Protein misfolding and disease Flashcards

1
Q

What did Pauling: structure of key structural modules tell us?
What did Anfinsen and the refolding of pancreatic ribonuclease tell us?
What is levinthal’s paradox?
What is Bryngelson and Wolynes principle of minimal frustration?

Say about proteins and peptides?

A

Pauling said that secondary structures are sufficient to bring about the final three dimensional conformation.

Anfinsen slowly removed the denaturant and the ribonuclease refolded. That means all the information for folding is stored in the peptide.

Levinthal’s Paradox: If protein folding shifted through all possible conformations, it would take the age of the universe. THat means only a subset of possible pathways are sampled to get the final structure

Minimal frustration: individual amino acids are positioned where they are through evolution to maximize correct folding events and minimize structural barriers.

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2
Q

What does not a linear drop in energy refer to in protein folding.

A

From the unfolded to folded, the free energy level undergoes pertubations. There are local minima in the curve. So there are small energy barriers within the folding process. This is where we would need assistance (chaperones)

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3
Q

What is regulated vs impromptu degradation?

A

Regulated: Some proteins need to be degraded all the time (specific proteins become no longer needed)

Impromptu degradation: stress causes damage to proteins and they need to be destroyed.

Degradation requires ATP. (proteosome)

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4
Q

Describe chaperone’s role as a match maker, protein synthesis, quality control, and secretion.

A

Complex assembly: bring each subunit to the right position for the large complexes. Example: Ump1 and the proteosome.

Secretion: when a protein crosses the membrane barrier into the ER, it needs to be unfolded to go through the hydrophobic membrane. Then when in the ER

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5
Q

What is the key feature of a chaperone?

A

It may or may not need energy (repair needs energy), it can reversibly bidn to the substrate.

it does not increase the reaction rate, it does not stay bound to the native protein.

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6
Q

What are the important determinants for protein folding?

A

Hydrophobic core collapse, disulfide bond, Van der Waals, electrostatic interactions, metal coordination (stabilizing, co-factor)

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7
Q

What is the molten globule

A

The molten globule refers to the protein that is almost in its final form and it drifts through similar structures. The problem is it has not driven out all of the water yet. The driving forces are therefore water exclusion and hydrophobic core collapse.

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8
Q

How is the proteosome assembled? WHat are the structures of the proteosome and chaperone?

A

Chaperone is self assembly. A-E and E-A. With an inner ring of 7 ATPases on both sides. Proteosome requires the assistance of UMP1 chaperone. Alpha beta rings self assembly and then the chaperone brings the two pairs together. 3 beta subunits on each half are zymogens. When brought close together, peptides on the zymogens are cleaved off, activating the hydrolytic activity. This compartmentalizes the protease activity. UMP1 is the first digested substrate.

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9
Q

What are the three models of folding initiation.

A

Hydrophobic collapse, the molten globule forms as a result of tertiary hydrophobic interactions that result in secondary structure maturation and the tertiary structure.

Hierarchical: secondary structures form first which promotes the assembly of the final tertiary structure. Secondary structures are only stable if the tertiary structure is formed.

Nucleation-Condensation: local sites of folding propagates throughout the peptide which results in the final native structure.

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10
Q

What are factors that promote protein unfolding

A

temperature, pH, pressure, urea, guanidine, organic solvents (stabilizes hydrophobic residues.

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11
Q

Describe the structure of ubiqutin

A

It is a highly conserved singular protein that interacts with around 1000 proteins. Its carboxyl termini (Arg-Gly-Gly COO). They feature hydrophobic patches. And 7 lysine residues on the surface which can ligate to additional Ub’s and form different chains depending on the function. For example one chain promotes translocation to the lysosome rather than proteosome, or for repair. Glycine 76 is what binds to lysine residues on substrates and lysines on the other ubiquitins. The isopeptide bond is stable and reversible. Gly76 then forms thioester bonds to E1, E2, and E3 enzymes.

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12
Q

Proteins involved in proteolysis have two key features…

A

Compartmentalization so it doesn’t react with anything else. Like the lysosome.

Their precursors are expressed as inactive zymogens

Regulators of proteolysis, proenzymes (hormones, it could be a tag on the proteosome and once removed will fold correctly and be active), pH, compartmentalization,

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13
Q

Describe the two types of proteolysis.

A

Specific degradation: always eliminates the same target in the cycle, like an assassin. Requires energy.

Nonspecific degradation: digests everything that comes by. Like stomach enzymes. The environment,aids in the unfolding.

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14
Q

Ubiquitin is always expressed as a fusion protein. Implications on disease and the enzyme.

A

UchL1 is what cleaves the fusion protein and exposes the reactive carboxy end. Mutation causes PD. Not enough ubiquitin so proteins remain unfolded and proteins can aggregate.

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15
Q

Describe the E1, E2, and E3 enzymes.

A

E1: activates Ubiquitin, uses ATP to attach ubiquitin to AMP. (Charges the Ubiquitin) And makes a thioester bond. (only ATP step) Charged ubiquitin can jump onto the enzyme and make phosphodiester bond.
E2: transfers ubiqutin to E3 or Substrate
E3: ubiqutin protein ligase: attaches UB to the substrate via an isopeptide bond. Parkin is an E3 enzyme that when mutated is connected to parkinson. Makes sense, tags can’t be added onto the proteins.

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16
Q

Describe combinatorial diversity,

A

50 E2s and 800 E3s, can form different combinations to target all kinds of proteins. The type of ubiquitin chains (7 types) that are made are also enhances the diversity.

17
Q

Hydrophobic stripe:

A

using lysines 29 and 48 used to make the ubiquitin degradation chain to form the extended hydrophobic stripe. This is the primary feature that promotes interaction with the proteosome.

18
Q

Hect E3 ligase

A

the E3 ligase doesn’t bind a ubiquitin but is itself always bound to an E2 that can bind ubiquitin.

19
Q

Substrate shuttle factor

A

Binds ubiquitin chains and protects it from causing trouble. Hydrophobic chains are shielded.

20
Q

Describe the proteosome and its subunits.

26 S?

A

A 20S catalytic core, four ring, 7 subunit, some beta’s have catalyticactivity. The entry to the chamber is a narrow orifice. This assembly is all spontaneous. The 19 S regulatory particle is on each end. The two bind at each end of the 20S. Can bind multi-Ub proteins and release them. THey unfold proteins and that requires ATP. (6 ATPases)

26S: ring of ATPases substrate folding, deubqiunating enzymes, ATP dependent assembly and stability.

21
Q

Describe the different kinds of proteolysis regulation: allosteric, ATP hydrolysis, Chew and Spew.

A

Bite and chew: protein comes to the opening and is first broken into large fragments. LArge fragments can allosterically block the channel. The fragments will become small fragments and this decreases the concentration of large fragments allowing more to enter.

ATP hydrolysis: the assembly of proteosome requires ATP, unfolding proteins requires ATP

Chew and spew: after digestion, the complex dissociates and all the small peptides are released.

22
Q

Describe a conditionally degraded, post translational, and cotranslational degradation.

A

Conditionally: when regulatory proteins are no longer needed, they will be degraded

Post translational: damaged proteins are degraded

Cotranslational: poorly made proteins by the ribosome are degraded

All three use the same modifications (phosphorylation and hydroxylation to mark it for destruction).

23
Q

HPV (human papilloma virus)

A

THe high risk variant has the E6 protein. Usually an E2/E3 will degrade a protein. But instead E2/E6 preferentially target p53, allowing cells to grow abnormally.

24
Q

Describe the NFkappa inflammatory response pathway.

A

NFkappa is activated by ubiquitin/proteosome pathway. Usually NFkappa is bound by Ikappa which inhibits it. During stress situations, the ubiquitin/proteosome pathway is activated and turns on Ikappa kinase. Ikappa become phosphorylated which marks it for degradation. NFkappa transcription factor can enter the nucleus and turn on inflammatory response genes. (three places where ubiqitin/proteosome pathway is involved)

25
Q

What are four mentioned diseases resulting from proteosome mutations? Just to know.

A

XP (Xpc is degraded by the proteosome), Fanconi anemia (DNA damage response should be activated by the proteosome), Machodo-Joseph disease, (Ataxin 3 expands and is supposed to be a component of the proteosome), Von hippel Lindau syndrome (failure to degrade Hif-1).

26
Q

What are the causes of pathological hypoxia?

A

reduction in oxygen supply, ischemia (not enough blood flow) to a given area, structurally abnormal microvessels.

27
Q

Describe HIF and how it is regulated.

A

hypoxia inducible factors are mediators of the hypoxia response. They form heterodimers, there are three major alpha subunits and a constitutively expressed beta subunit in the nucleus. Only alphas are destroyed by proteosome and beta in the nucleus will stabilize the alpha so that transcription occurs.
mTOR/S6 kinase promotes Hif1 synthesis. It is degraded by VHL (E3 ligase) and PDH (the protein that hydrolyzes hif1a, marking it for degradation and to bind with VHL. and Its maintained by VDU2 (dismantles the Ub chain conjugated to Hif1. All of these are themselves regulated by ubiquination/proteosome pathways.

28
Q

Name four situations that can lead to hypoxic response.

A

PDH gets degraded so it can’t modify Hif. VHL/E3 ligase is degraded and can not tag hif for degradation. VDU destroys the ubiquinated chain. Mitochondrial failure, when there is enough oxygen, iron is not oxidize. Fe2+ binds to PDH, activating it. However, in mitochondrial failure, ROS occurs and oxidizes To Fe3+ so it can’t bind PDH, stabilizes Hif.

29
Q

What other pathway does Hif1 activate. What does the hypoxic response do?

A

Hif activated Ikappa kinase, phosphorylating it for destruction. INflammatory response is activated.

activates the hypoxic response genes. And produces miRNAs that shut down expression of normoxia genes.

30
Q

What are the regulation of each of the steps in the Hif-1 pathway?

A

PDH is regulated by Siah1/2 (E3)

VHL is regulated by Hdm2 (E3)

UCP regulates VDU2 (E2)

31
Q

When is hypoxia good and when is Hif-1 oxygen indepedent.

A

Growth factors are oxygen independent activation of hif-1 translation via the mTor pathways. This is under conditions of stress. Hif-1 will produce miRNAs which inhibit expression of normoxia genes.

Local hypoxia is good for wound healing and stem cells because it upregulates genes.