and 3
  • Solu-medrol 125 mgx1 dose
  • Consider Magnesium 2 grams IV over 20 minutes if the above conventional therapies remain ineffective
  • For imminent respiratory failure, administer Epi 0.3 mg (0.3 ml of 1 mg/ml) IM. If no response to IM, give Epi 0.3 mg IV
  • See anxiety/sedation protocol for agitation and continued sedation for intubated patients
786
Q

Asthma/reactive airway treatment for PEDS

A

Albuterol:
- <12 yo: 0.15 mg/kg (max dose 2.5 mg) q 20 minutes for 3 doses followed by 0.5 mg/kg/hr diluted in 3 ml saline for continuous nebulization
- >12 yo: use the adult dose
- Epinephrine: 0.01 mg/kg of 1 mg/ml up to 0.3 mg IM
- Impending respiratory failure: Epi 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO to max dose of 0.3 mg
- Administer Solu-Medrol 0.5-1 mg/kg x1 dose
- Consider Magnesium Sulfate 50 mg/kg up to 2 gm in Ns 100 ml; administer over 20 minutes
- Call medical control if interventions unsuccessful and terbutaline required. Terbutaline 0.01 mg/kg, max dose of 0.4 mg.
- See anxiety/sedation protocol for agitation

787
Q

Treatment for Stridor or hypoxia related to croup or epiglottitis PEDS

A
  • Allow the patient to remain sitting upright if alert
  • Racemic Epinephrine (2.25%):
    — <6 months of age nebulizer 0.25 ml
    — >6 months nebulizer 0.5 ml; may repeat in 20 minutes
  • Assure adequate hydration with maintenance IV fluids (Peds dehydration protocol)
788
Q

Chronic lung disease with deterioration

A
  • Adminsiter albuterol unit dose until symptoms improve
  • Consider Albuterol-Ipratropium in neb 2 and 3
  • Solu-Medrol 125 mg IVP X1
  • For impending respiratory failure, give continuous Albuterol nebulizers diluted with 3 ml saline (use Albuterol/Ipratropium only in NNMs 2 and 3)
  • Consider placing patient on BIPAP per BIPAP per Ventilatory Management protocol
789
Q

Interventions for Pulmonary Edema

A
  • Position patient sitting up at blood pressure will tolerate
  • Administer NTG 0.4 mg SL or NTG o.4 mg (2 ml) IVP, q 5 minutes up to 3 is SBP >100 while preparing to initiate Nitro infusion at 50-200 mcg/min to keep SBP >90 and titrate to effect (Nitro 50 mg in 250 D5W)
  • Furosemide 40 mg IV/IO over 5 minutes if not currently taking at home, or the equivalent of one dose of their home oral regiment IV/IO (no order needed)
  • Treat pain according to Acute Coronary Syndrome protocol
  • Employ anxiolysis using anxiety/agitation protocol
  • Consider assisting breathing with BVM and use of PEEP valve to provide noninvasive protective pressure ventilation. Begin with a PEEP setting of 8 cm and adjust as necessary to maximum of 10 cm.
  • Consider implementation of BIPAP on Hamilton Ventilator (see ventilator management protocol) start with Pinsp 12/ PEEP 5, Pramp 2, and ETS to 40%
790
Q

Interventions for pneumothorax

A
  • Watch for s/s of tension physiology. If patient deteriorates rapidly, perform a needle thoracostomy on the affected side according to procedure. If needle thoracostomy x2 unsuccessful, proceed to simple thoracostomy
  • Consider chest tube insertion upon definitive confirmation of a significant pneumothorax or hemothorax by x-ray or US and with MD order
791
Q

Asthma/reactive airway and utilization of BIPAP

A

Asthma/reactive airway disease with impending respiratory failure, initiate Bipap as early as possible. BIPAP helps to improve gas exchange; stents open the obstructed airways, and reduces fatigue which may prevent the need for intubation. BIPAP can also be used for pre-oxygenation while preparing RSI

792
Q

Initial BIPAP settings

A
  • Pinsp (IPAP): 7-15, adjust to target Vt of 6-8 ml/kg
  • PEEP (EPAP): 5-10
  • High inspiratory flow rate
  • Prolonged I:E ratio (ex. 1:5)
793
Q

Considerations of Ketamine with airway management

A

Ketamine has bronchodilatory properties which may help optimize both oxygenation and ventilation

794
Q

RSI for intubation

A

IF RSI is indicated, consider pre-medicating the patient with Fentanyl as this can aid in blunting the sympathetic response to laryngoscopy. Again, utilize Ketamine if possible and consider paralysis. Select the largest diameter ET tube appropriate for the patient size

795
Q

Monitoring and adjusting vent settings for asthma/reactive airway disease

A
  • Select lower respiratory rates (8-12 bpm) and consider paralysis if the patient begins to experience auto PEEP
  • Monitor for increasing peak airway pressures as an indicator of possible auto-PEEP
  • Increase the set PEEP to overcome the auto-PEEP phenomenon
  • Adjust the I:E ratio by monitoring the patient’s ETCO2. Consider prolonged ratios for pediatric patients (1:4 or 1:6)
    Use pressure control ventilation (PCV) if necessary
796
Q

COPD patient and oxygen administration

A

Administer oxygen if the COPD patient is hypoxic (< 92%). Oxygen should not be withheld in the COPD patient who is hypoxic. Closely monitor patient for signs of CO2 narcosis

797
Q

4 signs that suggest imminent respiratory arrest in a patient with acute respiratory distress

A
  • Decreasing level of consciousness
  • Rising ETCO2
  • Inability to maintain respiratory effort
  • Cyanosis

Presence of one or more of these warrants immediate intervention, because untreated respiratory arrest will lead to cardiac arrest in very short order

798
Q

oxygen administration in patients that are not hypoxic

A

Oxygen administrated to patients who aren’t hypoxic can be harmful. Oxygen constricts coronary vessels, lowering myocardial oxygen delivery, and likely increases infarct size in the setting of an acute myocardial infarction. In addition to increasing mortality in trauma patients, stroke victims and neonates, prehospital high flow oxygen increases mortality in patients with acute respiratory distress

799
Q

When to use caution with administering Epi IM/IV for airway management

A

With patients > 45 years old or with previous cardiac history

800
Q

Caution in children with airway issues and stimulation

A

As long as the child has adequate ventilation and mentation, avoid stimulation which may cause agitation. Include parents as much as possible

801
Q

Children and rate of CO2 build-up

A

Children have a higher metabolic rate= greater oxygen demand, and faster CO2 build-up

802
Q

Cause and treatment for epiglotitis

A

Epiglottitis is a bacterial disease most commonly caused by Haemophilus Influenzae type B. It is associated with a fever over 102 and inability to swallow secretions due to pain. Epiglottitis is most common in young adults due to waning immunity after immunization The incidence of epiglottitis in children is on the rise due to falling immunization rates. Attempt to keep child as calm as possible. Do not look down throat unless intubation is absolutely imperative. In most cases, one can successfully administer ventilations via BVM with PEEP valve set at 8 even if patient is in respiratory arrest

803
Q

pathophysiology of Croup

A

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is a viral disease, associated with a fever less than 102 degrees and a barking cough. Usually, the patient can swallow secretions without difficulty. The swelling in croup is below the vocal cords

804
Q

Wheezing in bronchoconstriction

A

Wheezing in bronchoconstriction begins with end-expiratory wheezes, progressing to wheezes throughout exhalation, then during inhalation, then absent breath sounds as ventilation ceases in constricted airways. Initiation of albuterol may, at first, increase wheezes because ventilation will increase in areas that previously had no airflow

805
Q

History assessment for seizure patients

A
  • Time, character, and duration of seizure
  • Prior history of seizures, including type of seizures, precipitating factors that may lower seizure threshold or cause new onset of seizures
  • Medications taken or prescribed, compliance with meds
  • Ingestion or injection of toxins
  • Exposure to pathogens
  • Recent trauma
  • Pregnancy trimester
806
Q

Physical assessment for seizure patient

A
  • current seizure activity, mental status, temperature, evidence of injury
  • Subtle movement of face or eyes that may indicate seizure activity
  • Evidence of recent seizure activity- incontinence, injury to mouth, tongue

PEDS: presence of fever, including onset and home treatment

807
Q

Adult interventions for seizures

A
  • Protect patient from injury and aspiration
  • Consider sidestream ETCO2
  • Check for pulse immediately after seizure stops
  • Verify blood glucose level, see Altered Mental Status protocol for glucose administration
  • Midazolam (Versed): for seizure activity lasting more than 2 minutes:
    — Patients >40 kg 10 mg IM, may repeat X1 (preferred), alternatively 5 mg IV, may repeat x1
    — Patients 13-40kg 5 MG IM, may repeat x1, alternatively 2.5 mg IV, may repeat x1
  • Call for further orders if patient still seizing after 2 doses for possible Midazolam gtt
  • Keppra 30 mg/kg IVP loading dose up to a maximum dose of 1500 mg
808
Q

PEDS interventions for seizures <13 kg

A
  • follow Altered Mental Status protocol for D10 administration
  • For seizure activity administer
    —Midazolam 0.2 mg/kg IV/IO/IN/IM and repeat q5 min for prolonged or recurrent seizure activity. Max single dose 5 mg
  • Keppra 30 mg/kg IVP loading dose up to a maximum dose of 1500 mg
809
Q

Eclampsia seizure treatment

A

Eclampsia is a true life-threatening emergency for both mother and fetus. For sustained seizure activity the only treatment is fetal delivery. See OB-pregnancy induced hypertension protcol

810
Q

Precautions for patient with history of Epilepsy

A

If the patient has a history of Epilepsy, consult with the family or care provider to be sure they want the patient transported

811
Q

Etiology of seizures

A

Seizure etiology ranges from Epilepsy to complex toxicological emergencies. Be prepared to assess for and treat causes whenever possible

812
Q

complication if Versed is given IN

A

Midazolam has a pH of <4 and will sting when given intranasally

813
Q

categories of pediatric febrile seizures

A

Pediatric febrile seizures are self-limiting. Febrile seizures are further divided into two categories, simple and complex, based upon clinical features

814
Q

Febrile status epilepticus (FSE)

A

Some patients present in FSE, i.e. continuous seizures or intermittent seizures without neurologic recovery, lasting for a period of 30 minutes or longer. In up to 1/3 of cases of FSE, the actual seizure duration is underestimated in the ED. Important clinical clues that a seizure has ended include the presence of closed eyes and a deep breath. Children with persistently open and deviated eyes may still be seizing, even if convulsive motor activity has stopped.

815
Q

possible treatment for pediatric epilepsy

A

Medical marijuana may be used for treatment of pediatric epilepsy

816
Q

Sepsis possible suspected source of infection

A
  • Pneumonia
  • UTI
  • Bacteremia
  • Abscess/cellulitis
  • Abdominal
  • Bone/joint
  • Endocarditis
  • Meningitis
817
Q

2 or more of the following are needed for SIRS criteria

A
  • HR>90
  • Temp < 96.9 or >101
  • RR>20
  • PaCO2 <32
  • WBC <4 or >14
  • Bands >10%
818
Q

Indicator of acute organ dysfunction (one required for sepsis)

A
  • Acute altered mental status
  • SBP<90 or MAP <70
  • SBP decrease >40 from baseline
  • Acute hypoxia, increase in O2 needs
  • Arterial hypoxemia (PaO2<300)
  • Acute Oliguria (<0.5 ml/kg/hr for 2 hours)
  • Creatinine >2 or increase in 0.5 above baseline
  • Coagulopathy (INR>1.5, PTT>60 seconds)
  • Thrombocytopenia (PLT<100K)
  • Bilirubin >2
  • Lactate >2
819
Q

PEDS criteria for Sepsis

A

at least 2 SIRS criteria from table AND suspected or proven infection

820
Q

PEDS newborn to 1 week Criteria

A
  • Tachycardia: >180
  • Bradycardia: <100
  • RR: >50
  • Leukocyte count: >34
  • SBP <59
821
Q

PEDS 1 week to 1 month criteria

A
  • Tachycardia: >180
  • Bradycardia: <100
  • RR: >40
  • Leukocyte count: >19.5 or <5
  • SBP: <79
822
Q

PEDS 1 month to 1 yo criteria

A
  • Tachycardia: >180
  • Bradycardia: <90
  • RR: >34
  • Leukocyte count: >17.5 or <5
  • SBP: <75
823
Q

PEDS criteria 1-4 yo

A
  • Tachycardia: >140
  • Bradycardia: NA
  • RR: >22
  • Leukocyte count: >15.5 or <6
  • SBP: <74
824
Q

PEDS criteria 5-11 yo

A
  • Tachycardia: >130
  • Bradycardia: NA
  • RR: >18
  • Leukocyte count: >13.5 or <4.5
  • SBP: <83
825
Q

PEDS criteria 12-17 yo

A
  • Tachycardia: >110
  • Bradycardia: NA
  • RR: >14
  • Leukocyte count: >11 or <4.5
  • SBP: <90
826
Q

PEDS definition for severe sepsis is defined as ALL of the following

A
  • greater than 2 age-based SIRS criteria
  • Suspected or proven infection
  • Cardiovascular dysfunction, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), or at least one non-cardiovascular organ system dysfunctions
827
Q
A
828
Q

Information needed about cultures with sepsis

A

Document if cultures were obtained, date/time, and results if available

829
Q

Sepsis and Lactate results

A

Document date/time of the most recent lactate results if available

830
Q

Interventions if Antibiotics are ordered or hanging

A

Set rate in order to complete infusion within one hour

831
Q

Interventions if patient has suspected infection with two or more SIRS criteria and a minimum of one indicator of acute organ dysfunction and patient has not received abx

A

Administer Ceftriaxone 2 grams SIVP in 20 ml NS

832
Q

Contraindication to Ceftriaxone administration

A

Allergy to Cephalosporin

833
Q

Interventions for Sepsis with SBP <90 or MAP <65

A

Give 30 ml/kg IBW LR IV bolus wide open. If MAP remains <65, give an additional 500-1000ml LR fluid bolus concurrently while beginning Levo infusion

834
Q

Levo infusion for sepsis

A

Levo infusion 0-1.0 mcg/kg/min (IBW) if MAP <65 concurrently with second fluid bolus. Titrate to keep SBP >90 and MAP >65. (Mix 4 mg Levo in 250 D5W)

835
Q

RSI in patients with respiratory failure in septic shock with SBP <90

A

Consider push dose Epi 5-20 mcg q 2-5 min (mix 1 ml of Epi 0.1 mg/ml in 9 ml saline flush for 10 mcg/ml) dose is 0.5-2 ml q 5 min

836
Q

Interventions for sepsis patient if patient has a central line

A

Transduce and monitor CVP. Initiate NS fluid boluses to a target of 8-10 if not intubated (10-12 if intubated and n mechanical ventilation).

837
Q

Interventions if unable to maintain SBP/MAP goals with Levophed

A

If unable to achieve SBP of 90 with Levo at 1 mcg/kg/min (IBW), initiate Epi infusion at 0-0.5 mcg/kg/min (IBW). Titrate to keep SBP >90 and MAP >65 (mix 1 mg of 1 mg/1 ml in 100 mls NS)

OR consult medical control for Vasopressin at a fixed rate of 0.03 u/min (mix 40 units of vasopressin in 100 ml NS)

838
Q

ABX administration for PEDS if patient has not received antibiotics

A

Administer Ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg (up to 2 grams) SIVP (mix in 10 ml NS)

839
Q

Intervention for PEDS patients with:
- Infant <1 yr: SBP <50
- Child 1-5 yr: SBP <60
- Child >5 yr: SBP <70
- Or child WITH ALL THREE: cold extremities, prolonged capillary refill >3 seconds, weak/fast pulse

A

Give 10-20 ml/kg fluid bolus over 10-20 min. May repeat x2, monitoring for s/s of fluid overload or myocardial dysfunction.

840
Q

PEDS intervention if shock persists after 3 boluses, or any development of myocardial dysfunction

A

Initiate Epi 0.1-1 mcg/kg/min. Epi drip may be initiated sooner if signs of fluid overload develop. (mix 1 mg of epi in 100 ml NS)

841
Q

PEDS hypoglycemia in Sepsis

A

Correct hypoglycemia as needed

842
Q

PEDS correction of hypocalcemia

A

Consult with receiving provider to correct hypocalcemia as needed

843
Q

What to do if poor perfusion persists after above interventions for PEDS

A

Rule out and correct pericardial effusion, pneumothorax, and increased intra-abdominal pressure

844
Q

When to consult with receiving provider to consider Prostaglandin E-1

A

for infants <30 days until ductal-dependent cardiac lesion is ruled out by echocardiogram

845
Q

Significance of early ABX administration

A

early administration of abx has been prove to decrease morbidity and mortality in sepsis

846
Q

Most common cause of mortality in Septic shock adults

A

Vascular failure

847
Q

Most common cause of mortality in septic shock PEDS

A

Cardiac failure

848
Q

History assessment for snake bite and other envenomations

A
  • type of animal and its current location
  • Time of initial bite
  • How animal was encountered and how injury was sustained
  • Previous venomous bite/sting
  • Allergy to animal stings (see allergy/anaphylaxis protocol)
849
Q

Physical assessment for snake bite and other envenomations

A
  • Location, number of bites/stings
  • Description of injuries and initial symptoms
  • Localized and generalized evidence of reaction (see allergy/anaphylaxis protocol)
850
Q

Interventions for All Envenomations

A
  • Treat every bite as an envenomation until proven by lab work. Do not delay transport
  • If an exotic animal, contact medical control
  • Provide basic wound care
  • Remove constrictive clothing and jewelry
  • Treat pain/anxiety per pain/agitation/anxiety protocol
  • Mark advancing inflammation with a pen, noting start time and assess every 15 min
  • Remove and avoid tourniquets, suction, ice, alcohol, shock therapy or folk therapies
  • If evidence of anaphylaxis, follow allergy/anaphylaxis protocol
851
Q

Monitoring if antivenin is running for an IFT

A

Monitor for allergic reaction. if signs of systemic reactions occur, stop the infusion and see allergy protocol

852
Q

Interventions for Rattlesnake bite

A
  • Elevate the extremity to the level of the heart, not above as that may increase systemic absorption
  • If there may be a delay of more than 6 hours in reaching reno, consider transporting to smaller hospital. Most hospitals in Nevada carry the first dose of antivenin.
  • Contact hospital for acceptance or if antivenom is available at hospital
853
Q

Interventions for insect envenomations

A

Localized reaction: administer Diphenhydramine per Allergy/anaphylaxis protocol. Treat ABCs, pain, and anxiety. Treat symptoms supportively

854
Q

Treatment for Black Widow bite

A

Treat muscle spasms with Midazolam and analgesia per pain protocol

855
Q

How to show the receiving facility what animal caused the bite

A

Do not bring the animal, dead or alive, to the ED. Take a picture of the animal, if safe to do so, to aid in diagnosis

856
Q

Serum sickness

A

Patients may develop serum sickness from days to weeks after treatment with antivenin. Clinical findings include fever, rash, arthralgia, facial swelling, neuropathy, and renal dysfunction. Treat supportively

857
Q

Possible allergies that may indicate an allergy to anitvenom

A

Depending on the antivenom used, patients who are allergic to horses or papaya may sustain an anaphylactic reaction. Crofab is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to papaya

858
Q

Possible reactions to Hymenoptera (Bee, wasps, and ants)

A

Patients may react with a generalized or local allergic reaction, or, if multiple stings are incurred, venom toxicity may develop 7-14 days after stings. Venom toxicity manifests as flu-like symptoms. Most deaths are caused by hypersensitivity reactions and anaphylaxis

859
Q

Rattlesnakes in call area

A

The only venomous snake indigenous to our call area is a subspecies of the Western Rattlesnake, the Great Basin Rattlesnake.

860
Q

Rattlesnake and degree of envenomation and injuries based on the degree

A

Rattlesnake bites vary greatly in degree of envenomation; 30% are considered minimal and need no antivenin or “dry bites”. If the bite is not directly into a blood vessel, the immediate concern is tissue swelling, which can lead to compartment syndrome and Rhabdomyolysis. Hours later, patients may develop coagulopathy. if venom is injected directly into the vascular system, immediate coagulopathy and systemic symptoms may develop; treat supportively and do not delay transport. Characterization of rattle snake bites is based upon one or two puncture wounds. If the bite is serrated or if the victim had to pull the snake off, it was most likely NOT a rattlesnake. Avoid NSAIDS for pain management

861
Q

Scorpions in our call area

A

Scorpions in our call are inflict a sting similar to a bee sting. The venom does not contain a neurotoxin. They are typically orange to dark brown and 1 1/2-3 inches long. The Arizona Bark Scorpion, found in A, NM, TX, CA and southern NV can cause severe pain, neurotoxic reactions, and can be fatal, especially for those <6 yo. Be sure to ask if the patient has recently moved from an area where there are toxic scorpions, they travel very well in moving boxes.

862
Q

Black widow in our call area

A

Are widespread in this area at altitudes lower than 7000 feet. The black widow bite usually causes sharp pain at the site with minimal surrounding erythema. Their venom causes presynaptic discharge of neurons/muscle cells. The victim may develop severe muscle cramps originating in the limb where bitten and extending to the abdomen, but these symptoms frequently do not occur, so prophylactic treatment is not recommended. If cramping develops, Midazolam and analgesia are indicated. These symptoms are usually resolved within 8-12 hours. Antivenin is available at RRMC and St. Mary’s. Severity of black widow bites range from mild (local skin reaction), moderate (general spasmodic muscle pain in the bitten extremity which may be accompanied by local diaphoresis), to severe (pain that is severe and difficult to control and may be accompanied by systemic findings such as Tachycardia, HTN, N/V and HA.

863
Q

Brown Recluse in our call area

A

These spiders are not indigenous to our call are, but may be imported on goods and materials from areas east of the Rocky Mountains. Their bites cause a central hemorrhagic vesicle, which develops into an expanding area of necrosis. The Desert Recluse spider, is indigenous to this area; it can cause necrosis, though not as significant as the brown recluse. Spiders also travel well in moving boxes or vehicles. Yellow sac spiders are common in NeJerusevada and can cause a local reaction, but can be mistaken for a brown recluse

864
Q

Jerusalem Cricket in our call area

A

(Potato Bug) inflicts a painful bite, but is not venomous

865
Q

Physical assessment for spinal trauma and back pain

A
  • Neurologic or motor deficits, including numbness, tingling, radiation of symptoms
  • Spinal midline tenderness or anatomic deformity secondary to injury
  • incontinence
  • Priapism
  • Signs of neurogenic shock
866
Q

Focused spine assessment definition

A

An exam that utilizes mechanism(s) of injury, external factors, and specific physical exam findings to rule out potential spinal injury

867
Q

Spinal motion restrictions (SMR) definition

A

Application cervical/thoracic splint-collar and patient placed in a position of comfort on the gurney with normal seat belt straps applied

868
Q

Full-spinal immobilization definition

A

Application cervical/thoracic splint-collar and patient placed on either a vacuum splint or on a padded backboard or equivalent with head and body securely immobilized with straps and tape

869
Q

Categories within a focused spinal exam

A
  • No distracting injury
  • No motor or sensory deficits
  • no focal midline tenderness or deformity
  • No limited range of motion
870
Q

How to assess for “no distracting injury”

A

Can the patient focus on your exam or are they in severe distress from other injuries or emotional stressors? Long bone fractures, bleeding, joint deformity may or may not be distracting for an individual patient

871
Q

How to assess for “no motor or sensory deficits”

A
  1. Assess bilateral grips/pedal push/pulls
    - in the case of extremity injury they should be able to flex/extend at the ankles and wrists or move fingers and toes. The patient should be able to move all distal extremities
  2. Check for sense of touch in all extremities by lightly brushing a gloved hand on each extremity
872
Q

How to assess for “no focal midline tenderness or deformity”

A

Palpate the entire spine on the boney processes one at a time from C1 to L5.

The patient may complain of general back or spine pain, but should not have any focal MIDLINE tenderness to palpation or obvious deformity. Deformity would include but not limited to an obvious step off from one level to another or bony crepitus.

873
Q

How to assess for “no limited rang of motion”

A

Ask the patient to rotate their head 45 degrees side to side. Do not assist with this process.
- If the patient has any pain they should be placed in SMR

874
Q

What should happen if any of the four components of the focused spinal exam are positive

A

the patient should then be placed in SMR

875
Q

What finding on a focused spinal assessment algorithm would require a full spinal immobilization

A

Penetrating injury WITH gross motor or sensory deficits or unresponsive

876
Q

What findings on a focused spinal assessment algorithm would require an SMR

A

Blunt injury from “significant mechanism” with:
- Altered level of consciousness
- Age >65 or <5 years old, or language barrier preventing reliable history or exam
- injury detracts from or prevents reliable history or exam
- gross motor or sensory deficits
- midline thoracic/cervical spine pain or tenderness
- spinal deformity
- limited cervical spine active range of motion

877
Q

Definition of “significant mechanism”

A

high-energy events such as ejection, high falls, axial loading, and abrupt deceleration crashes and may indicate the need for spinal immobilization

878
Q

Criteria for immobilization for high risk populations

A

High-risk populations (<5 or >65 years old) should be immobilized even in low energy mechanisms

879
Q

what patient populations should you consider modified immobilization

A

any patient with arthritis, cancer, dialysis or other underlying spinal or bone disease

880
Q

what component of immobilization is based on EMS provider discretion

A

Any patient may be immobilized based on EMS provider discretion

881
Q

Interventions for neurologic deficits above T4 ADULTS

A
  • maintain body temperature with blankets and warming blanket, if needed.
  • initially treat hypotension with an LR bolus up to 1L
  • If unable to obtain MAP>80, initiate levo gtt (0-1 mcg/kg/min IBW) to achieve a goal MAP>80
882
Q

Immobilization of PEDS patients with possible spinal injury

A

Consider the Kendrick Extrication device as an immobilization device for infants and toddlers

Infants and toddlers can be adequately immobilized while in their car seats

883
Q

Interventions for PEDS with neurologic deficit above T4

A

Maintain body temperature with chem and wool blankets if needed.

Treat hypotension with NS or LR 20 ml/kg bolus first, then levo gtt

884
Q

MAP goals for PEDS with neurologic deficit above T4

A
  • MAP >60 in children 6-12 yo
  • MAP >50 in children less than 6 yo
885
Q

airway management with SMR

A

Airway maintenance supersedes spinal motion restriction; if a cervical collar is in place, the front portion can be removed in order to obtain an airway

886
Q

Penetrating trauma and spinal motion restriction

A

Generally, patients with penetrating trauma do not need SMR unless the injury involves the spinal cord

887
Q

Ground level falls and a low threshold for SMR

A

Ground level fall in patients over 60 or who have bone disease may be enough mechanism for cervical spine injury. Have a low threshold for SMR in these patients

888
Q

Spinal cord injuries and poikilothermia and neurogenic shock

A

Cervical and high thoracic spinal cord injuries may result in loss of sympathetic innervation. The patient may develop poikilothermia and neurogenic shock

889
Q

management of SMR on patients with properly fitted helmets and shoulder pads

A

Athletes needing spinal precautions that are wearing properly fitted helmet and shoulder pads are to be placed in SMR WITH helmet and shoulder pads left on, removing the face mask for airway control.

890
Q

management of SMR on patients with properly fitted helmets without shoulder pads

A

Athletes who present helmeted without shoulder pads should have their helmets removed using proper technique minimizing cervical spine manipulation prior to SMR

891
Q

Central cord injuries

A

May affect only the arms, sparing the legs. Arms may become hypersensitive, requiring blood pressure measurement on a leg due to pain associated with inflation of cuff

892
Q

Anterior cord syndrome

A

Is often associated with flexion type injuries to the cervical spine, causing damage to the anterior portion of the spinal cord and/or the blood supply from the anterior spinal artery. Below the level of injury motor function, pain sensation, and temperature sensation are lost, while touch, proprioception, and sense of vibration remain intact

893
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

usually occurs when the spinal cord is hemisectioned or injured on the lateral side. True hemisections of the spinal cord are rare, but partial lesions due to penetrating wounds are more common. On the ipsilateral side of the injury there is a loss of motor function, proprioception, vibration, and light touch. Contralaterally there is a loss of pain, temperature, and crude touch sensation

894
Q

Considerations for injuries at the C1/C2 levels

A

require positive pressure ventilation

895
Q

Considerations for injuries at the C3 level and above

A

typically result in loss of diaphragm function; patient is dependent on intercostal muscles only

896
Q

Considerations for injuries at the C4 level

A

results in a significant loss of function at the biceps and shoulders

897
Q

Considerations for injuries at the C5 level

A

results in potential loss of function at the biceps and shoulders, and complete loss of function at the wrist and hands

898
Q

Considerations for injuries at the C6 level

A

results in limited wrist control and complete loss of hand function

899
Q

considerations for injuries at the C7 and T1 level

A

results in lack of dexterity in the hands and fingers, but allows for limited use of arms

900
Q

Possible complication of excessive fluid resuscitation with spinal cord injury

A

has the potential to cause further cord swelling, increased damage, and worse outcomes

901
Q

Urine output and spinal cord injury patient

A

assess urine output if able

902
Q

considerations with positioning if able to elevate HOB

A

Elevate HOB with towels or stretcher underneath spinal board if not contraindicated

903
Q

Considerations for interventions if constraindicated to elevate HOB

A

consider antiemetics in supine patients unable to raise HOB

904
Q

History assessment for stroke patient

A
  • Time that patient was last seen functioning at baseline. If known, document the time of onset of symptoms. If onset of symptoms is unknown, document last known “normal” time
  • Baseline level of cognitive function
  • Changes in symptoms since onset
  • medical history, including use of anticoagulants
  • Recent head trauma
  • recent surgery
  • Drug or ETOH use
905
Q

Physical assessment for stroke patients

A
  • detailed neurologic exam
  • progression or regress of symptoms en route
  • heart tones (irregularity, murmur)
  • bruits in the neck
  • Pulses in neck, arms, legs, looking for asymmetry, absence, or irregularity
  • Skin signs; including purpura, ecchymosis, recent scarring
906
Q

Categories for FAST ED stroke screen

A
  • Facial palsy
  • Arm weakness
  • Speech changes
  • Eye deviation
  • Denial/neglect
907
Q

Facial palsy scoring

A

0- Normal or minor paralysis
1- Partial or complete paralysis

908
Q

Arm weakness scoring

A

0- no drift
1- Drift or some effort against gravity
2- No effort against gravity or movement

909
Q

Speech change scoring

A

0- Absent
1- mild to moderate
2- Severe global aphasia or mute

910
Q

Eye deviation scoring

A

0- absent
1- partial
2- forced deviation

911
Q

Denial/neglect scoring

A

0- Absent
1- Extinction or bilateral simultaneous stimulation in 1 sensory modality
2- Does not recognize own hand/orients to only one side of body

912
Q

Interventions if patient meets stroke Pre-alert criteria

A

Contact receiving facility as quickly as possible and transport without delay

Obtain 2 IV sites, if possible

913
Q

Stroke pre-alert criteria

A
  • Patient is positive for any component of the FAST-ED stroke screen
  • Over 18 years of age
  • Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset or “last seen normal”
914
Q

Exclusion criteria for stroke pre-alert

A

-Stroke or head trauma in past 3 months
- Previous intracranial hemorrhage
- Major surgery in past 2 weeks
- Active bleeding

915
Q

Anti-hypertensive therapy options based on two reading taken 5 minutes apart

A

Labetalol, Nicardipine or Hydralazine (HR<60)

916
Q

Labetalol dosing

A
  • Bolus of 10-20 mg SIVP if BP goal not met. May repeat in 10 minutes x1
  • IV infusion- Administer 1-10 mg/min via IV infusion. Titrate to desired response. Mix 100 mg to 80 ml NS
917
Q

Nicardipine dosing

A

IV infusion: initiate infusion at 5 mg/hr. Titrate every 10 minutes as needed in increments of 2.5 mg/hr to desired SBP. Max dose 15 mg/hr. (Mix 25 mg in 90mls NS)

918
Q

Hydralazine dosing

A

Bolus of 10-20 mg IV every 15 minutes (max dose 60 mg)

919
Q

BP goals for acute ischemic stroke

A

BP should only be reduced if the SBP is > 220 or DBP >120. the exception to this is if tPA has been given then the goal is less than 180/105. Do not reduce BP more than 15% from the patients baseline blood pressure

920
Q

BP goals for spontaneous bleeds or other acute space occupying lesions

A

maintain SBP<140

921
Q

BP goal for subarachnoid bleeds

A

first treat with pain and/or sedation medications with a goal to maintain SBP<160. Remember that patients with subarachnoid bleeds are likely to have very labile blood pressures. Be sure to determine that SBPs are consistently >160 over 5-10 minutes prior to starting anti-hypertensive therapy. Again, do not reduce SBP more than 15% from baseline.

922
Q

When to intervene with low BP

A

For all types of stroke patients: if at any time the SBP drops below 90, stop any vasodilators and treat with fluid boluses and then begin Levo if fluids are not successful

923
Q

Stroke patients with a fever

A

If greater than 38C, administer 1000 mg Iv acetaminophen over 15 minutes once. Contraindicated for cirrhosis patients

924
Q

Treatment for patient with intracranial bleeding who is on anticoagulation

A

confirm appropriate reversal measures have been take and if not, discuss this with the sending MD

925
Q

Stroke BP management and increased ICP

A

Be very cautious about lowering the BP in the person who is demonstrating signs of increasing ICP. Lowering the BP could result in decreasing CPP to a degree that will result in secondary brain injury from the decreased brain perfusion. Consult the receiving MD for BP parameters and treatment course

926
Q

What other issues can mimic stroke symptoms

A

Hypoglycemia and seizures. If unsure, treat as a stroke

927
Q

Aphasic patients commonly still retain what other skill

A

they can still understand speech and follow commands

928
Q

What should be avoided in neuro critical patients

A

Avoid fever and persistently elevated glucose (>200)

929
Q

What to be alert for with stroke patients

A

Changing LOC and airway control, secretions may become a problem

930
Q

Facilities with Neurologists on call in Northern Nevada

A
  • RRMC, St Mary’s and Northern
931
Q

History assessment with submersion injury

A

-Precipitating events: epilepsy, dysrhythmias, alcohol use, etc.
- Length of time submerged (less than or equal to 10 min)
- Fresh vs salt water, relative temperature of water
- Associated trauma or possibility of non-accidental trauma (NAT)
- Time to first arrival of rescuers or ALS care
- Duration of resuscitative efforts prior to contact
- Type of resuscitation delivered PTA (ALS vs BLS)
- Comorbidities

932
Q

Physical assessment with submersion injury

A
  • S/s of shock
  • rales, rhonchi, wheezing
  • Tachypnea and increased WOB
  • Hypercarbia, acidosis, hypoxia
  • initial and subsequent VS
  • GCS
  • Dysrhythmia
933
Q

Interventions for submersion injury if patient is unresponsive

A

-See Cold Injury protocol, if the patient is hypothermic
- Continuous good quality CPR if hypothermic arrest
- Advanced airway management

934
Q

Interventions for submersion injury if patient is responsive

A
  • Aggressive airway management with BVM, PEEP, BIPAP or intubation if respiratory failure. Consider higher PEEP in the intubated patient
  • Monitor ETCO2
  • Address bronchospasm with Albuterol
  • Dry and warm if hypothermic
  • Maintain HOB at 30 degrees
  • Treat seizures
  • Early glucose monitoring and dextrose admin per protocol
  • Possible spinal motion restriction if evidence of head/neck trauma or signs of neurologic deficit
  • Facilitate transport to hospital, even if patient looks well
935
Q

PEDS interventions for submersion injury

A

-Transport to a facility with PEDS critical care
- Interventions remain the same as adults

936
Q

Submersion and body temperature

A

May be associated with profound hypothermia

937
Q

What is the most significantly relevant factor for survival

A

Length of submersion (>10 minutes) is more statistically relevant to survival than water temperature

938
Q

Submersion injury and spinal immobilization

A

Routine spinal immobilization is not required unless signs or history of trauma exist

939
Q

What improves chances of neurological recovery

A

Immediate bystander CPR

940
Q

History assessment with traumatic cardiac arrest

A
  • Additional scene assessment
  • Possible causes of cardiac arrest not related to trauma- if arrest could have been caused by non-traumatic event, proceed to Cardiac Dysrhythmia protocols)
  • Possible hypothermia- move to hypothermia protocol
  • Exact time of incident: necessary for decision-making. Survival rates decline significantly outside of 15 minutes with loss of VS
  • If known, time that patient lost pulses or lethal dysrhythmia first noted
941
Q

Physical assessment for traumatic cardiac arrest

A

Examine for injuries not compatible with life- if found, follow DNR guidelines. If injuries may be compatible with life, ascertain cardiac rhythm as quickly as possible. US FAST exam to be completed on all traumatic cardiac arrest patients to determine cardiac activity.

942
Q

PEDS considerations for traumatic cardiac arrest

A

Be especially diligent to observe for and preserve evidence of child abuse in the history, scene assessment and physical assessment

943
Q

Review traumatic cardiac arrest algorithm

A

asdf

944
Q

What must be done if patient is loaded into aircraft with CPR in progress

A

Document reasons for transport. Consider transport of a victim of traumatic cardiac arrest in unusual circumstances, at the discretion of the medical crew

945
Q

What additional considerations must be considered with a traumatic cardiac arrest

A

This type of a call may be a crime scene. First, establish scene safety before entering. Be aware of potential evidence and try not to contaminate the scene while providing patient care

946
Q

Criteria that all patients must meet to be able to qualify for BIPAP

A

All patients must have the physical and mental ability to remove the mask in the event of mechanical failure of emesis. Use of arm restraints is prohibited

947
Q

Continuous monitoring required for patients on BIPAP

A

Continuous ETCO2, SpO2, ECG monitoring are required for all non-invasive ventilated patients

948
Q

Groups of patients to consider using BIPAP for

A

Patients whose acute etiology of respiratory distress is transient

949
Q

Exclusion to BIPAP

A

Inability of patient to safely and quickly remove mask due to obtundation or weakness unless patient is a DNR/DNI and Bipap is the only viable option

950
Q

Indications for bipap

A
  • Spontaneous breathing, able to protect airway reflexes
  • Conscious
  • Inadequate response to first line interventions where WOB is unrelieved; fatigue, persistent hypoxia, or hypercarbia
951
Q

Absolute contraindications for Bipap

A
  • Inability to achieve a good seal
  • Suspected pneumothorax/barotraumas
  • Inability to maintain airway patency: cardiac/respiratory arrest, obtunded
  • Major trauma, especially head injury with increased ICP
  • Vomiting
952
Q

Relative contraindication for BIPAP

A
  • Inability to cooperate, tolerate, or understand the use of device
  • Clausterphobia
  • RR >30
953
Q

Fitting of BIPAP mask

A

Ensure proper mask sizing for success. Select smallest mask size possible for patient’s facial contour. Facemasks should cover the nose and mouth, extending from the superior bridge of the nose to beneath the lower lip. Head strap should be snug enough to keep the mask in place without significant leaks

954
Q

What type of Mode is BIPAP setting on the Hamilton

A

Hamilton NIV is an additive ventilator mode

955
Q

BIPAP settings

A
  • Set patient gender and height and then select “NIV” as the mode
  • To calculate IPAP add the P support and the PEEP. (i.e. on IFT to set the ventilator to an IPAP/EPAP you subtract the EPAP from the IPAP to find the Psupport. To provide report to receiving facilities ass the Psupport and PEEP to obtain the IPAP)
  • Set Psupport: 6
  • Set PEEP (EPAP): 6
  • IPAP is the sum of PEEP and Psupport, titrate to a max additive pressure of 20
  • If currently on BIPAP: mirror facility’s settings
  • Press “confirm” and then press “start ventilator”
  • Adjust FiO2 to maintain SpO2 >92%
  • Adjust Pramp to 50-100 ms
  • Adjust ETS to 40%
  • Place on standby mode
  • Apply mask to patient, using correct size, and close external vent ports
956
Q

Adjustments to Psupport

A

Psupport may be adjusted based on exhaled TV. Titrate Psupport from 6 in increments of 2 every 2 minutes until the goal TV of 6-8 ml/kg. EtCO2 may be unreliable but may be used for trending. Simply monitor to ensure improving EtCO2, mentation, and WOB

957
Q

Criteria to intubate based on BIPAP settings

A

Intubate if the sumof the Psupport and PEEP are at a max of 20 and the patient is worsening as this indicates failure of BIPAP

958
Q

PEEP adjustment criteria

A

PEEP (EPAP) may be adjusted from 5-14 to achieve adequate oxygenation if FiO2 is unable to be weaned less than 60%

959
Q

Treating anxiety with BIPAP patient

A

Ensure adequate anxiolytics for success with NPPV. The management of patient anxiety is a crucial step for success when using noninvasive ventilation

960
Q

Physical assessment for Invasive ventilation

A
  • Breath sounds present, absent epigastic sounds
  • Respiratory effort, sedation level
  • ETCO2 waveform and >5
  • Secure commercial device and that cuff is functioning and inflated
  • Size and depth of ETT/LMA
961
Q

Continuous monitoring required for intubated patients

A

ETCO2, SpO2, ECG

962
Q

Age groups for utilized Hamilton ventilator

A

Hamilton ventilator to be used on all adult and pediatric patients requiring mechanical ventilation during transport.

Neonatal circuit tubing to be used for patients <10 kg

963
Q

HOB elevation for intubated patients

A

All intubated patient to have HOB elevated 30 degrees unless in spinal precautions (reverse Trendelenburg to be used)

964
Q

Psupport

A

Patient triggered ventilatory supported breaths in NIV and APVsimv modes

965
Q

Pcontrol

A

Ventilator driven breath in PCV+mode

966
Q

Plimit/high pressure alarm

A

The maximum allowed pressure applied during ventilation. Plimit is 10 below high pressure limit alarm setting. This can be adjusted by changing the high pressure alarm or the plimit. Adjusting one will adjust the other

967
Q

ETS

A

The percent of peak inspiration flow at which the ventilator cycles from inspiration to exhalation. (Increasing the ETS results in a shorter inspiratory time, this aids with ventilator synchrony)

968
Q

Pramp

A

The rate of which pressure rises during ventilator supported or driven breaths. This allows for matching of patient’s demand. Lower values provide a quicker rise which may be beneficial for patient’s with high respiratory demand

969
Q

flow trigger

A

patient effort required to trigger a ventilator assisted or driven breath

970
Q

TI max

A

maximum allowed inspiratory time

971
Q

Initial ventilator settings

A

VT: 6-8 ml/kg IBW
Mode: APVcmv
Rate:
- Adults: 16-25
- PEDS: 18-30
- NEO: 30-40
I-time: Achieve I:E ration of 1:2 (unless patient exhibits obstructive disease then 1:3 or 1:4 may be appropriate)
PEEP: 5-8, Max PEEP 14 before needing to call for medical direction
FiO2: 100%, titrate to maintain SpO2 >92%
PIP alarm:
- Adults: 40
- PEDS: 20
- NEO:20

972
Q

Pressure control ventilator settings

A

To prevent barotrauma in adult/PEDS (<10kg) patients with severe airway disease (asthma/ARDS) with high PIP/PPlat on volume ventilation, and those clinical status does not improve with volume ventilation. May also be used in patients with significant ventilator dyssynchrony on volume targeted mode of ventilation

973
Q

Suggested settings for pressure control

A

Select PCV+
Rate:
- Adult: 16-25
- PEDS: 18-30
I-time: Achieve I:E ratio of 1:2
PEEP: as needed up to max of 14

Titrate pressure control to achieve approximate vT of 6-8 ml/kg IBW. If patient requires pressure control >40, physician contact required

Monitor VT/minute ventilation for changes which may indicate clinical decline

Passive humidification devices will be used on all invasively ventilated adult patients with transport times greater than 10 minutes

Be sure to place the filter on the patient with the arrows pointing in the down direction. Do not remove white cap on the top of the filter. That port is provided for additional humidified air. Place filter on using the elbow provided with your vent tubing

PEDS patients have passive humidification devices, such as HME, used on all with invasive ventilation

974
Q

ASV mode

A

Adaptive Support Ventilation, adapts ventilation breath by breath. Is considered a “smart mode” where the ventilator adapts to the patients needs and spontaneous efforts while keeping then in a goal range minute ventilation

975
Q

Initiating ASV mode

A

Select ASV mode

Select “patient” to input patient’s gender and height. it is crucial to obtain patient’s actual height. Use tape measure if needed

In ASV, we do no set a RR, I time, or TV. We do set a % minute volume
- Start at 120% and titrate from 90-180% to maintain EtCO2 between 35-45 or based on patients baseline EtCO2
— From a baseline 100% MV, add an additional 1500 ft above sea level
—If temp is >101.3, att 20%
- Set PEEP at 5-8, may titrate up to a max of 14
- FiO2 as needed

Contraindications
- Morbidly obese patients
- Pediatric patients less than 12 yo

976
Q

IFT vent settings

A
  • Mirror sending facility settings
  • If unable, see above “initiating ASV mode”
977
Q

Neonatal invasive ventilator setting: PEDS/infants <10 kg

A

Use neonatal specific tubing along with neonatal/infant exhalation valve

Initiate using PCV+ mode

Select “neonate”

Adjust weight and confirm

Complete preop checks after weight confirmation

Select vent mode
- PCV+
- Rate:
—PEDS/infant: 18-30
— NEO and small infants: 30-40
- pressure control 15, max 25
- Remember that Pcontrol and PEEP are additive to give you total pressure. Max Ppeak is 30
- I:E time: 1:3
- PEEP: 3-8, max PEEP 10, call medical control for PEEP greater than 10. If IFT, may mirror settings, obtain MD order.
- FiO2: 100%, titrate down quickly to maintain SpO2 >92%

Passive humidification devices, such as HME, will be used on all invasively ventilated infant/neonatal patients

978
Q

EtCO2 for patients with head injry

A

Target EtCO2 per head and facial trauma protocol

979
Q

Calculate Pplat

A

Pplateau= (VTE/Cstat) +PEEP

980
Q

Interventions if Pplat is >30

A

Provide interventions that decrease pressures and continue to monitor. Most common adjustment is to decrease Tv by 1 ml/kg to as low as 4 ml/kg. Switching to pressure targeted mode may also help decrease Pplat. High Pplat etiology may include: decreased pulmonary compliance, pulonary edema, pleural effusion, tension pneumothorax, peritoneal gas insufflation, trandelenberg, ascites, and abdominal packing.

981
Q

Interventions for IFT if patients are on specific settings from sending facility

A
  • PEEP >14: continue PEEP settings, call receiving physician to confirm/discuss transport and to obtain orders for further titration of PEEP if necessary
  • PEEP >20: Consider CCT/ground transport
982
Q

What should be done before making any interventions to ventilator settings for isseus

A

Re-confirm tube placement prior to interventions

983
Q

Interventions for hypoxia <92%

A

-Assess for pneumothorax
- Increase FiO2
- Suction ETT
- Sedate and paralyze for spontaneous respirations/asynchrony as appropriate
- Albuterol/duoneb unit dose in-line nebulizer treatment prn wheezing/bronchospasm
- Increase PEEP. PEEP >14 requires doctors order. Observe for reduced cardiac output

984
Q

Interventions for hypercapnia: EtCO2>45 assuming not chronic

A

-Increase RR incrementally by 2 bpm to max of 25. >25 requires MD order
- Increase TV 1ml/kg up to max 8 ml/kg IBW (unless patient has ARDS)
- Suction ETT
- Albuterol/Duoneb unit dose in-line nebulizer treatment prn wheezing/bronchospasm

985
Q

Interventions for Hypocarbia: EtCO2<35

A
  • Assess and treat perfusion status
  • Decrease RR
  • Decrease TV 1 ml/kg to as low as 4 ml/kg
  • ASsess for sedation/analgesia and possible paralysis to control RR
  • Consider switching to APVsimv if spontaneously breahing with low PS of 5-8
986
Q

Interventions for rising peak inspiratory pressures

A
987
Q

Adult HME settings and amount of dead space

A

Adult HME are good for between 250-1500 of tidal volume and create only 60 ml of dead space in the vent circuit

988
Q

PEDS HME settings and amount of dead space

A

PEDS HME are good for between 50-250 ml of tidal volume and create only 13 ml of dead space in the vent circuit

989
Q

What to use of T1 ventilator is not available

A

Use back-up ventilator for invasive/noninvasive ventilation in accordance with manufacturer’s instructions

990
Q

Relevance of plateau pressure

A

a direct measurement of overall alveolar health. Consistently high Pplat will lead to alveolar destruction, vascular shunting, and ventricular induced lung injury

991
Q

relation of PIP to Pplat

A

POP always has to be higher than Pplat as it is the summation of all pressures (PEEP + Pplat)

992
Q

relationship of PIP and Pplat to patient having decreaased pulmonary compliance and/or increased TV

A

When patients have decreased pulmonary compliance and/or increased TV, PIP and Pplat will increase proportionately. If PIP increases with no change in Pplat, suspect increased airway resistance or high inspiratory gas flow )obstructive process)

993
Q

Adjusting vent settings to “normalize” EtCO2 when patient is known to be acidotic by pH

A

It is not necessary to change ventilator settings in an effort to “normalize” EtCO2 when patient is know to be acidotic by pH. Remember a “normal EtCO2” may not be appropriate. For example, the patient with an assumed metabolic acidosis (sepsis, DKA, shock) will likely need minute ventilation management to maintain an EtCO2 between 25-35 to help compensate for their metabolic component. A chronic CO2 retainer will likely need to maintain an EtCO2 >40 to prevent “overcorrection” and resultant alkalosis

994
Q

What setting to consider adjusting to optimize invasive ventilation/oxygenation

A

Consider making fine-tuned adjustment to I:E ration, rise time, flow termination, time termination, and PC flow termination settings to optimize invasive ventilation/oxygenation and patient comfort

995
Q

Patient with COPD and Asthma and I:E ratio

A

Patients with COPD and asthma will require I:E ration adjusted to 1:3 or 1:4 to allow for adequate exhalation

996
Q

Changes to ETS and Pramp settings for patients that are in respiratory distress on non-invasive distress

A

For non-invasive ventilation, the ETS and Pramp settings must be changed for patients that are in respiratory distress. ETS may be set fro 5-80%, default is 35%. By lowering ETS, inspiratory time is longer, and increasing ETS results in shorter inspiratory time. By lowering Pramp, you are making it easier for your patient to inhale. Adjust ETS and Pramp befor changing Pinsp(IPAP) and PEEP(EPAP)

997
Q

Benefits of increasing IPAP (pressure support)

A

Increasing IPAP in increments of 2 provides a “pressure boost” on inspiration that may provide an increase in alveolar ventilation and/or decrease the work of breathing. The need for IPAP >20 requires an MD order

998
Q

Benefits of increasing EPAP (PEEP)

A

Increasing EPAP (PEEP) in increments of 2 may increase functional residual capacity and along with manipulation in FiO2, improve oxygenation. The need for EPAP (PEEP) >14 requires an MD order

999
Q

administering breathing treatments

A

Inline albuterol and Duoneb treatments may be provided while using BIPAP

In-line inhaled pulmonary vasodilators (Flolan or iNO) may be administered via Bipap or the ventilator circuits

1000
Q

EtCO2 target and management with presumed severe metabolic acidosis

A

If the patient is in presumed severe metabolic acidosis state (i.e. sepsis, burns, trauma, DKA), it is likely appropriate to target a higher MV on the ventilator to keep the EtCO2 <30. This will help compensate for the metabolic acidosis while correcting the underlying condition. For example, in a patient with DKA, their EtCO2 before intubation is likely 10 and if we sedate, paralyze, and intubate them and target an EtCO2 25-45, their overall pH will worsen as we have taken away their respiratory compensatory drive

1001
Q

IFT with patients on alternative modes

A

For IFT patients which are on either ASV or APRV, mirror settings of the sending facility. If unable to mirror settings or complications arise, revert to traditional vent modes as previously referenced in this protocol

1002
Q
A