Property Casualty Insurance Basics Flashcards
The provision in a property policy which states that the insured has been paid up to their insurable interest is:
a. Actual Cash Value
b. Guaranteed Replacement
c. stated valued
d. Valuation Clause
D. Valuation Clause
Establishes limit upon the insurer and insured within the insurance policy is:
a. Conditions
b. Exclusions
c. Declarations
d. Insuring Agreements
A. Conditions
- Which are the characteristics of negligence?
a. Breach and Proximate Cause
b. Duty and Breach of the Duty
c. Duty, Breach, Proximate Cause, Damages
d. Breach of Duty and Damages Caused
C. Duty, Breach, Proximate Cause, Damages
- Absolute risk (liability) is imposed:
a. When there is intent to cause injury
b. When the insured party assumes the risk
c. When there’s negligence whether proven or not
d. None of above
C. When there is negligence whether proven or not
- Receive under contributory negligence rules?
a. $5k
b. $2k
c. $3k
d. $0
D. $0
- Which of the following is NOT considered an intentional tort?
A. Blasting operations
B. Unauthorized release of confidential information
C. Auto accident
D. Ownership of a pet rattlesnake
C. Auto accident
- The insurer decides not to renew an insured’s Personal Auto Policy. How much notice must the insurer provide to the insured?
A. 5 days
B. 30 days
c. 20 days
D. 10 days
b. 30 days
- An insurer’s loss reserve for a claim is:
A. The exact amount the insurer will have to pay to close the claim
B. The maximum amount the insurer will have to pay to close the claim
C. An estimate of the amount the insurer will pay for present and future losses
D. Equal to claims divided by earned premium reserve, not including loss of adjustment exp
C. An estimate of the amount the insurer will pay for present and future losses
- A person can be base his/her claim for legal liability on the basis of all of the following, EXCEPT,
A. Breach Liability
B. Negligence
C. Intentional tort
D. Absolute Liability
A. Breach of Liability
- The term Subrogation refers to:
A. The insurance policy applies separately to each insured
B. The transfer of the insured’s interest in a policy to another party
C. The insured right to receive broadened coverage at no extra charge
D. The Insurer’s right to recover payment from a responsible 3rd party
D. The insurer’s right to recover payment from a responsible 3rd party
- Insurer’s the right to recover the payment of a claim, after they paid the insured for their property losses from a negligent 3rd party is known as:
A. Liberalization
B. Subrogation
C. Arbitration
D. Assignment
B. Subrogation
- An Insurance deductible is:
A. The insurance payment for health care that is not considered a covered
B. The portion if the insurance premium paid
C. The amount of covered expenses that the insured pays before the insurer pays
D. The cost of a covered expense minus a co- payment
C. The amount of covered expense that the insured pays before the insurer pays
- All of the following are requirements for a notice by mail to an insured by an insurer, Except:
A. Notice must be sent w return receipt required
B. Notice must be addressed to the person being notified
C. Postage must be prepaid
D. Notice must be mailed to the residence or principal place of business
A. Notice must be sent w return receipt required..
- Which of the following is considered special damages?
A. Compensation for time away from work
B. Compensation for a person emotional suffering
C. Compensation for loss of a foot
D. Compensation for a scar
A. Compensation for time away from work
- Which advisory organization develop forms for the standard market?
A. Insurance Service Office and American Association of Ins Service
B. National Association of Ins Commissioners and the American Asso
C. National Associatin of insurance commissioners and ins
D. Insurance services office and the anerican association
A. ISO and AAIS
- Which of the following would be considered special wages?
A. Lost wages
B. Pain and suffering
C. Scarring
D. Loss of an index finger
A. Lost Wages
- Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of insurance losses?
A. Liability loss
B. Human and personnel loss
C. Financial loss
D. Property loss
C. Financial loss
- What do the initials STARR represent?
A. A government program designing outstanding insurance comp
B. Types of coverage forms
C. Types of standard policies
D. Methods of risk management
D. Methods of risk management
- What gives an insured party the right to seek compensation if its proven that another with negligence contributed to the injury?
A. Tort law
B. Case law
C. Statutory code
D. Criminal code
A. Tort
- Under a special cause of loss form, if a landslide is caused by an unnatural flow of water due to improper grading the loss is:
A. Excluded under the concurrent causation
B. covered there are no exclusions for this type of loss
C. Excluded under the government action exclusion
D. Excluded under the utility service exclusion
A. Excluded under the concurrent causation
- An open peril policy protects against the loss from:
A. Mainly, perils of the sea
B. Perils found outside in the open
C. Only the perils openly named in the policy
D. Any peril, other than those specifically excluded
D. Any Perils, other than those specially excluded
- What factor supports the principle indemnity?
A. Utmost good faith
B. Insurable interest
C. Reasonable expectation
D. Contract if adhesion
B. Insurable interest
- Ideally insurable loss exposure, EXCEPT..
A. Losses that are definite and measurable
B. Losses that are catastrophic
C. Losses that are accidental
D. Large number of exposure units
B. Loss that are catastropic
- The amount to replace property with like property of the same quality and construction is the properties
A. Market Value
B. Actual cash value
C. Agreed amount
D. Replacement value
B. Actual cash value
- A possibity of financial loss resulting from the ownership of property is known as:
A. Legal Liability
B. Valuation
C. Indemnity
D. Insurable Interest
D. Insurable interest
- In a commercial lines program policy, common conditions do not include which of the following as a condition?
A. Cancellation
B. Inspects and surveys
C. Perils insured
D. Examination of your book
C. Perils insured
- Laura is driving her own car on behalf of her employer. Laura’s negligent operation of her car injures a member of the public. The employer may be held liable because of what is called:
A. Absolute liability
B. Gross negligence
C. Vicarious liability
D. Contributory negligence
C. Vicarious liability
- The exposure to financial loss is presented to a business owner by the injury, disability, death, or sickness of a valuable employee:
A. Personal loss exposure
B. Personal property loss exposure
C. Personnel loss exposure
D. Liability loss exposure
C. Personnel loss exposure
- Human Loss Exposure:
A. Liability loss exposure
B. Indirect loss exposure
C. Property loss exposure
D. Personal loss exposure
D. Personal loss exposure
- Which of the following best characterized a speculative risk?
A. Insuring life with a policy
B. A person who is careless and/or irresponsible
C. Transferring the risk of loss to another party
D. A situation that offers the possibility for a loss or a gain
D. A situation that offers the possibility for a loss or gain
- In the state of CA, no rate will remain in effect if its considered to be any of the following, Except:
A. Inadequate
B. Impartial
C. Unfairly discriminatory
D. Excessive
B. Impartial
- under tort law, a corporation can be subject to a claim for legal liability on the basis of:
A. Contract liability
B. Absolute liability
C. Breach of warranty
D. No-Fault auto law
B. Absolute liability
- Risk management technique that eliminates a loss exposure and reduces the chance of loss to Zero is:
A. Avoidance
B. Retention
C. loss reduction
D. Loss Prevention
A. Avoidance
- A situation in which there is only the possibility of loss or no loss.
A. Speculative risk
b. Pure risk
C. Fundamental risk
D. Particular risk
B. Pure risk
- A wrongful act crime or Breach:
A. Hazard
B. Tort
C. Liability
D. Proximate clause
B. Tort
- Which customer to insure and what coverage to offer?
A. Marketing
B. Rate making
C. Underwriting
D. Adverse selection
C. underwriting
- A policy may not transferred to another without:
A. Oral consent of the insurer
B. Written consent of the insurer
C. Oral consent of the insured
D. Written consent of the insured
B. Written consent of the insurer
- Type of loss exposure that would include land and property attached to it:
A. Real property loss exposure
B. Attachable property loss exposure
C. Personal property loss exposure
D. Liability loss exposure
D. liability loss exposure
- What types of policy protects against loss from any peril except those that are specifically excluded?
A. Named peril
B. All risk or open peril
C. Stated value
D. Specified peril
B. All risk or open peril
- Insurance contract
a. The insurance company
b. The insured
c. The claimant
d. The agent
B. The insured
- A written provision that modifies of the original contract is known as:
A. An endorsement
B. A condition
C. A miscellaneous provision
D. An insuring agreement
A. An endorsement
- Named insured on a commercial policies is “Sam Stone and Dan Sullivan, DBA S & S Bar and Grill. If the insurer cancels the policy, they are required to mail or deliver written notice to:
A. Only Sam Stone
B. Sam stone
C. Only dan sullivan
D. Anyof the above is Ok
A. Only Sam Stone
- Type of exposure for any exposure or financial presented to an individual or family causes as injury, disability, death, or sickness?
A. Personnel exposure
B. Personal property loss exposure
C. Liability loss exposure
D. Personal loss exposure
D. Personal loss exposure
- A common formula that is used to establish actual cash value is:
A. Acv = replacement cost - depreciation
B. ACV = market value - overhead
C. ACV = state value minus depreciation
A. ACV= replacement cost - Depreciation
- Which of the flowing coverage is a property insurance coverage?
A. Property damage liability
B. personal injury
C. medical payments
D. Other than collison
D. Other than collision
- Unendorsed claims made general liability policy, how long an insured have to report a aim which occured during the policy period?
A. 30 days
B. 6 months
C. 60 days
D. Indefinity
C. 60days
- What does a pure risk consist of?
A. the chance of loss only
b. The chance of neither of these
C. The chance of gain only
D. The chance of both of these
A. The chance of loss only
- What will the mortgage holder do in the event that an insurer does not pay a claim as a result of the actions of the insured?
A. Receive no payment for any loss
B. Receive full payment for the loss, of the requirement premium has been paid
C. Receive payment if an endorsement has been added to the policy
D. Receive a coinsured amount of the loss
B. Receive full payment for the loss, if the requirement premium has been paid
51.How would a peril best be defined?
A. Required to increase the likelihood of a loss occurring
B. Remaining hazards after a loss occurs
C. Reason for the loss event that leads up to a loss
D. Result of the loss
C. Reason for the loss event that leads up to a loss
- All of the following insurance comp are private insurers; EXCEPT,
A. Reciprocal insurance comp
B. Fraternal Insurance comp
C. Mutual insurance comp
D. Stock insurance comp
B. Fraternal Insurance comp
- Nuclear power- plant is exposed..
A. legal
B. morale
C. moral
D. physical
D. Physical
- of the following, which is the true characteristic about insurance..
A. it’s considered a way of retaining risk
B. It’s considered a type of gambling
C. It’s considered a method of transferring risk
D. It has as its basis the law of level averages
C. Its considered a method of transferring risk
- Warranty
Expressed or implied, but must be the truth
- Implied Warranty
is included in contract even though not specifically stated
- A representation as to the past, present, or future is..
A. Warranty
B. Verified promise
C. Unverified fact
D. Misrepresentation
B. Verified promise
- When may a representation be withdrawn?
A. It can never be withdrawn
B. Only after the policy is in effect
C. At any time as long as both parties agree
D. Only before the insurance is in effect
D. only before the insurance is in effect
- A representation as to the future is?
A. Promise
b. Provision
C. Liability
D. Description
A. Promise
- Certificate of Authority in Cal is?
A. Authorized
B. Admitted
C. Allowed
D. Approved
B. Admitted
- The negotiation of a policy involves ?
A. Adding an endorsement to the policy
B. Signing an application form
C. Making a premium payment
D. Sending the prospect an email
D. Sending the prospect an email suggesting that they buy a certain type of policy
- An applicant does not reveal info
A. Boycott
B. Concealment
C. Intimidation
D. Coercion
B. Concealment
- Cali DOI uses to approve or disapprove rate filings
A. Open competition method
B. File and use method
C. Mandated rates method
D. Prior approval method
D. Prior approval mehod
- Insurance commissioner uses while determining whether a rate is excessive or u fairly discriminatory
A. How long the insurer has been admitted to do business
B. Complaint history of the insurer
C. The degree of competition
D. Whether the rate mathematically reflects the insurance comp
D. Whether the rate mathematically reflects the insurance
- An agent who diverts/commingles premium dollars for the agent own use is guilty of:
A. Misrepresentation
b. Fraud
C. Forgery
D. Theft
D. Theft
- agent’s appointment to an insurance comp is terminated and the agent has no other appt with any other ins comp..
A. The agents permanent license will be terminated simultaneously
B. The agent permanent license remains i force for only 60 more days
C. The agent permanent license remains fully active until exp
D. The agents permanent license becomes inactive
D. The agent’s permanent license becomes inactive
- Surplus lines broker:
A. Transacts insurance business only w admitted insurers
B. Transacts specialty in marine insurance
C. Transacts business only with non-admitted insurers
D. Are always employees of insurance companies
C. Transacts business only with non-admitted insurers
- What would the commissioner likely do if an agent induces a client to co-sign a loan?
A. Force the agent to pay the loan back
B. Impose a $1k fine
C. Suspend the agent’s license
D. Force the agent to attend a state ethics course
C. Suspend the agent’s license
- Under 770 of the insurance Code true regarding unfair or deceptive trade practices, which of the following is an unfair trade practice?
A. The penalties for mispre and twisting of insurance
B. The restrictions on the activities of incorp
C. A travel insurance agent cannot refer business
D. An entity cannot demand the insurance be placed with a particular agency
D. An entity cannot demand the insurance be placed with a particular agency
- Which of the following describes an insurer who has enough financial resources only to provide for all of its liabilities..
A. Insolvent
B. Solvent
C. Non-Participation
D. Guaranteed
A. Insolvent
- In Cali. excess and surplus lines coverage needs to be placed through:
A. An excess and surplus lines solicitor
B. A surplus lines broker
C. An admitted insurer
D. Lloyds of london
B. A surplus lines broker
- What must a life agent, travel agent, or fire and casualty insurance agent do in order to act as an agent of a particular insurer?
A. File proof of licensure with the state
B. have the agent listed with the appropriate dept of the insurer
C. File a notice of appt w the commissioner
D. there are no legal requirements as long as the agent is legally licensed
C. File a notice of appt w the commissioner
- In the business of insurance, the act of concealment is defined by all of the following statements, EXCEPT:
A. Concealment can be intentional
b. Concealment can be unintentional
C. Concealment is grounds for declination by the insurer
D. Concealment does not occur if no inquiry is made..
D. Concealment does not occur if no inquiry is made
74.. Which rate approval filing system is used in Cali for most lines of insurance?
A. Open competition
B. Prior approval
C. File and use
D. Mandatory rates
B. Prior approval