Property Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the elements of adverse possession

A

COAH: Continuous, Open and Notorious, Actual, and Hostile

The elements are gauged objectively. The possessor’s subjective state of mind is irrelevant. It does not matter, for example, that the possessor actually thought that he was on his own land or knew that he was encroaching on another’s land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is tacking?

A

One adverse possessor may tack on to his time with the land his predecessor’s time, so long as there is privity between the possessors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do disabilities affect adverse possession?

A

The statute of limitations will not run against a true owner who is affected by a disability at the inception of adverse possession

If the true owner acquires the disability after adverse possession began, then the disability exception does not apply

Common disabilities include insanity, incompetency, infancy, or imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three forms of concurrent ownership?

A

The joint tenancy - two or more own with the right of survivorship

The tenancy by the entirety - a protected marital interest between spouses with the right of survivorship

The tenancy in common - two or more own without the right of survivorship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the four unities required to create the joint tenancy?

A

T-TIP

T - at the same time

T - by the same title

  • Meaning in the same instrument (i.e. a deed)

I - with identical interests (interests must be equal)

P - right to possess the whole

The grantor must clearly express the right of survivorship to create a joint tenancy (i.e. To A and B, as joint tenants, with the right of survivorship)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which actions sever a joint tenancy?

A

SPAM - Sale, Partition, and Mortgage

Severance and Sale - a joint tenant may sell or transfer her interest during her lifetime. One joint tenant’s sale severs the joint tenancy because it disrupts the four unities. The buyer then becomes a tenant-in-common with the remaining tenant(s)

  • A joint tenant may do the conveyance secretly without authorization from the other tenant(s)
  • If there are more than two joint tenants, the surviving joint tenants remain joint tenants while the new tenant(s) has an interest as a tenancy-in-common
  • Because of the doctrine of equitable conversion, the mere act of entering into a contract for the sale of a share will sever the joint tenancy as to the contracting party’s interest

Severance and Partition

  • By voluntary agreement - an allowable and peaceful way to end the relationship
  • By partition in kind - a judicial action for a physical division of property, if in the best interest of all parties (such as sprawling acreage with multiple owners)
  • By forced sale - a judicial action, when, in the best interest of all parties, the land is sold and the sale proceeds are divided up proportionately (such as selling a home or single building; when the property is difficult to divide in-kind)

Severance and Mortgage - One joint tenant’s execution of a mortgage or a lien on his or her share will sever the joint tenancy as to that now-encumbered share only in minority of states that follow the title theory of mortgages

  • The title theory of mortgages is that giving a creditor a lien is the equivalent of transferring title to the encumbered share and therefore severs title
  • The majority of states follow the lien theory of mortgages, whereby a joint tenant’s execution of a mortgage on his or her interest will not sever the joint tenancy. This is the majority view because it is in line with reasonable expectations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is a tenancy by the entirety created?

A

In the states that recognize the tenancy by the entirety, it arises presumptively in any conveyance to married partners. In other states, the grantor must clearly specify that the conveyance is to A and B, as married partners, as tenants by the entirety

Creditors of one spouse cannot touch this tenancy for satisfaction of the debt

One spouse, acting alone, cannot defeat the right of survivorship by unilaterally conveying to a third party. The conveyance is void

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the characteristics of a tenancy-in-common?

A

Each co-tenant owns an individual part, and each has a right to possess the whole

Each interest is devisable, descendible, and alienable

When in doubt, the presumption favors TIC because joint tenancies are disfavored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is one co-tenant in exclusive possession required to pay rent to the other co-tenants?

A

No. Absent ouster, a co-tenant in exclusive possession is not liable for rent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the rule for renting a co-tenancy property to third parties?

A

A co-tenant who leases all or part of the premises to a third party must account to his co-tenants, providing them their fair share of the rental income based on their ownership interest (i.e. A owns 90% and B owns 10%; A is entitled to 90% rental and B is entitled to 10% rental)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the co-tenants responsible carrying costs of a property?

A

Each co-tenant must pay her fair share of carrying costs based on her undivided interest of the whole (i.e. 90% ownership is responsible for 90% of the costs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the right of contribution?

A

As long as the repairs were reasonable and necessary, and the repairing party gave notice to the other co-tenants, then the repairing party has a right of contribution for the repairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the responsibilities for improvements on the co-tenancy?

A

Co-tenants are not responsible for improvements on the property. One co-tenant’s improvements could be a burden on the other in the form of waste (voluntary, permissive, ameliorative). The improver gets no affirmative right of contribution

At partition (sale), however, the improver gets a credit for any increase in value he caused, or suffers a debit for any drop in value he caused

A joint tenant or tenant in common has a right to bring an action for partition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the rules for waste in a co-tenancy?

A

A co-tenant must not commit waste. During the life of the co-tenancy, a co-tenant is permitted to bring an action for waste against another co-tenant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the four leasehold estates?

A

Tenancy for years

Periodic tenancy

Tenancy at will

Tenancy at sufferance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the tenancy for years?

A

A lease for a fixed, determined period of time. That period could be as short as one week or as long as 50 years

Also known as the estate for years or term of years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How much notice is needed to terminate a term of years?

A

None, because a term of years tells you the termination date

A term of years greater than one year must be in writing to satisfy the statute of frauds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the periodic tenancy?

A

A lease which continues for successive intervals until the tenant (T) or landlord (L) gives proper notice of termination; continuous until properly terminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the ways to create a periodic tenancy?

A

Express - created by written language (i.e. Taylor conveys to Calvin from month-to-month, or year-to-year, or week-to-week)

Implication

  • (1) land is leased with no mention of duration, but provision is made for the payment of rent at set intervals (i.e. nothing is said about duration but tenant pays rent each month, which creates an implied month-to-month periodic tenancy)
  • (2) an oral term of years in violation of the statute of frauds creates an implied periodic tenancy, measured by the way rent is tendered (i.e. month to month or year to year)
  • (3) in a residential lease, if a landlord elects to hold over a tenant who has wrongfully stayed on past the conclusion of the original lease, an implied periodic tenancy arises measured by the way rent is now tendered (i.e. T holds over after the expiration of her one-year lease but sends another month’s rent; creates an implied month-to-month periodic tenancy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is a periodic tenancy terminated?

A

Notice, usually written

At common law, the required notice is at least equal to the length of the period itself, unless otherwise agreed or dictated by statute

By private agreement, the parties may lengthen or shorten these common-law prescribed notice provisions; based in freedom of contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the tenancy at will?

A

A tenancy of no fixed period of duration. For example, “To T for as long as L or T desires”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you create a tenancy at will?

A

Unless the parties expressly agree to a tenancy at will, the payment of regular rent will cause a court to treat the tenancy as an implied periodic tenancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you terminate a tenancy at will?

A

By a reasonable demand to vacate the premises that can be made by either party at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a tenancy at sufferance and how is it created?

A

It is created when T wrongfully held over, past the expiration of the lease. The leasehold estate is known as a tenancy at sufferance to permit L to recover rent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is a tenancy at sufferance terminated?

A

It lasts only until L either evicts T or L elects to hold T to a new term

If L elects to hold T to a new term, then a tenancy at years, periodic tenancy, or a tenancy at will is created (tenancy at sufferance is short-lived)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are T’s liability to third parties?

A

This is tort law in which T is responsible for keeping the premises in reasonably good repair. In tort, T is liable for injuries sustained by third parties she invited, even when L has expressly promised to make all repairs

  • But T can seek indemnification from L if the responsibility to repair should have been on L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is T’s duty to repair?

A

T need only maintain the premises, which means T must make routine repairs other than those due to ordinary wear and tear (maintenance)

T has a duty not to commit waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Law of Fixtures?

A

A fixture is a once-moveable chattel that, by virtue of its attachment or annexation to realty, objectively shows the intent to permanently improve the realty

It is related to waste because when a tenant removes a fixture she commits voluntary waste

Fixtures pass with ownership of the land unless otherwise agreed

T may end the lease when the premises is destroyed without fault to T (i.e. hurricane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can you know when a tenant installation qualifies as a fixture?

A

Express agreement - controls over default rule; any agreement between L and T is binding (usually in advance of installation; freedom of contract)

Default - T may remove a chattel she installed as long as removal will not substantially harm the premises

  • If removal will cause substantial damage to the premises, then in objective judgment T has shown the intention to install a fixture. Therefore, it passes with ownership of the land. Subjective intentions of T are irrelevant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is T’s duty to pay rent?

A

T has a duty to pay rent based on the terms of the lease

If T breaches the duty and is in possession, L’s options are: (1) evict through the courts, or (2) continue the relationship and sue for rent due

If the landlord evicts, she is still entitled to rent

  • By virtue of eviction, by default the tenant is now a tenant at sufferance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are landlord’s options upon breach of the duty to pay rent?

A

SIR

Surrender - treat T’s abandonment as an implicit offer of surrender. T can abandon by showing, by words or conduct, that she wants to give up the lease

  • If the unexpired term is greater than one year, then must be in writing

Ignore the abandonment and hold T responsible for the unpaid rent, as if T was still there. Only available in a minority of states

Re-let the premises on the wrongdoer-tenant’s behalf and hold the tenant liable for any deficiency

  • The majority rule is that L must try to re-let as a mitigation principal. L must make a good faith effort to re-let
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the rules of self-help for landlord?

A

L must not engage in self-help, such as by changing the locks, forcibly removing the tenant, or removing tenant’s possessions

Self help is punishable by civil and criminal penalties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the duty to deliver possession?

A

This majority rule requires that L put T in actual physical possession of the premises. Thus, if at the start of T’s lease, a prior holdover T is still in possession, then L has breached and the new T gets damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the implied covenant of quiet enjoyment (very likely to be tested)?

A

A duty that arises by implication that T has a right to quiet enjoyment of the premises without interference from L. L implicitly promises this in every lease, whether commercial or residential

L can breach this covenant by wrongful or constructive eviction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the breach by wrongful eviction and breach by constructive eviction?

A

Wrongful - when L wrongfully evicts T or excludes T from the premises

Constructive (more likely to be tested) - occurs by meeting three elements (SING)

  • Substantial Interference - chronic or permanent problem due to L’s actions or failures to act (chronic = recurring)
  • Notice - T must give L notice of the problem, and L must fail to respond meaningfully
  • Goodbye (vacate) - T must vacate within a reasonable time after L fails to fix the problem
    • The aggrieved tenant cannot remain onsite and still plead she has been constructively evicted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the implied warranty of habitability (commonly tested)?

A

The premises must be fit for basic human dwelling; bare living requirements must be met (modest standard, not a high bar)

An implied promise that applies only to residential leases. It is non-waivable because waiver is a violation of public policy

Usually discerned by the local housing code or by case law

General problems include no heat in winter, no plumbing, no running water

Tenant does not need to vacate to bring an action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are T’s entitlements when the implied warranty of habitability is breached?

A

MR3

Move - move out and end the lease (but not required to do so)

Repair and deduct cost from rental rate

Reduce or withhold rent until the court determines fair rental value

  • Typically, T must place withheld rent into an escrow account to show good faith

Remain in possession, pay rent, and sue for money damages

Exam Tip - remember the difference between the covenant of quiet enjoyment (where to plead constructive eviction T must vacate) and the implied warranty of habitability (where T could vacate but is not required to do so).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the doctrine of retaliatory eviction and the rules surrounding it?

A

L cannot penalize T if T lawfully reports housing code violations, such as by raising the rent, ending the lease, harassing the tenant, or any other retaliatory action

The purpose is to encourage good-faith whistleblowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

May a tenant transfer her leasehold?

A

Yes, in the absence of some prohibition in the lease prohibiting transfer, the tenant may freely transfer his or her interest in whole (assignment) or in part (a sublease)

In the lease, L can prohibit T from assigning or subletting without L’s prior written approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the difference from an assignment and a sublease?

A

Assignment transfers the lease in whole (the entire interest), while a sublease transfers the lease in part (less than the entire interest)

Once L consents to one transfer by T, L waives the right to object to future transfers by that T, unless L expressly reserves the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is meant by privity of estate?

A

When L and T2 are in privity of estate, L and T2 are liable for each other in all covenants of the lease that run with the land

I.e. promise to pay rent, promise to improve or repair, promise to pay taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is meant by privity of contract?

A

L and T2 are not in privity of contract because they never exchanged the original promissory words of contract

But L and T1 remain in privity of contract because they exchanged the original promissory words of contract, meaning L and T1 are secondarily liable to each other

If T2, or the direct wrongdoer, cannot pay or is unavailable, then T1 is liable

If T2 assigns to T3, then L can proceed against T3 because they are in privity of estate (T3 is in possession). L can also proceed against T1 because they remain in privity of contract, but cannot proceed against T2 because they are neither in privity of contract or privity of estate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the rules for privity of estate and privity of contract under a sublease?

A

L and T2 are neither in privity of estate or privity of contract.

The relationship between L and T1 remains fully intact because T1 transferred less than the entire interest to T2.

If T2 fails to pay rent, L proceeds against T1 and T1 proceeds against T2. If L violates the implied warranty of habitability, T2 proceeds against T1 and T1 proceeds against L.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the five exceptions of landlord’s tort liability (one or two often tested)?

A

CLAPS

Common Areas - L must maintain all common areas

Latent Defects - L must warn T of hidden defects that L knows about or should know about; this is a duty to warn not a duty to repair

Assumption of Repairs - While under no duty to make repairs, once undertaken, L must complete them with reasonable care, meaning L is liable if he makes the repairs negligent

Public Use Rule - L who leases public space (e.g. a convention hall or museum) and who should know, because of the significant nature of the defect and the short length of the lease that T will not repair, is liable for any defects on the premises (T does not have the time or expertise to make the needed repairs)

Short Term Lease of Furnished Dwelling - L is responsible for any defective condition which proximately injures T, because T has neither the time or ability to make repairs himself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an easement?

A

A grant of a nonpossessory property interest that entitles its holder to some form of use or enjoyment of another’s land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the difference from an affirmative easement and a negative easement?

A

Affirmative - the right to do something on servient land

Negative - entitles its holder to prevent the servient landholder from doing something

  • Generally recognized by only four categories: LASS (light, air, support, stream water from artificial flow) (Negative easement for light commonly tested)
  • A minority of states also allow a negative easement for scenic view
  • A negative easement can only be created expressly, by writing signed by the grantor. No natural or automatic right to a negative easement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is an easement appurtenant?

A

An easement that benefits its holder (the dominant tenement) in his physical use or enjoyment of his property

Two properties are involved - the dominant tenement (the estate with the benefit) and the servient tenement (the estate with the burden).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an easement in gross?

A

An easement that confers upon its holder only some personal or pecuniary advantage that is not related to his use or enjoyment of his land

  • Examples: the right to place a billboard on another’s lot; the right to lay power lines on another’s lot; the right to fish or swim

Servient land is burdened, but there is no dominant land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the rules of transferability for easements?

A

The benefit of the easement appurtenant passes automatically with the dominant tenement, regardless of whether it is even mentioned in the conveyance

The burden of the easement appurtenant also passes automatically with the servient tenement unless the new owner is a bona fide purchaser without notice of the easement

An easement in gross is not transferable unless it is for commercial purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How can you create an affirmative easement?

A

PING

Prescription - acquired by analogy to adverse possession

  • COAH; continuous use for the statutory period; open and notorious (visible); actual use that need not be exclusive (differs from adverse possession); hostile without the servient owner’s consent (no permission)

Implication - an easement implied from existing use

  • Previous use must be apparent; the parties expected it to survive division; it is reasonably necessary to the dominant land’s use and enjoyment

Necessity - when the grantor conveys part of his land with no way out except over some part of the grantor’s remaining land (landlocked land)

Grant - by express language; an easement to endure for more than one year must be in writing to satisfy the statute of frauds (the writing is known as the deed of easement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is the scope of an easement determined?

A

By the terms of the grant or the conditions that created the easement

52
Q

How can you terminate an easement?

A

Eight ways: END CRAMP

Estoppel - the servient owner materially changes his or her position in reasonable reliance on the easement holder’s assurance that the easement will no longer be enforced

Necessity - expires as soon as the necessity ends

Destruction - destruction of the servient land, other than through the willful conduct of the servient owner

Condemnation - condemnation of the servient estate by governmental eminent domain power

Release (commonly tested) - a release given by the dominant easement holder

Abandonment (commonly tested) - physical action that shows intent to never use the easement again

  • Mere nonuse, or mere words, are insufficient to terminate

Merger - easement is extinguished when title to the easement and title to the servient land become vested in the same person (unity of title)

  • The easement will not be automatically revived if the land is partitioned in the future

Prescription - COAH: Continuous interference (not continuous use); Open and notorious; Actual; Hostile to the easement holder

53
Q

What is a license?

A

A mere privilege to enter into another’s land for some delineated purpose. A writing is not required because they are not subject to the statute of frauds

Freely revocable at the will of the licensor, unless estoppel applies

  • Estoppel applies only when the licensee has invested substantial money or labor in reasonable reliance on the license’s continuation
54
Q

What is a profit?

A

Entitles the holder to enter the servient land to take from it the soil or some product of the soil (timber, minerals, oil, etc.)

The same rules for easements apply to profits

55
Q

What is a covenant?

A

A promise to do or not do something related to the land. It is unlike the easement because it is not the grant of a property interest. Instead, it is a contractual limitation or promise regarding land use.

One tract is burdened by the promise and the other tract is benefitted

56
Q

What is the difference from a restrictive covenant and affirmative covenant?

A

Restrictive (negative) - a promise to refrain from doing something related to the land (i.e. I promise not to build for commercial purposes; I promise not to paint the shutters brown)

Affirmative - a promise to do something related to the land (i.e. I promise to maintain our common fence; I promise to water our common garden)

57
Q

What does it mean to run with the land?

A

When a covenant runs with the land, it binds its successors. The burden and the benefit must run with the land

Vertical privity will run between A and A-1, and horizontal privity will run between A and B

Both horizontal and vertical privity are required for the burden to run. But only vertical privity are required for the benefit to run

58
Q

What does vertical privity mean?

A

The nexus between A and A-1 and B and B-1. It requires a non-hostile connection such as a contractual relationship, a will, intestacy, etc. (non-hostile nexus such as contract, devise, or descent).

It is easier to establish vertical privity than horizontal privity

Vertical privity will only be absent when A-1 acquires the interest through adverse possession.

59
Q

What does horizontal privity mean?

A

The nexus between A and B (the original parties). It requires that they be in succession of estate, meaning that they were in a grantor/grantee or landlord/tenant or mortgagor/mortgagee relationship when the covenant was created.

60
Q

What is required for the burden of a covenant to run?

A

WITHN (no I in WITHN)

Writing - the original promise between A and B must be in writing

Intent - the original parties, A and B, manifested an intent for the promise to run

  • Courts are generous in finding the requisite intent

Touch and Concern the Land - the promise must affect the parties as landowners and not just the community at large

  • Covenants to pay money to be used in connection with the land (such as homeowners’ association fees) and covenants not to compete do touch and concern the land

Horizontal and Vertical Privity - both required for burden to run

Notice - A-1 must have notice of the promise when she took

61
Q

What is required for the benefit to run?

A

WITV

Writing - the original promise between A and B was in writing

Intent - the original parties intended that the benefit would run

Touch and concern - the promise affects the parties as landowners

Vertical privity - requires some non-hostile nexus between B and B-1

62
Q

How do you create an equitable servitude that will bind successors?

A

WITNES (only one S, not two)

Writing - generally, but not always, the original parties’ promise was in writing

Intent - the original parties intended that the promise would be enforceable by and against assignees (liberally inferred)

Touch and concern - the promise affects the parties as landowners

Notice - the assignees of the burdened land had notice of the promise

Equitable Servitude

Privity is not required to bind successors to an equitable servitude

63
Q

What are the three forms of notice that apply to the common scheme doctrine?

A

AIR

Actual notice - the defendant had literal knowledge of the promise in the other deeds; had been explicitly told of or explicitly read the promise in the other deeds

Inquiry notice - the neighborhood conforms to the common restriction (the lay of the land); this is a form of constructive notice

Record notice - notice was provided through public records; also a form of constructive notice that is imputed to buyers regardless of actual notice

64
Q

What is the equitable defense to enforcement of an equitable servitude?

A

The doctrine of changed conditions; changed circumstances

Changed circumstances alleged by the party seeking release from the terms of an equitable servitude must be so pervasive that the entire area has changed

Mere pockets of limited change are not adequate to apply the doctrine of changed conditions

65
Q

What is escrow?

A

Delivery of deed to a third party to be held until purchase price is paid

66
Q

Is the statute of frauds applicable to transfers of land?

A

Yes, to be enforceable

A land contract must be memorialized in a writing that is signed by the party to be charged

Need not be a formal contract; a memorandum suffices, such as escrow instructions or emails, which can be deemed contracts of sale

67
Q

What are the statute of frauds requirements for land sales contracts?

A

The writing must contain “all essential terms”:

  • Description of the property
  • Identification of the parties
  • Price and manner of payment

Signature by the grantor; the grantee’s signature is not necessary

68
Q

What are the delivery and acceptance requirements?

A

The deed itself is not affected until it has been delivered and accepted

69
Q

What are the requirements to convey real property by an inter vivos gift?

A

Donative intent

Delivery

Acceptance

70
Q

What is the Doctrine of Part Performance?

A

A court may give specific performance of a contract (but not damages) despite the absence of a writing

In most states, two of the following are required: (1) possession of the land by the purchaser, (2) making of substantial improvements, and/or (3) payment of all or part of the purchase price by the purchaser

71
Q

Which theories support the Doctrine of Part Performance?

A

Evidentiary theory - if acts done by a party can be explained only by reference to an agreement, these acts unequivocally establish the existence of an oral contract

Hardship or estoppel theory - if acts done by a party in reliance on the contract would result in hardship that it would be a fraud on that party, the other party will be estopped from asserting the SoF as a defense

72
Q

How can the seller obtain specific performance based on the buyer’s actions?

A

Evidentiary theory - it is immaterial who performed the acts constituting the part performance. The seller may obtain specific performance based on the buyer’s acts

Hardship or estoppel theory - the plaintiff must be the one whose action would result in hardship if the SoF were invoked. The seller normally cannot rely on the buyer’s acts

  • Ascertain whether the seller has done anything that would cause him a hardship if SoF were successfully asserted by the buyer
73
Q

What is the Doctrine of Equitable Conversion?

A

Once a contract is signed and each party is entitled to specific performance, equity regards the purchaser as the owner of the real property.

The seller’s interest of the right to the proceeds of sale is personal property

Legal title that remains in the seller’s name is to be held in trust for the purchaser as security for the debt owed to the seller

Seller is still entitled to possession until closing; possession follows legal title

74
Q

What are the risk of loss rules?

A

If the property is destroyed without fault of either party, the majority rule is that the risk of loss is on the buyer (because the buyer is deemed the owner under the doctrine of equitable conversion)

The buyer must pay the contract price despite the loss, unless the contract provides otherwise

The minority rule is that the risk is on the seller unless the buyer has either legal title or possession (in states that have adopted the Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk Act)

75
Q

What is the rule of marketable title?

A

An implied covenant in every land transaction that at closing the seller will provide the buyer title that is “marketable”

76
Q

What is the definition of marketability?

A

Title must be reasonably free from doubt

Title that a reasonably prudent buyer would be willing to accept

It need not be perfect title, but the title must be free from questions that might present an unreasonable risk of litigation. Generally, this means an unencumbered fee simple with good record title

77
Q

When may there be defects in record chain of title?

A

Title may be unmarketable because of a defect in the chain of title

Must be a significant variation in the description of the land; that a deed was defectively executed; or that a prior grantor lacked capacity to convey

78
Q

What are examples of encumbrances?

A

Mortgages, liens, easements, covenants, and encroachments

  • These render the title unmarketable unless the buyer waives them

But a seller has a right to satisfy a mortgage or lien at closing with the proceeds from the sale

Closing will result in marketable title and the buyer cannot claim title is unmarketable

Encroachment (property sitting across a property line) also renders title unmarketable

Zoning restrictions generally do not render title unmarketable

Any of the above-mentioned encumbrances can be waived in the contract of sale

79
Q

Does a quitclaim deed affect the implied covenant to provide marketable title?

A

No, the seller is still required to provide marketable title

80
Q

What are the remedies if title is unmarketable?

A

Buyer must notify the seller and give a reasonable time to cure, even if it requires an extension of the closing date

If the seller fails to cure, the buyer may pursue (1) rescission, damages, or specific performance, or (2) merger

  • Specific performance here means to have an abatement of the sale price, or in some jurisdictions, to require the seller to quiet title
  • If the buyer permits closing, then the contract is said to merge with the deed, and in the absence of fraud, the seller is no longer liable on the implied covenant of marketable title
81
Q

What is the meaning of tender of performance?

A

The buyer’s obligation to pay the purchase price and the seller’s obligation to convey the title are deemed to be concurrent conditions.

Neither party is in breach until the other party tenders her performance

82
Q

What are the remedies for breach of the sales contract?

A

Damages

Liquidated damages

Specific performance

83
Q

What are the damages and liquidated damages remedies?

A

Damages - usually the difference between the contract price and the market value of the land on the date of breach. May also include incidental damages such as title examination or moving or storage costs

Liquidated damages - Seller may retain “earnest money.” Earnest money must be reasonable in light of the seller’s anticipated and actual damages.

  • Many courts uphold a deposit of up to 10% of the sales price without further inquiry into reasonableness.

If title is unmarketable, many courts have limited the buyer’s recovery to damages incidental to out-of-pocket costs (title examination, etc.) and return of the buyer’s earnest money. Other courts will give the buyer the standard measure of contractual damages

84
Q

What is the warranty of fitness or quality?

A

Applies only to new residential construction; must be constructed in a reasonable and workmanlike manner and suitable for human habitation

  • Can also sue for negligence in performance under the building contract

Other than new residential construction, contracts of sale and deeds of real property carry no implied warranty of fitness or quality

85
Q

What are the standards for defects in improvements?

A

A seller may be liable for defects in improvements under the following:

  • Misrepresentation (fraud) - proof that the seller made a false statement of fact (oral or written), the buyer relied on the statement, and that it materially affected the value of the property. The seller must have either known it was false or made it negligently (without taking reasonable care to determine its truth)
  • Active concealment - seller is liable for taking active steps to conceal a defect
  • Failure to disclose defects - the seller must know or have reason to know of the defect, the defect is not obvious or apparent, the buyer is unlikely to discover it by ordinary inspection, and the defect is serious enough to cause a reasonable buyer to reconsider the purchase if it were known
86
Q

What are the disclaimers of liability?

A

“As Is” - not sufficient to overcome a seller’s liability for fraud, concealment, or failure to disclose

Specific disclaimers - if the exculpatory clause identifies and disclaims liability for specific types of defects (i.e. not liable for leaks in the roof), it is likely to be upheld

87
Q

When are deeds void and voidable?

A

Void - forgeries, deeds never delivered, issued to a nonexistent grantee, or obtained by fraud in the factum (grantor was deceived and did not realize he was executing a deed); implies the deed will be set aside by the court

Voidable - executed by a person under the age of majority or who lacked capacity, deeds obtained by fraud in the inducement, by duress, by undue influence, mistake, or breach of fiduciary duty; implies the deed will be set aside only if the property has not passed to a bona fide

88
Q

When is parol evidence admissible to clear up ambiguity in a deed?

A

When there is a patent ambiguity (one appearing on the face of the deed) or latent ambiguity (not apparent on the face of the deed)

Parol evidence is used to ascertain the parties’ intent

If the description in the deed is inadequate, then parol evidence is inadmissible and the deed will likely fail for lack of an adequate description

89
Q

What is reformation of deeds and when is it applicable?

A

If there was no mistake or ambiguity, but a mistake in the writing of the deed, relief may be available through reformation

An equitable remedy in which the court re-writes the deed to make it conform to the intent of the parties

It will be granted for a mutual mistake or for a scrivener’s (drafter’s) error

It will be granted for unilateral mistake only if the party who is not mistaken induced the mistake by misrepresentation or some other inequitable conduct

If the property has passed to a bona fide purchaser who relied on the original language of the deed, the court will not reform it

90
Q

What is the rule for delivery?

A

A deed is not effective to transfer an interest in realty unless it has been delivered

Physical transfer of a deed is not necessary, but may be achieved by mail, by grantor’s agent or messenger, or by physical transfer by the grantor’s attorney in the grantor’s presence

Delivery refers to the grantor’s intent; it is satisfied by words or conduct evidencing the grantor’s intention that the deed have some present operative effect (i.e. that title pass immediately and irrevocably, even though the right of possession may be postponed until some future time)

Under some circumstances, conditional delivery is permissible. It becomes effective only upon the occurrence of a condition, but the transfer then relates back to the time of the conditional delivery

91
Q

What are the presumptions relating to delivery?

A

Delivery is presumed if a deed is (1) handed to the grantee, or (2) acknowledged by the grantor before a notary and recorded

Continued possession of the deed by the grantor raises a presumption of nondelivery and therefore no passage of title (rebuttable presumption)

Possession by a grantee of a properly executed deed raises a presumption that the delivery requirement has been satisfied (rebuttable presumption)

Title passes to the grantee upon effective delivery; the grantor must relinquish absolute and unconditional control

If the grantor executes and delivers a deed but fails to record, title passes

92
Q

What are the three types of deed?

A

General warranty deed - one in which the grantor covenants against title defects created by himself and by all prior titleholders

Special warranty deed - covenants only that he himself did not create title defects, but represents nothing about what prior titleholders may have done

Quitclaim deed - no assurances that title is not defective

93
Q

What are the “usual covenants of title”?

A

Seisin - a covenant that the grantor has the estate or interest that she purports to convey

Covenant of the right to convey - the grantor has the power and authority to make the grant

Covenant against encumbrances - assures that there are neither visible encumbrances (easements, profits, etc.) nor invisible encumbrances (mortgages, etc.)

Covenant for quiet enjoyment - that the grantee will not be disturbed in his or her possession or enjoyment of the property by a third party’s lawful claim of title

Covenant of warranty - the grantor agrees to defend on behalf of the grantee any lawful or reasonable claims of title by a third party

Covenant for further assurances - to perform whatever acts are reasonably necessary to perfect the title conveyed if it turns out to be imperfect

94
Q

What are the present covenants?

A

Seisin, right to convey, covenant against encumbrances

Breached at the time of conveyance

95
Q

What are the future covenants?

A

Quiet enjoyment, warranty, and further assurances

Breached only upon interference with the possession of the grantee or her successors

The distinction of present or future covenants is important because it determines when the statute of limitations begins to run

96
Q

What are the three major types of recording acts?

A

Notice statutes

Race-Notice statutes

Race statutes

97
Q

What is a bona fide purchaser?

A

A purchaser who gives valuable consideration and has no notice of the prior conveyance

Only BFPs prevail under “notice” and “race-notice” statutes; it is not required to be a BFP under a pure “race” statute because the purchaser can have actual notice of the conveyance and still prevail

98
Q

What is required for constructive notice?

A

Record notice - recording of the instrument

  • Record notice gives the rebuttable presumption that the instrument has been validly delivered and that it is authentic

Inquiry notice - if the subsequent grantee is bound to make reasonable inquiry, she will be held to have knowledge of an facts that such inquiry would have revealed (even if she made no inquiry)

99
Q

What are the rules for notice statutes?

A

A subsequent BFP prevails over a prior grantee who failed to record

This is because the BFP had no actual or constructive notice at the time of the conveyance

100
Q

What is a typical notice statute?

A

No conveyance or mortgage of an interest in land is valid against any subsequent purchaser for value without notice thereof, unless it is recorded

101
Q

What are the rules for race-notice statutes?

A

A subsequent BFP is protected only if she records before the prior grantee.

The rationale is the best evidence of which deed was delivered first is to determine who recorded first (BFP must record first)

102
Q

What is a typical race-notice statute?

A

No conveyance or mortgage of an interest in land is valid against any subsequent purchaser for value without notice thereof whose conveyance is first recorded

103
Q

What are the rules for race statutes?

A

Whoever records first wins. Actual notice is irrelevant.

The rationale is that actual notice depends upon extrinsic evidence, which may be unreliable. Race statutes are the minority rule.

104
Q

What is a typical race statute?

A

No conveyance or mortgage of an interest in land is valid against any subsequent purchaser whose conveyance is first recorded

105
Q

What is the shelter rule?

A

A person who takes from a BFP will prevail against any interest that the transferor-BFP would have prevailed against. This is true even where the transferee had actual knowledge of the prior unrecorded instrument

  • The rationale is a BFP may not be able to convey an interest in the land without the shelter rule

Exception: the shelter rule will not help someone who previously had title and had notice of the unrecorded interest. Ex. If O repurchased from B, O would have notice of A’s interest and could not claim the benefit of the “shelter rule”

106
Q

What is the recording acts rule for purchasers under installment land contracts?

A

A purchaser who has paid only part of the purchase price under an installment land contract is protected by the recording acts only to the extent of payment made.

107
Q

What is a tract index?

A

The searcher looks at the page indexed by block and/or lot describing the property and any instruments affecting it

108
Q

What is a grantor/grantee index?

A

The searcher establishes a chain of title by searching back in time in the grantee-grantor index.

From that point, he then searches forward in time in the index to see if any grantor conveyed an interest to someone outside of the backward chain

109
Q

What is a mortgage?

A

The conveyance of a security interest in land, intended by the parties to be collateral for the re-payment of a monetary obligation

The owner of real estate gives the lender a lien in that real estate to secure the loan that the lender makes

A mortgage must typically be in writing to satisfy the Statute of Frauds

110
Q

What is the difference from a purchase-money mortgage and a non-purchase-money mortgage?

A

Purchase-money - an extension of value by a lender who takes as collateral a security interest in the very real estate that its loan enables the debtor to acquire

Non-purchase-money mortgage is any other mortgage

111
Q

How do you transfer a mortgage?

A

The mortgagor transfers by deeding the property, while the mortgagee transfers by indorsing the note and executing a separate assignment of the mortgage

The note and mortgage must pass to the same person for the transfer to be complete

112
Q

How do you become a holder in due course?

A

(1) the note must be negotiable in form; it must be payable to “bearer” or to “the order of” the named payee and contain a promise to pay a fixed amount of money
(2) the original note must be indorsed by the named payee
(3) The original note must be delivered to the transferee
(4) the transferee must take the note in good faith
(5) the transferee must pay value for it.
(6) The transferee must not have any notice that the note is overdue or has been dishonored, or that the maker has any defense to the duty to pay it

113
Q

What are the benefits of being a holder in due course?

A

A holder in due course will take the note free of any personal defenses that the maker might raise (failure of consideration, fraud in the inducement, waiver, estoppel, and payment)

But the HDC is still subject to “real” defenses (infancy, incapacity, duress, illegality, fraud in the execution, forgery, insolvency)

114
Q

What are the rules for redemption of foreclosure?

A

Redemption in equity (or equitable redemption) - at any time prior to the foreclosure sale, the mortgagor has the right to redeem the land or free it of the mortgage by paying off the amount due with any accrued interest

Statutory redemption - a statutory right to redeem for some fixed period after the foreclosure sale has occurred (usually six months to one year)

  • The amount to be paid is usually the foreclosure sale price, not the original price
  • Only applies after foreclosure has occurred
115
Q

What happens if you fail to include a necessary party in a foreclosure action?

A

Failure to include a necessary party results in the preservation of that party’s claim, despite the foreclosure and sale

If a necessary party is not joined, then his mortgage will remain on the land

116
Q

What is the effect of foreclosure on junior interests?

A

Foreclosure will terminate interests junior to the mortgage being foreclosed but will not affect senior interests

This means that junior lienholders will be paid in descending order with the proceeds from the sale, assuming funds are leftover after full satisfaction of superior claims

117
Q

What is the effect of foreclosure on senior interests?

A

It does not affect any interest senior to the mortgage being foreclosed. The buyer at the sale takes subject to such interests

118
Q

What are the priority rules for creditors?

A

A creditor must record to obtain a priority.

Once recorded, priority is determined by first in time, first in right

119
Q

What are the consumer rights during the foreclosure process?

A

After the mortgagor has defaulted, the mortgagee must in good faith consider a request made by the mortgagor for a loan modification or other alternative to foreclosure

The mortgagee cannot file a foreclosure action in court while such a request is pending

If the request is made after the foreclosure action is filed, the mortgagee cannot proceed to foreclosure sale until the request is resolved

120
Q

What is the rule for trespass?

A

If the land is invaded by a tangible, physical object that interferes with the right of exclusive possession, there is a trespass

121
Q

What are the rules for private nuisance?

A

If the land is invaded by intangibles (such as odors or noise) that substantially and unreasonably interfere with the use or enjoyment of property, the possessor may bring an action for private nuisance

122
Q

What is a public nuisance?

A

An invasion by intangibles that unreasonably interferes with the health, safety, or property rights of the public

123
Q

What are the standards for zoning?

A

The state may enact statutes to reasonably control the use of land for the protection of the health, safety, morals, and welfare of its citizens.

124
Q

What is a nonconforming use?

A

A once lawful, existing use now deemed nonconforming by a new zoning ordinance.

Generally, the nonconforming use may continue indefinitely, but any change in the use (such as tearing down a building and replacing it with a new one) must comply with the new zoning ordinance

125
Q

What are cumulative and noncumulative zoning ordinances?

A

Cumulative - creates a hierarchy of uses of land, where a single-family home is the highest use, followed by a two-family home, then apartment buildings, then commercial use, then industrial use

Land that is zoned for a particular use may be used for the stated purpose or for any other higher use

Noncumulative - land may be used only for the purpose for which it was zoned

126
Q
A