Protein Synthesis Inhibitors Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 8 basic categories of Protein Synthesis Inhibitors?

A
  • Initiation (Aminoglycosides, Linezolid)
  • Elongation 1 (Tetracyclines, Streptogramins)
  • Elongation 2 (Chloramphenicol)
  • Elongation 3 (Macrolides/Ketolides, Clindamycin)
  • Gylcylcyclines
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2
Q

What class of drug binds to the 30S subunit and prevents INITIATION of the whole peptide?

A
  • Aminoglycosides

- A ‘intitiates’ alphabet and the protein inhibitors

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3
Q

Aminoglycosides prevent ______-tRNA from binding to the ________ site on the 30S subunit.

A
  • Methionine-tRNA (start codon=AUG)

- P SITE is the site of initiation (contrast with ‘A site’ where incoming Aminoacyl-tRNAs arrive)

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4
Q

What drug binds the 50S subunit towards the 30S face and prevents the two from hooking up (thus prevents intiation)?

A

Linezolid

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5
Q

The two classes of drug that screw with INITIATION of bacterial protein synthesis are?

A

-Aminoglycosides and Linezolid

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6
Q

What class of drug binds at the 30S subunit and prevents the FIRST STEP IN ELONGATION of the bacterial peptide?

A

-Tetracyclines

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7
Q

Tetracyclines prevent ___________ from binding to the __________ site on the 30S subunit.

A
  • incoming Aminoacyl-tRNAs

- A SITE

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8
Q

What drugs bind to the 50S subunit and prevent the enzyme Peptidyl Transferase?

A

-Chloramphenicol

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9
Q

_________ prevents the enzyme that adds a single new amino acid to the growing peptide chain.

A

-Chloramphenicol

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10
Q

What drugs bind the 50S subunit and prevent the last step in peptide elongation (translocation)?

A

-Macrolides and Clindamycin

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11
Q

Macrolides+Clindamycin prevent the process of ____________, which involves the ribosome advancing 3 base pairs towards the 3’ end of the bacterial mRNA.

A

-translocation

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12
Q

What is the only protein synthesis inhibitor that is bacteriostatic PLUS bacteriocidal?

A
  • Aminoglycosides

- they can cause misreading of mRNA (frameshift-like effect)

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13
Q

Aminoglycosides are to Linezolid as Tetracyclines are to _______________?

A

Dalfopristin/Quinupristin (streptogramins)

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14
Q

What subunit is a common site of binding of drugs to combat VRSA and VRE?

A
  • 50S subunit

- seen in Linezolid and Dalfopristin/Quinupristin

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15
Q

How are aminoglycosides taken up into the bacteria, and what implications does this have on spectrum of action?

A
  • REQUIRES O2 dependent uptake

- therefore, NOT effective vs ANEROBES

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16
Q

What 3 aminoglycosides are used often in combo with other drugs?

A

-TAG (Tobramycin, Amikacin, Gentamicin)

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17
Q

What aminoglycoside is topical, therefore is often used in bowel sx?

A

-Neomycin

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18
Q

What aminoglycoside is used often in TB, and is DOC for bubonic plague and Tularemia?

A

-Streptomycin

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19
Q

Describe the 4 big time toxicities associated with Aminoglycosides.

A
  • Nephrotoxicity (ATN of the PCT)
  • Ototoxicity
  • Teratogenic
  • Neuromuscular blockade (decr Ach, like botox!)
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20
Q

What component of a triple antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) will most likely cause contact dermatitis?

A
  • Neomycin

- (polymyxin and bacitraicin do not)

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21
Q

The primary mechanism of resistance to Aminoglycosides is?

A

-production of conjugating enzymes (aka transferase enzymes) that chemically modify the drug

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22
Q

Tetracylines are broad spectrum drugs, but what specific infections should we remember for Doxycycline in particular?

A
  • DOC for Rickettsia infections (RMSF)
  • DOC for Spirochetes (Lyme)
  • Mycoplasma, Chlamydia
  • big in Brucella, Treponema, and Vibrio too
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23
Q

Demeclocycline is a tetracycline that should only be thought about for?

A
  • SIADH treatment!

- blocks V2R on the collecting duct

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24
Q

What are some common causes of SIADH?

A
  • lesion to posterior pituitary

- small cell CA of lung (paraneoplastic)

25
What psych drug has a similar action to Demeclocycline?
-Lithium
26
Tetracyclines block what specific step of protein synthesis by binding to 30S?
-block first step of ELONGATION
27
Tetracyclines complex with ___________ in the gut which __________ the drug's absorption.
- divalent Cations (Mg, Ca, etc.) | - decrease
28
Give somes sources of divalent cations.
- antacids - milk - Fe containing supplements
29
What are the big 3 side effects for Tetracyclines?
- discolored teeth (Ca chelation) - Photosensitivity - GI distress
30
What is the only type of infection that warrants Doxycycline to children?
-Rocky mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)
31
What are 3 classes of drugs that cause photosensitivity?
- Quinolones - Tetracyclines - Sulfonamides
32
What is the main mechanism for bacterial resistance to tetracyclines?
-efflux pumps (ex: P glycoprotein)
33
What is the name and function of the enzyme blocked by Chloramphenicol?
- Peptidyl Transferase | - adds another amino acid to the peptide chain
34
What are 2 key uses for Chloramphenicol?
- meningitis (H. flu, N. men, Strep pneumo) | - sepsis
35
Describe the use of Chloramphenicol.
- not used much in US due to side effects | - used more in poor countries since its cheap
36
What clue in Chloramphenicol's name tells us its highly lipid soluble, thus good for CNS?
-all drugs with 'phen' in the name have a ring, thus are highly lipid soluble
37
Describe the metabolism of Chloramphenicol.
-Conjugated in the liver by UDP-glucuronyl transferase
38
What type of patients lack the key enzyme in metabolism of Chloramphenicol, and how does this manifest?
- Neonates have reduced UDP-glucuronyl transferase | - Grey baby syndrome +kernicterus (bilirubin dep. in brain)
39
What else is UDP-glucuronyl transferase important in, and what diseases are involved?
- conjugation of bilirubin in liver - Gilbert's syndrome: mild decrease in UGT - Crigler Najjar 1: absent UGT
40
What 2 side effects must we know for Chloramphenicol?
- Grey baby syndrome | - Anemia/Bone marrow suppression
41
Macrolides are a class of drug that inhibit the _________ step of peptide elongation, known as _________
- last | - translocation
42
Macrolides are extremely wide spectrum, so what are some key infections to know?
-G+ cocci, ATYPICALS, LEGIONELLA, MAC, H. pylori, etc
43
Macrolides all end in __________
thromycin
44
Macrolides all inhibit P450 in the liver EXCEPT
Azithromycin (more water soluble)
45
GI distress is the primary SE of Macrolides. Why is it more substantial here than other antibiotics?
- stimulates MOTILIN receptors in the gut | - along with possible disruption of normal flora
46
What are some side effects to know for Macrolides?
- GI distress - Reversible deafness @ hi dose (Ex: MAC) - prolonged QT interval - cyp450 inducer (know Digoxin especially!) - eosinophilia, skin rash
47
What is the one Ketolide to know?
Telithromycin
48
Describe when+why Telithromycin is used in place of macrolides.
- when bug in Macrolide resistant! - macrolides use domain V of 23S area of 50S subunit (is site of resistance) -ketolides use DOMAIN II of 23S area of 50S subunit
49
What is the big gene in resistance to Macrolides, how does it help the bug out, and who uses it?
- erm gene (erythromycin ribosome methylase) - methylates an Adenine @ domain V - G+ can exhibit this (STREP PNEUMO!!)
50
Clindamycin has the same MOA as ___________
Macrolides
51
In contrast to macrolides, Clindamycin has a _____________ spectrum
narrow
52
What 2 infectious groups should be immediately thought of with Clindamycin?
- Anaerobic infections above the diaphragm | - osteomyelitis (Staph aureus)
53
Pt presents with osteomyelitis, with hx of Sickle cell anemia. Do we use Clindamycin?
- NO! the bug is Salmonella | - use Quinolones
54
Pt presents with osteomyelitis, with hx of IVDU/diabetes. Do we use Clindamycin?
- NO! the bug is Pseudomonas | - use Quinolones
55
What is the primary side efffect of Clindamycin?
Pseudomembranous colitis (due to C. diff overgrowth)
56
How would you treat the primary side effect of Clindamycin?
- Metronidazole | - Vancomycin as alternate
57
What is the big side effect to know with Linezolid?
-bone marrow suppression/thrombocytopenia
58
Streptogramins are only used when the bug is resistant to _________
vancomycin (VRSA, VRE)