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Cyber > ProProfs - CyberSecurity Fundamentals Quiz: Exam! > Flashcards

ProProfs - CyberSecurity Fundamentals Quiz: Exam! Flashcards

1
Q

Three common controls used to protect the availability of information are:
A. Redundancy, backups and access controls
B. Encryption, file permissions and access controls
C. Access controls, logging and digital signatures
D. Hashes, logging and backups

A

Redundancy, backups and access controls

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2
Q

Governance has several goals, including:
A. Providing strategic direction
B. Ensuring that objectives are achieved
C. Verifying that organizational resources are being used appropriately
D. Directing and monitoring security activities
E. Ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly

A

Providing strategic direction, Ensuring that objectives are achieved, Verifying that organizational resources are being used appropriately, Ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly

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3
Q

Choose three. According to the NIST cybersecurity framework, which of the following are considered key functions necessary for the protection of digital assets?
A. Encrypt
B. Protect
C. Investigate
D. Recover
E. Identify

A

Protect, Recover, Identify

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4
Q

Which of the following is the best definition for cybersecurity?
A. The process by which an organization manages cybersecurity risk to an acceptable level
B. The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure
C. The protection of paper documents, digital and intellectual property, and verbal or visual communications
D. Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported by internetworked information systems

A

Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported by internetworked information systems

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5
Q

Which of the following cybersecurity roles is charged with the duty of managing incidents and remediation?
A. Board of directors
B. Executive committee
C. Cybersecurity management
D. Cybersecurity practitioners

A

Cybersecurity management

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6
Q

The core duty of cybersecurity is to identify, mitigate, and manage ________ to an organization’s digital assets.
A. Cyberrisk
B. Access control
C. Encryption
D. Vulnerabilities

A

cyberrisk

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7
Q

A ________ is anything capable of acting against an asset in a manner that can cause harm.
A. Asset
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Attack

A

threat

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8
Q

A ________ is something of value worth protecting.
A. Asset
B. Threat
C. Vulnerability
D. Payload

A

asset

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9
Q

A ________ is a weakness in the design, implementation, operation or internal controls in a process that could be exploited to violate the system security.
A. Threat
B. Vulnerability
C. Payload
D. Attack

A

vulnerability

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10
Q

The path or route used to gain access to the target asset is known as a ________.
A. Attack vector
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Policy

A

attack vector

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11
Q

In an attack, the container that delivers the exploit to the target is called a ________.
A. Threat
B. Payload
C. Attack vector
D. Risk

A

payload

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12
Q

________ communicate required and prohibited activities and behaviors.
A. Procedures
B. Guidelines
C. Policies
D. Standards

A

policies

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13
Q

________ is a class of malware that hides the existence of other malware by modifying the underlying operating system.
A. Rootkit
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Spyware

A

rootkit

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14
Q

________ provides details on how to comply with policies and standards.
A. Procedures
B. Guidelines
C. Standards
D. Policies

A

procedures

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15
Q

________ provides general guidance and recommendations on what to do in particular circumstances.
A. Procedures
B. Guidelines
C. Policies
D. Standards

A

guidelines

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16
Q

________, also called malicious code, is software designed to gain access to targeted computer systems, steal information or disrupt computer operations.
A. Malware
B. Virus
C. Worm
D. Trojan

A

malware

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17
Q

________ is used to interpret policies in specific situations.
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Policies
D. Guidelines

A

standards

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18
Q

________ are solutions to software programming and coding errors.
A. Patches
B. Malware
C. Encryption
D. Policies

A

patches

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19
Q

________ includes many components such as directory services, authentication and authorization services, and user management capabilities such as provisioning and deprovisioning.
A. Identity management
B. Policies
C. Network management
D. System hardening

A

identity management

20
Q

Select all that apply. The internet perimeter should:
A. Detect and block traffic from infected internal end points
B. Eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses and worms
C. Format, encrypt and compress data
D. Control user traffic bound toward the internet
E. Monitor internal and external network ports for rogue activity

A

Detect and block traffic from infected internal end points, Eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses and worms, Control user traffic bound toward the internet, Monitor internal and external network ports for rogue activity

21
Q

The _________ layer of the OSI model ensures that data are transferred reliably in the correct sequence, and the _________ layer coordinates and manages user connections.
A. Presentation, data link
B. Transport, session
C. Physical, application
D. Data link, network

A

Transport, session

22
Q

Choose three. There key benefits of the DMZ system are:
A. DMZs are based on logical rather than physical connections
B. An intruder must penetrate three separate devices
C. Private network addresses are not disclosed to the internet
D. Excellent performance and scalability as internet usage grows
E. Internal systems do not have direct access to internet

A

An intruder must penetrate three separate devices, Private network addresses are not disclosed to the internet, Internal systems do not have direct access to internet

23
Q

Which of the following best states the role of encryption within an overall cybersecurity program?
A. Encryption is the primary means of securing digital assets
B. Encryption depends upon shared secrets and is therefore an unreliable means of control
C. A program’s encryption elements should be handled by a third-party cryptologist
D. Encryption is an essential but incomplete form of access control

A

Encryption is an essential but incomplete form of access control

24
Q

The number and types of layers needed for defense in depth are a function of:
A. Asset value, criticality, reliability of each control and degree of exposure
B. Threat agents, governance compliance and mobile device policy
C. Network configuration, navigation controls, user interface and VPN traffic
D. Isolation, segmentation, internal controls and external controls

A

Asset value, criticality, reliability of each control and degree of exposure

25
Q

What is the correct order of the penetration testing phase?
A. Planning, discovery, attack, reporting
B. Attack, discovery, reporting, planning
C. Planning, attack, discovery, reporting
D. Attack, planning, discovery, reporting

A

Planning, discovery, attack, reporting

26
Q

System hardening should implement the principle of __________ or ____________.
A. Governance, compliance
B. Least privilege, access control
C. Stateful inspection, remote access
D. Vulnerability assessment, risk mitigation

A

Least privilege, access control

27
Q

Select all that apply. Which of the following are considered functional areas of network management as defined by ISO?
A. Accounting management
B. Fault management
C. Firewall management
D. Performance management
E. Security management

A

Accounting management, Fault management, Performance management, Security management

28
Q

Virtualization involves:
A. The creation of a layer between physical and logical access controls
B. Multiple guests coexisting on the same server in isolation of one another
C. Simultaneous use of kernel mode and user mode
D. DNS interrogation, WHOIS queries and network sniffing

A

Multiple guests coexisting on the same server in isolation of one another

29
Q

Vulnerability management begins with an understanding of cybersecurity assets and their locations, which can be accomplished by:
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Penetration testing
C. Maintaining an asset inventory
D. Using command-line tools

A

Maintaining an asset inventory

30
Q

What is the correct order of the incident response process?
A. Preparation, detection and analysis, investigation, mitigation and recovery, post-incident analysis
B. Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned
C. Mitigation and recovery, investigation, post-incident analysis, preparation, detection and analysis
D. Investigation, mitigation and recovery, post-incident analysis, preparation, detection and analysis

A

Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned

31
Q

Select three. The chain of custody contains information regarding:
A. Disaster recovery objectives, resources, and personnel
B. Who had access to the evidence, in chronological order
C. Labor, union, and privacy regulations
D. Proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence
E. The procedures followed in working with the evidence

A

Who had access to the evidence, in chronological order, Proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence, The procedures followed in working with the evidence

32
Q

Which element of an incident response plan involves obtaining and preserving evidence?
A. Preparation
B. Identification
C. Containment
D. Eradication

A

Containment

33
Q

NIST defines an ________ as a ‘violation of imminent threat of violation of computer security policies, acceptable use policies, or standard security practices.’
A. Disaster
B. Event
C. Threat
D. Incident

A

Incident

34
Q

Select all that apply. A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) should identify:
A. The circumstances under which a disaster should be declared
B. The estimated probability of the identified threats actually occurring
C. The efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls
D. A list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers, and/or threats
E. Which types of data backups (full, incremental, and differential) will be used

A

The efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls, A list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers and/or threats, Which types of data backups (full, incremental and differential) will be used

35
Q

_________ is defined as ‘a model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management or service provider interaction.’
A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
B. Cloud computing
C. Big data
D. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

A

Cloud computing

36
Q

Select all that apply. Which of the following statements about advanced persistent threats (APTs) are true?
A. APTs typically originate from sources such as organized crime groups, activists, or governments
B. APTs use obfuscation techniques that help them remain undiscovered for months or even years
C. APTs are often long-term, multi-phase projects with a focus on reconnaissance
D. The APT attack cycle begins with target penetration and collection of sensitive information
E. Although they are often associated with APTs, intelligence agencies are rarely the perpetrators of APT attacks

A

APTs typically originate from sources such as organized crime groups, activists or governments, APTs use obfuscation techniques that help them remain undiscovered for months or even years, APTs are often long term, multi-phase projects with a focus on reconnaissance

37
Q

Which of the following are benefits to BYOD?
A. Acceptable Use Policy is easier to implement
B. Costs shift to the user
C. Worker satisfaction increases
D. Security risk is known to the user

A

Costs shift to the user, Worker satisfaction increases

38
Q

Choose three. Which types of risk are typically associated with mobile devices?
A. Organizational risk
B. Compliance risk
C. Technical risk
D. Physical risk
E. Transactional risk

A

Organizational risk, Technical risk, Physical risk

39
Q

Which three elements of the current threat landscape have provided increased levels of access and connectivity, and, therefore, increased opportunities for cybercrime?
A. Text messaging, Bluetooth technology, and SIM cards
B. Web applications, botnets, and primary malware
C. Financial gains, intellectual property, and politics
D. Cloud computing, social media, and mobile computing

A

Cloud computing, social media and mobile computing

40
Q

A ________ is defined as a system or combination of systems that enforces a boundary between two or more networks, typically forming a barrier between a secure and open environment such as the Internet.
A. IDS
B. VPN
C. Firewall
D. DMZ

A

firewall

41
Q

A ________ is based on logical rather than physical connections, and thus, it allows great flexibility.
A. LAN
B. VLAN
C. VPN
D. DMZ

A

VLAN

42
Q

The ________ functions as a small, isolated network for an organization’s public servers, VPN termination and modem pools.
A. Local Area Network
B. Demilitarized Zone
C. Wireless Protected Area
D. Virtual Private Network

A

Demilitarized zone

43
Q

Unlike the IDS, which simply sends an alert when an attack is happening, the IPS can actually help block the attack.
A. True
B. False

A

True

44
Q

A ________ covers a small, local area - from a few devices in a single room to a network across a few buildings.
A. LAN
B. VPN
C. DMZ
D. WAN

A

LAN

45
Q

Most OS have two modes of operations - ________ for execution of privileged instructions for the internal operation of the system and _________ for normal activities.
A. Kernel mode, user mode
B. User mode, kernel mode
C. Safe mode, user mode
D. Kernel mode, normal mode

A

Kernel mode, user mode

46
Q

Choose three. The SDLC includes:
A. IT processes for managing and controlling project activity
B. An objective for each phase of the life cycle that is typically described with key deliverables
C. Incremental steps or deliverables that lay the foundation for the next phase
D. Security tools for protecting assets
E. Processes for managing and preventing cyber threats

A

IT processes for managing and controlling project activity, An objective for each phase of the life cycle that is typically described with key deliverables, Incremental steps or deliverables that lay the foundation for the next phase

Cyber (51 decks)

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