Property for the Bar Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following would render title to land unmarketable?

A) A very slight encroachment onto an adjacent landowner’s land

B) An existing violation of a zoning ordinance

C) A mortgage that the seller will satisfy at closing

A

C) An existing violation of a zoning ordinance would render title to land unmarketable.

While the mere existence of a zoning ordinance does not constitute an encumbrance, if land currently violates a zoning ordinance, it would likely be considered unmarketable.

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2
Q

How may a buyer respond if a buyer determines that a seller’s title to land is unmarketable?

A

The buyer must notify the seller and give the seller reasonable time to cure the defects.

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3
Q

What does the Implied Covenant of Marketable Title provide?

A

Every land sale contract contains an implied covenant that the seller will provide marketable title at closing.

Marketable title is title reasonably free from doubt, which a reasonably prudent buyer would accept. While it need not be perfect title, it must not present the buyer with an unreasonable risk of litigation.

Generally, this means an unencumbered fee simple with good record title.

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4
Q

True or False:

If a mortgage exists on property when a real estate contract is signed, and the mortgage is not satisfied by the seller, the contract for sale of the property is VOID.

A

False.

The mortgage will remain on the land and will encumber the title in the hands of the buyer unless it is satisfied.

If the mortgage is not timely satisfied, the seller will breach the implied covenant of marketability, for which the buyer may pursue several remedies (e.g., rescission, damages, or specific performance with abatement of the purchase price).

However, the contract is not void.

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5
Q

Easements are generally considered encumbrances that render title unmarketable; so if an easement is not provided for in the contract, it usually renders the seller’s title unmarketable.

What is the exception?

A

Exception:
A majority of courts have held that a beneficial easement that was visible or known to the buyer does not constitute an encumbrance.

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6
Q

The hostility element of adverse possession requires that the possessor _______________________.

A

The hostility element of adverse possession requires that the possessor lack the true owner’s permission to be on the land.

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7
Q
  1. What interest does A hold, based on the below?

“To A, so long as the premises are used for organic farming.”

  1. Is A’s interest devisable?
A
  1. A holds a Fee Simple Determinable.
  2. Yes, all Fee Simple Determinable’s are devisable, descendible, and alienable, but will always be subject to the condition.
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8
Q

What future interest accompanies a Fee Simple Determinable?

A

A Possibility of Reverter.

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9
Q

If the conditions of a Fee Simple Determinable are violated, defeasance is _______________ and __________.

A

If the conditions of a Fee Simple Determinable are violated, defeasance is immediate and automatic.

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10
Q
  1. What interest does A hold, based on the below?

“To A, but if X occurs, Grantor reserves the right to re-enter and re-take.”

  1. What interest does the Grantor have?
A
  1. A holds a Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent.

2. Grantor holds a Right of Entry.

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11
Q

True or False:

Foreclosure destroys interests junior to the mortgage being foreclosed.

A

True.

Foreclosure destroys interests junior to the mortgage being foreclosed.

Thus, if a senior mortgage is in default, a junior mortgagee has the right to pay it off (i.e., redeem it) to avoid being wiped out by its foreclosure. Failure to join the junior mortgagee results in the preservation of its interest despite foreclosure and sale.

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12
Q

Statutory redemption is the right of a mortgagor to recover the land after the foreclosure sale has occurred, usually by paying __________.

A

Statutory redemption is the right of a mortgagor to recover the land after the foreclosure sale has occurred, usually by paying the foreclosure sale price.

About half the states provide a statutory right to redeem for some fixed period after the foreclosure sale has occurred, usually six months or one year. The amount to be paid is generally the foreclosure sale price, rather than the amount of the original debt.

This right extends to mortgagors and, in some states, to junior lienors.

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13
Q

Equitable redemption is the right of a mortgagor to recover the land by paying ________________.

A

Equitable redemption is the right of a mortgagor to recover the land by paying the amount overdue on the mortgage, plus interest, at any time before the foreclosure sale.

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14
Q

The order of priority for allocating mortgage foreclosure sale proceeds is as follows, from first to last:

  1. ____________
  2. ____________
  3. ____________
  4. ____________
A

The order of priority for allocating mortgage foreclosure sale proceeds is as follows, from first to last:

  1. Expenses of the sale, including attorneys’ fees, and court costs;
  2. The principal and accrued interest on the foreclosing party’s loan;
  3. Any junior lienors in the order of their priority; and then
  4. The mortgagor.

In many cases, no surplus remains after the principal debt is paid off.

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15
Q

Homeowner’s house is foreclosed upon and sold in a foreclosure sale.

The mortgagor (that foreclosed) only recovered $50,000 in the foreclosure sale, but Homeowner owed $100,000 on the mortgage.

Is Homeowner still liable to the mortgagor for the remaining $50,000?

A

Yes, Homeowner is liable to the mortgagor for the full $50,000 amount.

Absent any anti-deficiency statutes, the investor remains personally liable to pay for any shortfall arising from the foreclosure sale.

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16
Q

Which of the following parties cannot be protected as a bona fide purchaser of land?

A) A donee from a bona fide purchaser of the land.
B) A purchaser from an heir to the land.
C) A devisee of the land.
D) A mortgagee of the land.

A

C) A devisee of the land.

Donees, heirs, and devisees are not BFPs because they do not give value for their interests; i.e., they are not purchasers.

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17
Q

The absence of his grantor’s deed from the chain of title will charge a purchaser of that property with __________ Notice.

A

Inquiry Notice.

When a grantor’s title documents are unrecorded, the grantee is required, at his peril, to insist on seeing the deed and requiring it to be recorded.

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18
Q

A recording act that provides:

“Any conveyance of an interest in land, other than a lease for less than one year, shall not be valid against any subsequent purchaser for value, without notice thereof, unless the conveyance is recorded,” is a ______ statute.

A

Notice Statute.

Under a notice statute, a later purchaser of land will prevail over an earlier grantee if she takes without actual or constructive (e.g., record) notice of the earlier grant.

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19
Q

In a pure notice jurisdiction, who owns the property?

A. Purchaser 1: buys property from Seller but does not record

B. Purchaser 2: subsequently buys property from Seller for value and without notice of Purchaser 1, but also does not record.

A

B. Purchaser 2: buys property for value and without notice of Purchaser 1, but also does not record.

In a pure notice statute, a subsequent purchaser for value and without notice of a prior conveyance will prevail over the prior transferee.

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20
Q

What is the “shelter rule”?

A

The Shelter Rule allows a person who takes from a bona fide purchaser to prevail against any interest that the transferor-bona fide purchaser would have prevailed against.

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21
Q

When is a property that has been acquired via Adverse Possession considered to have a Marketable Title?

A

Owner’s adverse possession itself will not establish marketable title.

Absent an action to quiet title or other tangible proof that title has actually been acquired, the owner’s title is not marketable.

The owner must offer the buyer additional proof that the buyer can use to defend any lawsuit challenging title.

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22
Q

What is a Purchase Money Mortgage?

A

A Purchase Money Mortgage is a mortgage typically given to a third-party lender, who is lending the funds to allow the buyer to purchase a property.

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23
Q

A Purchase Money Mortgage has priority over mortgages, liens, and other claims against the mortgagor that arise _______ to the mortgagor’s acquisition of title.

A. Prior
B. Subsequent

A

A. Prior

A Purchase Money Mortgage has priority over mortgages, liens, and other claims against the mortgagor that arise prior to the mortgagor’s acquisition of title.

A Purchase Money Mortgage is subject to being defeated by subsequent mortgages or liens by operation of the recording acts.

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24
Q

A recording act that provides:

“No conveyance or mortgage of real property shall be valid against a subsequent purchaser for value and without notice whose conveyance is first record.” is a ______ statute.

A

A race notice statute.

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25
Q

Under a race notice statute, a bona fide purchaser is protected only if…..

A

The bona fide purchaser records before the prior transferee/mortgagee records.

Under a race notice statute, a bona fide purchaser is protected only if the bona fide purchaser records before the prior transferee/mortgagee records.

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26
Q

Where property subject to an enforceable contract for sale is destroyed without the fault of either party, before the date set for closing (within the escrow period), the risk of loss is on the _________.

A. Seller
B. Buyer

A

B. Buyer

The buyer is responsible under the majority rule if the contract is silent as to risk of loss.

27
Q

An easement appurtenant passes with a transfer of the _______________ tenement, even though it is a burden on the ______________ tenement.

A

An easement appurtenant passes with a transfer of the dominant tenement, even though it is a burden on the servient tenement.

28
Q

Foreclosure by a mortgagor will destroy all interests that are _____ to the mortgage being foreclosed.

A. Junior
B. Senior

A

A. Junior

Foreclosure by a mortgagor will destroy all interests that are junior to the mortgage being foreclosed.

29
Q

What is the effect of a statutory right of redemption?

A

A statutory right of redemption gives the mortgagor and sometimes junior lienholders a right to redeem for some fixed period of time after the foreclosure sale has occurred.

The amount to be paid is generally the foreclosure sale price, rather than the amount of the bank’s mortgage before the foreclosure sale.

30
Q

A ___________ has a right to pay off a senior mortgage on property before the closure, in order to protect its interest.

A

Junior mortgagor.

A junior mortgagor has a right to pay off a senior mortgage on property before the closure, in order to protect its interest, because the junior mortgage will be destroyed by the senior mortgages foreclosure.

31
Q

How is the Riparian water rights doctrine applied?

A

Under Riparian water rights, domestic (“natural”) uses of water will take precedent over commercial (“artificial”) uses of water.

32
Q

How is the Prior Appropriation water rights doctrine applied?

A

Under Prior Appropriation, the earlier use of water will take priority over later uses.

Prior Appropriation reflects ‘first in time, first in right’ application of rights.

33
Q

A minimal defect as to the quantity* of land conveyed is usually corrected by _____________________________.

(*ex: Seller and Buyer contract for sale of 100 acres, but upon inspection, the property is only 95 acres.)

A

A defect as to the quantity* of land conveyed is usually corrected by pro rata abatement of the purchase price.

Note: a substantial defect may be considered a material change in the terms of the contract.

(ex: price will be reduced from $100,000 to $95,000)

34
Q

When a mortgagor sells mortgaged property and conveys a deed, the grantee takes the land subject to the mortgage, which remains on the land.

If the mortgage is unpaid, what are the mortgagee’s possible remedies?

A

The mortgagee may foreclose on the property or the mortgagee may sue the initial mortgagor.

The mortgagor remains primarily and personally liable on the initial mortgage, unless the grantee has signed an assumption agreement.

35
Q

When a tenant continues in possession after the termination of the tenant’s right to possess, the landlord may…

A

The landlord may evict the tenant, or bind the tenant to a new periodic tenancy.

In a commercial lease, if the lease was for a year or more, a year to year lease will result.

If a landlord notifies a tenant of an increase in rent, the tenant will be held to have agreed to the increase if the tenant does not leave.

36
Q

Per the doctrine of equitable conversion, the rights of the parties are fixed when they have entered a valid land sale contract.

At that point, ____________ is regarded as the owner of the real property, and ________ is regarded as having a personal property right in the proceeds of the sale.

A

Buyer; seller;

Per the doctrine of equitable of equitable conversion, the buyer is regarded as the owner of the real property, and the seller is regarded as having personal property rights in the proceeds of the sale, once the parties have entered into a valid land sale contract.

37
Q

Chattels attached to real property may become fixtures and therefore may not be removed by the tenant.

However, there is a presumption that the chattels are not intended to be fixtures, and thus may be removed, if….

A

If the chattels are used in a trade or business.

Chattels used in a trade or business may be removed, so long as the tenant repairs any damage such removal may cause, as the chattels are presumed to not be intended to remain as fixtures.

38
Q

When a mortgage is foreclosed, the purchaser at the sale will take title as….

A

it existed when the mortgage was placed on the property.

When a mortgage is foreclosed, the purchaser at the sale will take title as it existed when the mortgage was placed on the property.

39
Q

A, B, C, all hold recorded mortgages on Blackacre. A’s interest is senior to B, and C’s interest is junior to B. The tenant fails to pay B’s mortgage, and B forecloses.

What is the effect of B’s foreclosure on A and C?

A

Foreclosure terminates junior interests, thus the foreclosure will terminate C’s interest.

The proceeds of the foreclosure will go first to pay B’s mortgage, and then the remainder will go to C. If the amount is insufficient, the mortgagee can bring a personal suit against the mortgagor.

Foreclosure does not affect senior interests, however, so A’s interest will remain with the land.

40
Q

Landlord enters into a 2-year lease contract with Tenant. After 15 months, Tenant assigns the lease to Friend, who moves into the apartment. Friend pays rent to Landlord for 3 months, then stops altogether.

Landlord seeks to sue for the rent. Who is liable to Landlord and why?

A

Both Tenant and Friend are liable for the full amount, because Tenant is liable on privity of contract and Friend is liable on privity of estate as assignee.

An assignment arises when a tenant transfers all or some of the leased premises to another for the remainder of the lease term, retaining no interest in the assigned premises.

In this case, prior to the agreement with the friend, the tenant had privity of contract with the landlord because of the lease.

The tenant also had privity of estate because the tenant was in possession of the apartment.

Subsequently, an assignment arose when the tenant transferred the premises to the friend for the remainder of the lease term.

The friend was then in privity of estate with the landlord as to all promises that run with the land, including the covenant to pay rent. The tenant was not released by the landlord, however, and thus remained liable on privity of contract.

41
Q

A deed must be delivered to be valid. Delivery is a question of ______.

A

Intent.

Delivery is a question of Intent. The Conveyer must evince the necessary intent to:

1) Strip themselves of dominion/control over the deed;
2) To immediately transfer the title.

Note: recording the deed is not required, and is thus irrelevant so long as delivery was present.

42
Q

What kind of tenancy is “not devisable or inheritable, and cannot be severed by a will”?

A

Joint tenancy.

A joint tenancy is not devisable or inheritable, and cannot be severed by a will.

43
Q

A holds a Possibility of Reverter on Blackacre. B holds a Fee Simple Determinable on Blackacre.

When could A’s Possibility of Reverter become possessory?

A

The Possibility of Reverter becomes possessory immediately upon the occurrence of the limitation.

44
Q

In a __________ jurisdiction, a bona fide purchaser for value, without notice, and who records first, will be protected.

A

Race Notice jurisdiction.

A Race Notice jurisdiction will protect a bona fide purchaser for value without notice, if the bona fide purchaser records first.

45
Q

An implied warranty of fitness for real property applies only to…..

A

Newly constructed residential property that is conveyed by a builder or developer.

An implied warranty of fitness for real property applies only to newly constructed residential property that is conveyed by a builder or developer.

46
Q

To be binding, a restrictive covenant must be placed on property……

A

When it is conveyed.

To be binding, a restrictive covenant must be placed on property at the time when it is conveyed.

47
Q

What is “the Doctrine of Merger”?

A

The doctrine of merger provides that one can no longer sue on title matters contained in the contract of sale after the deed is delivered and accepted.

48
Q

What is “Estoppel by Deed”?

A

Estoppel by deed applies to validate a deed, and in particular a warranty deed, that was executed and delivered by a grantor who had no title to the land at that time, but who represented that he or she had such title and who thereafter acquired such title.

Estoppel by deed applies in the grantee’s favor and prohibits the grantor from an unjust enrichment.

49
Q

What is a license?

A

A license is permission to use the land of another. It is revocable, and is not subject to the statute of frauds.

50
Q

What is the function of a ‘mortgage assumption’ in a contract between buyer and seller for land?

A

With a mortgage assumption, the buyer who assumes the mortgage debt becomes primarily liable.

The seller, absent a release by the creditor, also is liable, although the seller is secondarily liable.

51
Q

O executes a will devising Blackacre to A. O’s will leaves all of O’s other property to B.

A dies suddenly a few weeks later, leaving behind one heir, A’s child C.

O dies a few years after, and never updates O’s will. Who is entitled to Blackacre?

A

B is entitled to Blackacre under the will.

A deceased person cannot take and hold title to property. If a named beneficiary predeceases the testator, the gift to that beneficiary lapses.

Thus, the gift to A lapsed upon A’s death, and does not pass to A’s heir. The gift instead passes to B, O’s heir.

52
Q

When is Seller required to pass marketable title to Buyer?

A

At the closing date.

Title does not have to be marketable until the closing date when all payments have been received.

Seller and Buyer may agree to a conveyance, and Buyer may even make payments to Seller on property that does not have marketable title yet, on the understanding that at the time of closing, Seller will convey marketable title to Buyer.

53
Q

If a contract of sale is silent as to quality of title, the court will imply ____________________.

A

Marketable Title.

If a contract of sale is silent as to quality of title, the court will imply marketable title.

54
Q

A tenant in common may bring an action to partition the property.

What kind of partition is preferred by courts?

A

Partition in kind, in which there is a physical division of the common property, is preferred.

However, a partition by sale is allowed when a fair and equitable physical division of the property is impossible.

55
Q

What interest is conveyed by the below language?

“To A until A graduates from law school.”

A

Fee Simple Determinable

56
Q
  1. What interest is conveyed to A by the below language?

“To A, but if A doesn’t make law review, Grantor reserves the right to reenter.”

  1. What interest does the Grantor have?
A
  1. A has a Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent.

2. Grantor has a Right of Entry.

57
Q

What is the corresponding future interest to a Fee Simple Determinable, and who holds it?

A

Possibility of Reverter is the corresponding future interest.

The grantor holds the Possibility of Reverter, which is automatic and immediate upon the fulfillment of the condition.

58
Q

What interest is conveyed to A by the below language?

“To A, but if the Eagles win the Super Bowl, to B.”

A

A receives a Fee Simple Subject to Executory Limitation.

59
Q

What are the present interests commonly used today?

  1. Fee simple _______________
  2. Fee simple _______________
  3. Fee simple _______________
  4. Fee simple _______________
  5. _______________
A

Present Interests

  1. Fee simple absolute
  2. Fee simple determinable
  3. Fee simple subject to condition subsequent
  4. Fee simple subject to executory limitation
  5. Life estate
60
Q

What is an Easement?

A

An easement is a grant of a non-possessory interest in property that entitles the holder to some form of use or enjoyment of another’s land.

61
Q

When do Easements Appurtenant pass with the land?

A

Easements appurtenant pass automatically with the land, unless a subsequent buyer for value has no notice of the easement.

62
Q

What is the ‘Shelter Rule’ and what are its effects?

A

Per the Shelter Rule: one who receives land from a BFP will prevail against any entity the transferring BFP would prevail against.

Basically, the transferee “steps into the shoes” of the BFP

This protects the BFP by allowing the BFP to transfer their property.

63
Q

What is provided by the covenant against encumbrances, and when is the covenant enforceable?

A

The covenant against encumbrances assures that there are no visible (easements/servitudes) or invisible (mortgages/liens) against the title of the interest conveyed.

The covenant against encumbrances is a ‘present covenant’. Present covenants do not run with the land and are enforceable only at the time of conveyance.