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BIOCHEM MIDTERMS > Protein And Ig > Flashcards

Protein And Ig Flashcards

1
Q

C-reactive protein, a plasma protein that is elevated during inflammation and infections. C-reactive protein falls into the category of which of the following proteins?

a. Transport protein
b. Clotting protein
c. Plasma enzymes
d. Acute-phase proteins

A

D.

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2
Q

Albumin (69kDa) is the major plasma protein constituting 60% of total plasma proteinsWhich of the following is not the function of albumin?

a. Maintenance of osmotic pressure
b. Binding and transport of fatty acids and bilirubin
c. Transport of iron
d. Transport of drugs such as sulphonamides

A

C.

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3
Q

Hypoalbuminemia could be carried by

a. Decrease in synthesis in liver
b. Loss of albumin
c. Severe burns
d. All of the above

A

D.

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4
Q

Clinical consequences of alpha-antitrypsin deficiency

a. Jaundice
b. Pulmonary emphysema
c. Liver cirrhosis
d. All of the above

A

D.

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5
Q

The five classes of immunoglobulin include the following, EXCEPT:
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgH

A

D.

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6
Q

Plasma proteins are composed of mostly glycoproteins, lipoproteins, and immunoglobulins that function in the immune system; binding and transporting nutrients, toxic substances, metals, etc. The normal reference range for total plasma proteins is:

a. 2.5-4.5 gm/d
b. 4.5-6.0 gm/dl
c. 6.0-8.3 gm/dl
d. > 8.3gm/dl

A

C

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7
Q

Albumin and globulin (A&G) are the two important group of plasma proteins the reference range for the A:G ratio is 0.8-2.0. Based on the electrophoretic mobility the globulin fraction may be further classified into alpha-1 globulin, alpha-2 globulin, beta-globulin, and gamma-globulin. Which of the following protein is present in the gamma-globulin fraction?

a. Ceruloplasmin
b. Haptoglobin
c. Immunoglobulin
d. Transthyretin

A

C

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8
Q

A young adult presents to the emergency department with severe menstrual bleeding where she is soaking 3-4 pads/hour. Following assessment, which of the following findings indicate a compensatory mechanism?

a. Light pink mucous membranes
b. Deep respirations
c. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
d. Heart rate of 120 bpm

A

d. Heart rate of 120 bpm.

A tachycardic heart rate is a common compensatory response to significant blood loss as the body attempts to maintain adequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues.

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9
Q

72-year-old woman with complaints of increasing fatigue has completed a series of fecal occult blood tests that indicate the presence of blood in her stool. Which of the following health problems is likely to accompany this client’s gastrointestinal bleed?

a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Aplastic anemia

A

C

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10
Q

The reactivity of blood group A is confirmed by detecting the presence of which immunodominant sugar molecule?

a. N-acetyl-glucosamine
b. N-acetyl-galactosamine
c. N-acetyl-neuraminic acid
d. L-fucose

A

B

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11
Q

The mating of parents of which two ABO phenotypes can potentially produce offspring with ALL of the common four blood types?

a. A and O
b. AB and B
c. A and B
d. None of the above

A

C

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12
Q

Bombay phenotype individuals may have antibodies with all the following specificities. EXCEPT:

a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-O
d. None of the above

A

C

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13
Q

Which of the following are small proteins secreted by activated white blood cells to attract additional neutrophils to a site of infection or injury?

a. Eicosanoids
b. Chemokines
c. Complement
d. Interferons

A

B

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14
Q

Which is a protein that forms channels in the plasma membrane of a target cell to induce its lysis?

a. Granzymes
b. Perforins
c. Major histocompatibility complex
d. Histamine

A

B

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15
Q

The following are true about NETS, EXCEPT:
a. The strands for these NETS are composed of polynucleotide strands generated by the dispersal, or decondensation, of a basophil’s chromosomal DNA
b. This process involves rupture of the nuclear membrane
c. NETS are used on invading parasites in order to immobilize them and hinder their spread
d. All of the statements are true

A

A

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the condition called chronic granulomatous disease?

a. It is caused by functionally deleterious mutations in the genes encoding any of the four polypeptides of the NADPH oxidase system
b. The ability to produce ROS is impaired
c. Persons with this condition suffer recurrent infections
d. In some cases, relief can be provided by the administration of delta interferon

A

In some cases, relief can be provided by the administration of delta interferon.

While interferon-gamma (not delta interferon) can help improve immune response in some patients with CGD, it is not a standard treatment for relief of the condition. The other statements regarding the genetic cause, impaired production of reactive oxygen species (ROS), and recurrent infections are true.

17
Q

Histamine is synthesized by decarboxylating which amino acid?

a. Histidine
b. Tyrosine
c. Valine
d. None of the above

A

A

18
Q

What type of white blood cell does the components of the actin-myosin cytoskeleton activate once there is an increase of cytoplasmic

a. Neutrophils
b. Monocytes
c. Basophils
d. Lymphocytes

A

A

19
Q

Of the four types of chemokines, which is the largest?

a. CXC
b. C
c. CX3C
d. CC

A

C

20
Q

What do you call the process of tagging an invader with protective proteins to facilitate recognition by phagocytic leukocytes?

a. Antigen presentation
b. Opsonization
c. Degranulation
d. Phagocytosis

A

B

21
Q

Which of the following can break down the protein components of infectious organisms?

a. Elastase
b. Lactoferrin
c. Defensins
d. All of the above

A

D

22
Q

A mother brings her 3-month-old infant for the fourth time this month to your clinic. You previously treated the infant for pneumonia, diarrhea, and mouth sores. This time, the mother tells you about a pungent smell coming out of her infant’s left ear. On inspection you see a greenish purulent discharge in the canal. Which of the following is true about this case?

a. Third generation cephalosporins will usually clear up the recurrent infections
b. There is probably an increase in lactoferrin in this patient due to the recurrent infections
c. There is now migration of macrophages from the bloodstream into the tissues
d. There is probably a deficiency of NADPH oxidase causing the recurrent infections

A

D

23
Q

This factor is activated on surface of activated platelets by prothrombinase complex:

a. Factor X
b. Factor VII
c. Factor V
d. Factor II

A

C

24
Q

This is a stage in primary hemostasis that causes release of stored granules like ADP, thromboxane and serotonin.

a. Platelet adhesion
b. Platelet activation
c. Platelet aggregation
d. Platelet plug formation

A

B

25
Q

Platelets also contribute to secondary hemostasis (coagulation cascade) by providing a phospholipid surface and receptors for the binding of coagulation factors which was used to be called what?

a. PF1
b. PF2
c. PF3
d. PF4

A

PF3 (Platelet Factor 3).

PF3 is crucial for the activation of various coagulation factors and is essential for the proper functioning of the coagulation cascade during secondary hemostasis.

26
Q

This coagulation cascade pathway involves the tissue factor and factor VII complex, which activates factor X. It is also the primary pathway for the initiation of blood coagulation

a. Tissue factor pathway
b. Contact activation pathway
c. Common pathway
d. None of the above

A

A

27
Q

The extrinsic pathway is rapidly inhibited by a lipoprotein-associated molecule, called:

a. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
b. Activated protein C
c. Protein S
d. Antithrombin

A

A

28
Q

This anticoagulant is released by the endothelium and activates platelet Gs protein-line receptors, activates adenylyl cyclase and increase of CAMP:

a. Prostacyclin
b. Activated protein C
c. Antithrombin
d. Heparin cofactor II

A

Prostacyclin.

Prostacyclin (PGI2) is a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation, functioning through the activation of Gs protein-coupled receptors on platelets, leading to increased cAMP levels, which inhibits platelet activation.

29
Q

This is a serine protease inhibitor that degrades the serine proteases: thrombin, FIXa, FXa, FXla, and FXIIa

A. Prostacyclin
B. Activated protein C
C. Antithrombin
D. Heparin cofactor II

A

C

30
Q

This factor is activated by thrombin and is a cofactor in the activation of factor X by factor IXa:

a. Factor V
b. Factor VIII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor X

A

B

31
Q

Glanzmann thrombasthenia is characterized by *

● • giant platelets
● • platelet clumping
● deficiency in glycoprotein 1b
● • normal platelet count

A

D

32
Q

The following are found in a platelet’s alpha granules, except: *
● serotonin
● von Willebrand factor
● fibronectin
● fibrinogen

A

serotonin.

Serotonin is primarily stored in the dense granules of platelets, not in the alpha granules. The alpha granules contain proteins such as von Willebrand factor, fibronectin, and fibrinogen.

33
Q

Deficiency of intrinsic factor leads to *
• Methemoglobinemia
• Sickle cell anemia
• Hereditary spherocytosis
• Megaloblastic anemia

A

D

34
Q

The inherited for of methemoglobinemia has a deficiency in

● cytochrome b5 reductase
● cytochrome p450 reductase
● cytochrome b5 phosphatase
● cytochrome p450 transferase

A

A

35
Q

A person with a blood type of B means that *

● He has B antigens and anti-B antibodies
● He has B antigens and anti-O antibodies
● He has B antigens and anti-H antibodies
● He has B antigens and anti-A antibodies

A

D

36
Q

5g-syndrome is caused by mutations that lead to an insufficiency of
ribosomal protein

● RPS4
● RPS14
● RPS19
● RPS24

A

B

37
Q

HbM Saskatoon, in which ___ in the ___ subunit is substituted by ____

● • His63, Beta, Tyrosine
● • His63, Alpha, Tyrosine
● • His92, Beta, Tyrosine
● • His87, Alpha, Glutamic acid

A

C

38
Q

Which of the following plasma protein is not involved in iron homeostasis? 1/1
● Haptoglobin
● Transferrin
● Ferritin
● Ceruloplasmin

A

D

39
Q

Synthesis of antibodies takes place by which of the following cells?
1/1
● • a) Bone marrow cells
● • b) T-cells
● • c) B-cells
● • d) Lymph

A

C

BIOCHEM MIDTERMS (6 decks)

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