Protein Physiology And Analysis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main enzymes involved in protein digestion?

A

Pepsin (stomach), Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, Carboxypeptidase (pancreas), and Aminopeptidase (intestine).

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2
Q

How are amino acids absorbed in the intestine?

A

Via sodium-dependent active transport in enterocytes and transported to the liver via the portal vein.

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3
Q

What are the essential amino acids?

A

Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Methionine, Threonine, Lysine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan (+Histidine and Arginine in children).

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4
Q

What happens to amino acids after absorption?

A

Used for protein synthesis, energy production, gluconeogenesis, ketogenesis, or nitrogen elimination.

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5
Q

What factor enhances amino acid absorption?

A

Presence of sodium (Na⁺) in the intestinal lumen.

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6
Q

What is the fate of dietary proteins that are not absorbed?

A

Excreted in feces or converted into bacterial metabolites in the colon.

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7
Q

What is the main carrier protein for amino acids in the blood?

A

Albumin.

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8
Q

A patient with pancreatic insufficiency presents with protein malabsorption and weight loss. What is the cause?

A

Lack of pancreatic proteases (trypsin, chymotrypsin, etc.) leading to impaired digestion.

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9
Q

What is the role of gastric acid (HCl) in protein digestion?

A

Denatures proteins and activates pepsinogen to pepsin.

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10
Q

How does liver disease affect protein metabolism?

A

Impaired protein synthesis, leading to low albumin and clotting factors.

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11
Q

What are the three main roles of proteins in the body?

A

Structural (collagen), Functional (enzymes, hormones), and Protective (antibodies).

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12
Q

Which hormones regulate protein metabolism?

A

Anabolic: Insulin, Growth Hormone; Catabolic: Glucocorticoids, Thyroid Hormones.

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13
Q

What is the role of albumin in blood?

A

Maintains oncotic pressure and transports hormones, drugs, and fatty acids.

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14
Q

What are two major intracellular proteins responsible for motility?

A

Actin and Myosin.

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15
Q

What is the main function of immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM, etc.)?

A

Provide immunity by recognizing and neutralizing pathogens.

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16
Q

How do heat shock proteins (HSP) function?

A

Act as molecular chaperones to prevent protein denaturation.

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17
Q

What is the main transcription factor involved in protein synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase.

18
Q

A patient with Kwashiorkor presents with edema and hypoalbuminemia. What is the cause?

A

Severe protein deficiency leading to decreased oncotic pressure.

19
Q

How does cortisol affect protein metabolism?

A

Increases protein catabolism to provide amino acids for gluconeogenesis.

20
Q

What type of proteins are hemoglobin and myoglobin?

A

Oxygen transport proteins.

21
Q

What is the main function of the urea cycle?

A

Elimination of nitrogenous waste (ammonia) by converting it to urea in the liver.

22
Q

What are the key intermediates in the urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate, Citrulline, Argininosuccinate, Arginine, and Ornithine.

23
Q

Where does the urea cycle occur?

A

Liver (cytoplasm and mitochondria of hepatocytes).

24
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of the urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS1).

25
Q

A patient with hyperammonemia and neurological symptoms has a urea cycle disorder. What is the treatment?

A

Low-protein diet, sodium benzoate, and arginine supplementation.

26
Q

What enzyme removes the amino group from amino acids?

A

Aminotransferases (Transaminases).

27
Q

What coenzyme is required for transamination reactions?

A

Pyridoxal phosphate (Vitamin B6).

28
Q

What is the fate of carbon skeletons of amino acids?

A

Used for gluconeogenesis, ketogenesis, or energy production.

29
Q

Which two amino acids are strictly ketogenic?

A

Leucine and Lysine.

30
Q

A newborn has musty odor, intellectual disability, and high phenylalanine. What is the diagnosis?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU).

31
Q

What is the most common method for total protein measurement?

A

Biuret method.

32
Q

What test is used for proteinuria detection?

A

Reagent strips, Heller’s test, or heat coagulation test.

33
Q

What is the most specific test for detecting monoclonal gammopathies (e.g., multiple myeloma)?

A

Serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) with immunofixation.

34
Q

What method is used for amino acid analysis?

A

High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC).

35
Q

A patient with inflammatory syndrome has high fibrinogen and low albumin. What is the diagnostic test?

A

Serum protein electrophoresis (SPE).

36
Q

How is CSF protein concentration measured?

A

Turbidimetric and colorimetric methods.

37
Q

What is the normal range of serum proteins in adults?

A

60 – 80 g/L.

38
Q

A patient with nephrotic syndrome has massive proteinuria (>3.5g/day). What test confirms the diagnosis?

A

24-hour urine protein analysis.

39
Q

What is the Guthrie test used for?

A

Newborn screening for metabolic disorders like PKU.

40
Q

What test differentiates between exudates and transudates in pleural effusions?

A

Rivalta test.