Protein Synthesis Flashcards

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1
Q

Why are proteins important?

A

Crucial for cell growth, proliferation and survival

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2
Q

How is protein synthesis regulated?

A
  • Expensive process for the cell so is tightly regulated
  • regulation can either control overall rates of synthesis throughout the cell or modulate specific reactions
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3
Q

What inhibits protein synthesis?

A
  • cell stresses
  • withdrawal of nutrients
  • serum deprivation
  • temperature shock
  • DNA damage
  • viral infection
  • hypoxia
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4
Q

What does a prokaryotic mRNA contain?

A
  • polycistronic = more than one coding region
  • messages given are fairly unstable
  • absence of nuclear membrane leads to transcription/translation occurring on the same transcript
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5
Q

What does a eukaryotic mRNA contain?

A
  • usually monocistronic (one coding region)
  • capped and polyadenylated so quite stable
  • 5’ to 3’ untranslated regions (UTR)
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6
Q

What is the CAP structure?

A
  • found on eukaryotic mRNAs
  • at the 5’ end
  • seals end of mRNA protecting it from nuclease digestion
  • landing pad for eIF4E (cap binding protein)
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7
Q

What is polyadenylation?

A
  • poly A tail found at the 3’ end
  • protects mRNA from enzymatic degradation
  • aids in transcription termination and exportation of mRNA from the nucleus into cytoplasm
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8
Q

What are the stages in 3’ polyadenylation of newly synthesised mRNAs?

A
  • recognition of AUAAA sequence by specificity components which is cleaved by cleavage factors
  • undergoes initial poly(A) polymerisation by poly(A) polymerase
  • binds to poly(A) binding protein (PABP)
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9
Q

What are general characteristics of tRNA molecules?

A
  • single RNA strand of approx 80 nucleotides
  • helps decode mRNA sequence into a protein
  • functions at a specific site in the ribosome during translation
  • aminoacyl tRNA synthase links amino acid to 3’ end of acceptor arm to produce an aminoacyl-tRNA
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10
Q

What is the 80S ribosome?

A
  • consists of large (60S) and small (40S) subunits
  • each subunit contains approx 50% proteins and 50% rRNAs (by mass)
  • large and small subunits bind together during initiation
  • translation takes place in the cavity between the two subunits
  • peptidyl transferase activity is associated with the large 60S subunit
  • has three binding sites = E, P, A
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11
Q

What are some facts about protein synthesis?

A
  • translation must go fast enough to supply protein but slow enough to avoid too many errors
  • error rate is 1 in 10^4 incorrect amino acid
  • ribosomes add 20 amino acids per second to a polypeptide chain eg the synthesis of actin 375 AAs takes 20 seconds
  • it is energetically expensive
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12
Q

What are the 3 stages of CAP-dependant protein synthesis?

A
  1. Initiation:
    - small ribosomal unit and initiator tRNA bind
    - CAP is recognised and the start AUG codon is scanned
    - ternary complex binds large ribosomal unit
  2. Elongation:
    - tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome in the order specified by codons on mRNA
    - ribosome catalyses peptide bond formation between the amino group of each amino acid
    - more than one ribosome is active on any one mRNA (polysome)
  3. Termination:
    - at 3’ end of coding sequence, the ribosome encounters a stop codon
    - polypeptide chain is released
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13
Q

What is the function of the initiation step of protein synthesis?

A
  • initiation of translation is the rate limiting step and is tightly regulated
  • more than ten soluble eukaryotic initiation factors (eIFs)
  • aim is to bring mRNA to ribosome and initiator tRNA to AUG start codon
  • the process is:
    1. Assemble of the 43S pre-initiation complex
    2. Binding of mRNA to the 43S complex
    3. Assembly of the 80S initiation complex
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14
Q

What happens during the first step of initiation?

A
  • assembly of the 43S pre-initiation complex
  • association met-RnA with eIF2 to form ternary complex
  • 40S is trapped as a monomer to form the 43S pre-initiation complex
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15
Q

What is the structure of eIF2?

A
  • polypeptide chain initiation factor eIF2
  • made up of three subunits:
    1. gamma subunit = GTP binding site
    2. alpha subunit = phosphorylation site
    3. beta subunit = K boxes (involved in interaction of eIF2B and eIF5)
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16
Q

What happens during the second step of initiation?

A
  • binding of mRNA to the 43S complex
  • eIF4E binds to the CAP on mRNA
  • eIF4G binds to eIF4E
  • eIF4A unwinds mRNA secondary structure
  • 43S preinitiation complex binds to eIF4G to form 48S preinitiation complex
17
Q

What are the roles of different eIFs?

A
  • eIF4E = recognition of 5’ cap on mRNA
  • eIF4G = binds to eIF4E and eIF3
  • eIF3 = acts as a bridge between eIF4G and the 40S ribosomal subunit, hence required for mRNA binding to the ribosome
18
Q

What does the 43S pre initiation complex also interact with?

A
  • interacts with the 3’ end of the mRNA is the poly(A) tail
  • it is achieved by virtue of the ability of the poly(A) binding protein (PABP) to bind to bot eIF4G and another initiation factor eIF4B
  • it results in the circularisation of the mRNA by association of the 5’ end with the 3’ end
19
Q

What is the effect of secondary structure in the 5’ UTR of an mRNA

A
  • Impedes the attachment of the 43S pre-initiation complex to the mRNA and/or reduces the ability of the complex to scan along the mRNA
20
Q

What is the function of internal ribosome entry sites (IRESs)?

A
  • some mRNAs overcome the secondary structure problem by having complex internal ribosome entry sites (IRESs)
  • they allow direct binding of the 43S complex to the mRNA without the need for cap recognition or scanning
  • IRESs can replace the function of some of the initiation factors
  • some viral mRNAs use IRES mediated CAP-independent translation, eg picornavirus
21
Q

What happens during the third step of initiation?

A
  • assembly of the 80S initiation complex
  • the 40S/43S pre initiation complex scans to AUG start codon
  • MET tRNA occupies the P site on the ribosome
  • 60S subunit associated to form 80S complex
22
Q

Describe the 80S initiation assembly?

A
  • it involves:
    1. Binding of the 60 ribosomal unit to the 43S.mRNA complex
    2. Hydrolysis of the GTP bound to eIF2
    3. Release of most of the initiation factors from the ribosome
  • these events require the involvement of yet another initiation factor eIF5 (has GTPase activity)
23
Q

What are the stages of elongation?

A
  1. AA-tRNA binding - catalysed by eEF1, requires GTP
  2. Peptide bond formation - catalysed by ribosome itself
  3. Translocation - catalysed by eEF2, requires GTP
24
Q

What are the stages of termination?

A
  1. Recognition of a termination STOP codon by a release factor (eRF) - eg UAA, UAG, UGA
  2. Hydrolysis of the last peptidyl-tRNA bond and release of the completed polypeptide chain
    - dissociation of the 2 ribosomal subunits from the mRNA
25
Q

What is the ribosome-polysome cycle?

A
  • a polysome is a structure that consists of multiple ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
  • ribosomes are recycled for further rounds of translation
26
Q

Why are some ribosomes bound to the ER?

A
  • free ribosomes synthesise soluble proteins that function in the cytosol
  • ER bound ribosomes synthesise proteins destined either for incorporation into the cell membrane or for export from the cell
  • ribosomes can switch between the two types
27
Q

What are molecular mechanisms of translational control?

A

Global regulation of translation:
- usually by modification of translation initiation factors
- achieved by changes in the phosphorylation state of these factors or regulators that interact with them
mRNA specific regulation:
- uses elements in the 5’ to 3’ UTRs

28
Q

What are some regulatory factors that inhibit protein synthesis?

A
  • dephosphorylation of 4E-BP1 (tumour suppressor protein)
  • eIF4G cleavage by caspase 3
  • phosphorylation of eIF2 into eIF2aP
  • overexpression of eIF4E (oncogene) leads to loss of cellular growth control