Property Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the key elements and structure of freehold property transactions.

A

Freehold property transactions involve investigation of title, searches, contract preparation, exchange of contracts, and post-exchange activities.

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2
Q

What are the core knowledge areas of freehold real estate law and practice in the SQE2 Property Practice?

A

The core knowledge areas include investigation of registered and unregistered freehold titles, searches, contract preparation, exchange of contracts, and post-exchange activities.

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3
Q

How is the exchange of contracts typically conducted in freehold property transactions?

A

The exchange of contracts can be done in person, by post, or by phone using Law Society Formulas A, B, or C.

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4
Q

Define a Bona Fide Purchaser (BFP) in the context of property transactions.

A

A Bona Fide Purchaser is a buyer who purchases property in good faith, without notice of any defects in the seller’s title.

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5
Q

What are some key tasks performed by the buyer’s solicitor in the pre-contract stage of a freehold property transaction?

A

Tasks include ordering searches, raising queries with the seller, obtaining relevant transaction forms, considering surveys, confirming source of funds, and reviewing the contract.

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6
Q

How does the mutual signature of a contract impact a freehold property transaction?

A

Mutual signature of a contract makes the transaction legally binding between the buyer and the seller.

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7
Q

Describe the process of analysing an epitome of title and deducing ownership.

A

It involves tracing an unbroken chain of ownership back to a good root of title, meeting specific conditions like being at least 15 years old and dealing with the whole interest of the land.

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8
Q

Define Absolute title in the context of property ownership.

A

It is the strongest form of title indicating that the property is truly owned by the registered owner.

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9
Q

How can Qualified title be upgraded to Absolute title?

A

By providing missing documents/reservations, the Qualified title can be upgraded to Absolute title.

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10
Q

What are some common issues that could arise during a title investigation?

A

Defects in title such as missing deeds, title mistakes, or incomplete criteria for adverse possession can be problematic.

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11
Q

Do possessory title holders have clear ownership of the property?

A

No, possessory title holders are in occupation but the method of property acquisition is unclear.

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12
Q

Describe the steps involved in the completion stage of a property sale.

A

It includes the seller’s solicitor discharging the mortgage, transferring funds, executing the purchase deed, and ensuring mortgage redemption.

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13
Q

Describe the process of removing a notice unilaterally from the charges register.

A

Form UN4 is sent to Land Registry, who serves notice on beneficiary. If no objection within 15 business days, notice is removed. If objection persists, referral to land registry adjudicator may occur.

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14
Q

Define the purpose of pre-contract searches and enquiries in conveyancing.

A

Pre-contract searches and enquiries aim to gather essential information about the property to inform the buyer and ensure a smooth transaction, covering aspects like ownership, liabilities, restrictions, and potential issues.

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15
Q

How can failure to register easements by notice affect their enforceability in registered land?

A

Failure to register easements by notice can render them unenforceable, emphasizing the need to ensure the scope of easement is broad enough for the buyer’s intended use.

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16
Q

What is the significance of reporting to the client in the conveyancing process?

A

Reporting to the client ensures transparency and keeps them informed of the progress, findings, and any potential issues related to the property transaction.

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17
Q

Describe the importance of keeping the client up-to-date during the conveyancing process.

A

Keeping the client informed at regular intervals ensures transparency, allows for timely decision-making, and helps maintain a good client-solicitor relationship.

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18
Q

What are some essential searches that should be conducted in pre-contract searches and enquiries?

A

Essential searches include Land Registry searches, pre-contract enquiries form, local authority searches (LLC1 and CON29), CON29DW for water and sewerage assets, chancel repair search, and environmental search.

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19
Q

Describe the Law Society Conveyancing Protocol.

A

The Law Society Conveyancing Protocol provides guidelines for property transactions.

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20
Q

What is an interest-only mortgage?

A

An interest-only mortgage requires the borrower to pay only the interest and not the capital borrowed.

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21
Q

Define a fixed-rate mortgage.

A

A fixed-rate mortgage has an interest rate that remains constant for a specified period.

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22
Q

How does an offset mortgage work?

A

An offset mortgage links savings to reduce the amount of interest charged on the mortgage.

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23
Q

Do flexible mortgages allow borrowers to overpay or underpay the loan?

A

Yes, flexible mortgages allow borrowers to overpay or underpay the loan at certain intervals.

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24
Q

Describe a buy-to-let mortgage.

A

A buy-to-let mortgage is used for purchasing a property to be rented out rather than lived in.

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25
Q

Describe the purpose of special conditions in property transactions.

A

Special conditions are used to amend Standard Conditions and cover specific matters like encumbrances, tenancy, and additional repairs.

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26
Q

How is a deposit typically handled in property transactions upon exchange of contract?

A

A 10% deposit is usually paid by the buyer to the seller, and it can be held either as a stakeholder or by the seller’s solicitor as an agent.

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27
Q

Define stakeholder in the context of property transactions.

A

A stakeholder is a neutral party, often the seller’s solicitor, who holds the deposit on behalf of both the buyer and seller and cannot release it without consent from both parties.

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28
Q

How does the risk of the property transfer in a property transaction according to standard conditions?

A

The risk of the property passes to the buyer as of the contract date, requiring the buyer to insure the property.

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29
Q

What are the basics of VAT in property contracts?

A

Most property transactions are exempt from VAT, but leases and certain freehold transactions may be subject to VAT.

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30
Q

Describe the handling of insurance in property transactions according to the standard conditions.

A

The buyer is typically responsible for insuring the property, while the seller is not required to unless agreed upon. If the seller insures the property and damage occurs before completion, they must transfer the policy monies to the buyer.

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31
Q

Describe the timing for issuing a certificate of title to a lender.

A

The certificate of title should be completed and sent to the lender as soon as the completion date is known, typically at least the number of days of notice required by the lender before the funds can be released.

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32
Q

Define the certificate of title and its purpose in a property transaction.

A

The certificate of title confirms the validity of the title and is used to request the release of mortgage funds upon completion of a property transaction.

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33
Q

How can the exchange of contracts be carried out in a property transaction?

A

Exchange can be done in person, via post, or by telephone, following different formulas depending on the situation, such as Formula A, Formula B, or Formula C for chain transactions.

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34
Q

Describe the consequences of exchanging contracts in a property transaction.

A

Upon exchange, the beneficial interest of the property passes to the buyer while the seller retains the legal interest and acts as a trustee for the buyer, remaining in possession of the property.

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35
Q

What is the purpose of a transfer deed in a property transaction?

A

The transfer deed transfers ownership of a property and must be registered at the Land Registry to effectively transfer legal ownership to the buyer.

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36
Q

How are pre-completion searches conducted in a property transaction involving a mortgage?

A

The conveyancing solicitor follows standard instructions, including searches like a bankruptcy search (K16), as defined in the UK Finance Mortgage Lender’s Handbook, especially if the buyer is purchasing with a mortgage.

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37
Q

Define the methods of exchange in a property transaction.

A

Exchange can be done in person, via post, or by telephone, following different formulas like Formula A, Formula B, or Formula C for chain transactions.

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38
Q

Describe the pre-completion requirements for executing a transfer deed in a property transaction.

A

All parties must sign the prescribed form of transfer deed (e.g., TR1), with each signature witnessed by an independent witness who provides their signature, name, address, and occupation.

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39
Q

Describe the completion process in a real estate transaction.

A

Completion involves the buyer paying the balance of the purchase price, finalizing the deed, receiving keys and vacant possession.

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40
Q

What are the standard conditions regarding the completion date in a real estate contract?

A

Standard Conditions 6.1 typically set the completion date as 20 days after the contract date, with time not being of the essence unless a notice to complete is served.

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41
Q

How does the passing of title differ for registered and unregistered land in real estate transactions?

A

For registered land, title passes when registered at the Land Registry by the buyer’s solicitor, which can take a few weeks after completion. For unregistered land, title passes at completion.

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42
Q

Define the in-person method of completion in real estate transactions.

A

In-person completion involves a traditional meeting between the buyer’s and seller’s solicitors to finalize the transaction, transfer funds, and exchange necessary documents.

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43
Q

What are the post-completion steps typically carried out by the buyer’s solicitor in a real estate transaction?

A

Post-completion steps may include drafting the transfer deed, issuing requisitions, obtaining mortgage redemption figures, and preparing completion statements.

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44
Q

Describe the completion by post method in real estate transactions.

A

Completion by post is a preferred option for many transactions where the seller’s solicitors complete upon receiving the necessary funds, and final deeds and documents are sent to the buyer’s solicitor on the day of transfer.

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45
Q

Describe the remedies for delayed completion in a contract.

A

Remedies include common law damages, contractual compensation, and notice to complete.

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46
Q

What is the purpose of notice to complete in a contract?

A

Notice to complete is a mechanism to pressure a delayed party to complete the contract within a specified timeframe.

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47
Q

How is compensation for delay calculated in a contract?

A

Compensation is calculated at the daily contract rate, which can be agreed upon or based on the Law Society Interest Rate.

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48
Q

Define rescission in the context of a contract.

A

Rescission is the act of canceling a contract, where contractual compensation does not apply, and damages would need to be pursued.

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49
Q

Describe the consequences of failing to complete within the specified time in a contract.

A

If the buyer fails to complete, the seller can retain the deposit, claim damages, and resell the property. If the seller fails to complete, the buyer can seek specific performance or repayment of deposit and interest.

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50
Q

What documents/items need to be included when registering title on AP1 form within the priority period?

A

Documents/items include TR1 (TP1 for part of land), fee, DS1 (DS3 for part of land), new mortgage deed (if applicable), and MR01.

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51
Q

Describe the repair obligations in a lease agreement for landlords and tenants.

A

Landlords are usually responsible for structural repairs, shared parts, and the roof, while tenants are typically responsible for repairing the inside of the property.

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52
Q

What is the significance of amending the repair obligation from ‘to keep premises in repair’ to ‘to maintain the premises’ for tenants?

A

By amending the obligation, tenants are required to maintain the premises in the state they were taken on, rather than repairing them even if in poor condition.

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53
Q

Explain the importance of amending a clause that states repairs must be to the landlord’s satisfaction to refer to the surveyor’s satisfaction in a lease agreement.

A

This protects the tenant from potentially unreasonable repair standards set by the landlord.

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54
Q

Define the exclusions that should typically be included in the repair obligation of a lease agreement.

A

Exclusions should cover insured risks and fair wear and tear to avoid double compensation for the landlord and prevent tenants from being responsible for normal wear and tear.

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55
Q

Describe the general insurance requirements for landlords and tenants in a lease agreement.

A

Landlords are usually required to insure the property against risks and recover part of the premium from tenants, while tenants may request that insurance money be used for property reinstatement.

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56
Q

Explain the types of covenants related to alterations in lease agreements: absolute prohibition, qualified covenant, and fully qualified covenant.

A

Absolute prohibition prohibits tenants from making alterations, qualified covenant requires landlord consent, and fully qualified covenant allows alterations with reasonable landlord consent.

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57
Q

What does Section 3 of the LL and Tenancy Act 1927 provide for tenants regarding making improvements to a property with an absolute prohibition covenant?

A

It allows tenants to apply to court for authorization to make improvements despite the absolute prohibition in the lease.

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58
Q

Describe the legal implications of a qualified covenant in a lease agreement regarding alterations and the landlord’s consent.

A

A qualified covenant means the tenant can only make alterations with landlord consent, which can be withheld for any reason.

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59
Q

How does Section 19(2) of the LL and Tenancy Act 1927 impact covenants related to alterations in a lease agreement?

A

It upgrades alterations classified as improvements, from a qualified covenant to a fully qualified covenant, based on the tenant’s perspective.

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60
Q

Explain the absence of a legal obligation for landlords to provide a timely decision on alteration consents in a lease agreement.

A

Landlords are not legally required to make decisions promptly regarding tenant requests for alterations, as there is no specified timeframe for responding to such requests.

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61
Q

Describe the concept of rent review in leasehold properties.

A

Rent reviews in leasehold properties involve periodic increases in rent, typically at set intervals.

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62
Q

What are the three types of rent review in commercial leases?

A

The three types of rent review in commercial leases are open market, turnover, and stepped rent increases.

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63
Q

Define alienation in the context of leasing.

A

Alienation refers to the tenant transferring their interest in a lease through assigning or subletting.

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64
Q

How does the law regulate consent for transfer/sub-let of a lease in new commercial leases?

A

Section 19(1A) LTA 1927 allows landlords to stipulate circumstances where consent for transfer/sub-let may be refused without a reasonableness test.

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65
Q

What are the options for the term of a lease in terms of duration?

A

Leases can vary in length with no minimum or maximum term. Residential leases can range from very long leases of 999 years to commercial leases typically lasting 3-10 years.

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66
Q

Describe the registration requirement for leases exceeding a 7-year term.

A

Leases exceeding a 7-year term must be registered at the Land Registry to be legally recognized.

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67
Q

Describe the purpose of an agreement for lease in a real estate transaction.

A

It is a contract between a tenant and a landlord to agree on the terms of a future lease.

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68
Q

Define deduction of title in the context of leasing.

A

It refers to the process of verifying the landlord’s ownership rights before granting a lease, especially for leases of 7 years or more.

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69
Q

How are pre-contract enquiries and searches relevant in leasing?

A

They are essential to ensure that both parties have a clear understanding of the property’s status and any potential issues before finalizing the lease agreement.

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70
Q

Do both the landlord and the tenant need to agree on the lease terms before finalizing the lease?

A

Yes, both parties need to agree on the terms of the lease before it can be considered finalized.

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71
Q

Describe the role of the tenant’s solicitor in a leasing transaction involving a mortgaged property.

A

The tenant’s solicitor must check if the lender’s consent is required before the landlord can grant a lease on a mortgaged property.

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72
Q

What is the significance of having 2 copies of the lease prepared in a leasing transaction?

A

Having 2 copies ensures that both the landlord and the tenant have a signed copy of the lease for their records and reference.

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73
Q

Describe the privity of contract in lease assignment.

A

Privity contract exists between the outgoing tenant and the incoming tenant in a lease assignment due to the deed of assignment creating a contract between them.

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74
Q

What is privity of estate in a lease assignment?

A

Privity of estate in a lease assignment means that the landlord can sue on covenants that ‘touch and concern’ the land with the new tenant.

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75
Q

Define a licence to assign in the context of a lease transfer.

A

A licence to assign is a document signed by the landlord, outgoing tenant, and incoming tenant to create privity of contract in a lease assignment.

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76
Q

How are title deeds used in the assignment of a lease?

A

The assignee’s solicitor must obtain title deeds to review the existing lease details and the landlord’s reversion interest in the property.

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77
Q

What is the purpose of a deed of assignment in a lease transfer?

A

A deed of assignment is required to transfer a lease from one party to another in a lease assignment.

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78
Q

Describe the concept of authorised guarantee agreements (AGA) in lease assignments.

A

Authorised guarantee agreements are signed by outgoing tenants to remain liable for new tenants; once the new tenant assigns the lease, the original outgoing tenant is no longer liable.

This Authorized Guarantee Agreement (AGA) is made as of [Date], by and between [Landlord’s Name] (the “Landlord”) and [Original Tenant’s Name] (the “Guarantor”).

WHEREAS, the Landlord and [Assignee’s Name] (the “Assignee”) have entered into a lease agreement dated [Lease Date] (the “Lease”), concerning the premises located at [Property Address].

AND WHEREAS, the Guarantor has agreed to guarantee the performance by the Assignee of its obligations under the Lease.

NOW, THEREFORE, the parties agree as follows:

  1. The Guarantor guarantees to the Landlord the performance by the Assignee of all obligations, covenants, and conditions contained in the Lease.
  2. This guarantee shall remain in effect until the Assignee lawfully assigns the Lease to another party, and the Landlord provides written consent to such assignment.
  3. The Guarantor’s liability under this AGA shall be co-extensive with that of the Assignee.
  4. This AGA shall be governed by and construed in accordance with the laws of [Jurisdiction].
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79
Q

Describe the purpose of a licence to assign/underlet in a lease agreement.

A

A licence to assign/underlet is the landlord’s permission for a tenant to assign or underlet a lease to a new tenant.

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80
Q

How is privity of contract addressed in a licence to assign/underlet?

A

A licence to assign/underlet creates privity of contract between the landlord and the new tenant, enabling them to pursue each other for any breaches.

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81
Q

Define the key provisions typically included in a licence to assign.

A

Key provisions in a licence to assign may include clarifying that the landlord’s consent is specific to the assignment, the assignee agreeing to lease covenants, and the tenant agreeing to pay costs.

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82
Q

What is the purpose of a licence to sub-let in a lease agreement?

A

A licence to sub-let allows a tenant to sub-let part of the leased property to a sub-tenant with the landlord’s permission.

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83
Q

Describe the liability on covenants in leases granted before 1 January 1996.

A

In leases granted before 1 January 1996, the original tenant remains liable for breaches of covenants even after assigning the lease to a new tenant.

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84
Q

How does a licence to assign differ from an authorised guarantee agreement (AGA)?

A

A licence to assign grants permission for a tenant to assign the lease, while an AGA deals with the previous tenant’s obligations and liabilities after assignment.

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85
Q

Describe the process of Commercial Rent Arars Recovery under a commercial lease.

A

LL can seize goods owned by T to the value of unpaid rent after serving notice, with an enforcement agent seizing and selling the goods to repay the rent.

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86
Q

Define specific performance in the context of landlord-tenant relationships.

A

Specific performance is a court order that compels a tenant to fulfill their obligations, such as repairs, as outlined in the lease agreement.

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87
Q

How can a landlord pursue guarantors and rent deposits in case of unpaid rent by the tenant?

A

LL can pursue guarantors under the guarantee terms or retain the deposit for damages, repairs, or unpaid rent.

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88
Q

What is the significance of the self-help/Jervis v Harris clause in landlord-tenant relationships?

A

It allows the landlord to enter the premises and remedy breaches themselves instead of waiting for specific performance, with the ability to sue the tenant for costs incurred.

89
Q

Describe the limitations on damages that a landlord can claim under section 18 of LTA 1927.

A

Damages cannot exceed the reduction in value of the LL’s reversion caused by the tenant’s breach, limiting the compensation available to the landlord.

90
Q

How does a lease typically terminate due to effluxion of time?

A

The lease ends when the pre-agreed term expires, requiring no further action from either party, and the tenant must vacate the premises.

91
Q

Explain the concept of notice to quit in the context of periodic tenancies.

A

In periodic tenancies, tenants can terminate the lease by giving notice, such as one month’s notice for a monthly tenancy.

92
Q

What options does a landlord have when a tenant breaches a covenant that causes damage to the property?

A

The landlord can sue for damages, but the value may be limited by the reduction in the value of the LL’s interest as per section 18 of LTA 1927.

93
Q

Describe the process for a tenant to request a new lease under the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954.

A

The tenant can serve a notice on the landlord terminating the current lease and requesting a new lease, following specific timing and form requirements.

94
Q

What does Section 26 of the LTA 1954 regulate?

A

Section 26 governs a tenant’s request for a new tenancy, specifying the timing, form, and conditions for making such a request.

95
Q

Define the term ‘business’ as per Section 23 of the LTA 1954.

A

In the context of the LTA 1954, ‘business’ includes a trade, profession, employment, or any activity conducted by a group of individuals, whether incorporated or not.

96
Q

How can a landlord oppose a tenant’s request for a new lease?

A

The landlord can serve a counter-notice within 2 months of the tenant’s request, stating their grounds for opposing the renewal.

97
Q

Describe the parties’ application to court process under the LTA 1954.

A

Either the tenant or the landlord can apply to court for a new lease or to oppose the granting of a new lease under specific circumstances and timelines.

98
Q

What is the significance of Section 25 of the LTA 1954?

A

Section 25 deals with the termination of a tenancy by the landlord, outlining different types of terminations and the process for opposing a tenant’s application for a new lease.

99
Q

Describe the process when a tenant requests a new tenancy and the parties cannot agree on the terms.

A

The court may order the terms of the new lease, typically keeping the premises the same, setting a term of 14 years or less, determining rent based on the market, and specifying a timeframe for the new tenancy to take effect.

100
Q

Define interim rate in the context of negotiating a new lease.

A

Interim rate is the rent paid by the tenant at the old rate while negotiations for a new lease are ongoing; parties can apply to the court to determine an interim rent if negotiations are prolonged.

101
Q

How is rent determined when a landlord is objecting to a new lease for a tenant?

A

If the landlord objects to a new lease, the rent will typically be set at 10-15% below the market rate.

102
Q

What compensation is a tenant entitled to if the landlord objects to a new tenancy based on a no-fault ground?

A

The tenant is entitled to compensation, which varies based on the length of the lease term and whether the premises were occupied for more than 14 years.

103
Q

Describe the statutory requirements for notices under sections 25 and 26 of the LTA 1954.

A

Notices under sections 25 and 26 must be in a prescribed form, free of errors causing doubt, and served according to lease provisions to be considered valid.

104
Q

Do tenants have the option to terminate a lease instead of requesting a new tenancy or extending the current one?

A

Yes, tenants can terminate a lease by serving a notice at least 3 months before they wish to leave, and this notice need not be in a prescribed form.

105
Q

How does the LTA 1954 handle compensation for various grounds of termination by the tenant?

A

The LTA 1954 specifies that no compensation is due for grounds such as disrepair, persistent rent delays, breaches of obligations, providing alternative accommodation, or subleasing that prevents disposal, with compensation based on the rateable value for leases under 14 years.

106
Q

What is the significance of the rateable value in determining compensation under the LTA 1954?

A

The rateable value, established by the valuation list in force at the time of serving notices under sections 25 and 26, plays a crucial role in calculating compensation for tenants based on the length of the lease term and occupancy duration.

107
Q

Describe the statutory definition of ‘Development’ according to the Town and Country Planning Act 1990.

A

The definition includes building, engineering, mining, or other operations on or under land, as well as any material change in the use of buildings or land.

108
Q

What are some examples of ‘Building operations’ as defined in the Town and Country Planning Act 1990?

A

Examples include demolition, rebuilding, structural alterations, and additions to buildings, among other operations typically done by a builder.

109
Q

Define ‘Permitted developments’ as per the Town and Country Planning (General Permitted Development) (England) Order 2015.

A

Permitted developments are those that do not require planning permission and are outlined in the GDPO 15, including specific rights for residential and commercial properties.

110
Q

How does the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 specify matters that do not constitute ‘Development’?

A

It lists scenarios such as interior works not affecting external appearance, use of land for agriculture or forestry, and incidental use of land within a dwelling house, among others.

111
Q

Describe the significance of Building regulation control in relation to works on buildings.

A

All building works must comply with building regulations to ensure safety, energy efficiency, and other standards are met.

112
Q

What are some examples of ‘Permitted development rights’ within a residential property according to the GDPO 15?

A

Examples include enlargements, improvements, adding storeys, altering the roof, adding porches, chimneys, and buildings incidental to property enjoyment like a pool house.

113
Q

Describe the purpose of an Enforcement Notice in relation to planning laws.

A

An Enforcement Notice is issued by the council to order that a property is changed back to its previous condition to ensure compliance with planning laws.

114
Q

Define Stamp Duty Land Tax (SDLT) and its application when purchasing property.

A

SDLT is a tax payable upon completion of property purchase, with rates based on the property value. Different rates apply for first-time buyers and those purchasing additional properties.

115
Q

How does a Stop Notice differ from an Enforcement Notice in the context of planning laws?

A

A Stop Notice is issued by the council to halt any works that are in breach of planning laws, while an Enforcement Notice orders the property to be changed back to its previous condition.

116
Q

Describe the purpose of a Planning Contravention Notice and when it is typically issued by the council.

A

A Planning Contravention Notice is a request for information by the council to understand works or changes undertaken, usually to determine if issuing an Enforcement Notice is justified.

117
Q

How do the time limits for taking action differ based on the type of planning violation in the UK?

A

Time limits vary, such as 4 years for no planning permission, 10 years for no permission for change of use, and 10 years for breach of condition within planning permission.

118
Q

Define the additional 3% charge on Stamp Duty Land Tax (SDLT) rates for purchasing a second property in England and Wales.

A

When buying a second property, an additional 3% is applied on top of the general SDLT rates, based on the property value.

119
Q

Describe the time limit for local authorities to issue an enforcement notice for infringement of building regulations under the Building Act 1984.

A

Local authorities must issue an enforcement notice within 12 months of completion of work constituting an infringement, with prosecution for breach possible within 2 years of completion.

120
Q

How do the SDLT rates vary based on the property value when purchasing a property in the UK?

A

SDLT rates vary, with percentages ranging from 0% for properties up to a certain value, to 12% for the portion of the property value above a certain threshold.

121
Q

Explain the implications of the SDLT rates when the property price exceeds £625,000 in the UK.

A

If the property price is above £625,000, no relief is available, and the SDLT rates apply as per the standard percentages based on the property value.

122
Q

Describe how Stamp Duty Land Tax (SDLT) is calculated for purchasing a new lease with a nominal rent.

A

SDLT is due on the premium only when there is a nominal rent, such as a peppercorn, with a rate of 0% for properties under a certain threshold.

123
Q

Define net present value in the context of SDLT for new leases with more than a nominal rent.

A

Net present value is the value of the rent payable over the terms of the lease, and SDLT is due on both the premium and the net present value above the threshold.

124
Q

How is VAT charged and paid by businesses in the UK?

A

Businesses charge VAT (output tax) on goods or services and pay tax when buying supplies (input tax). Any excess VAT collected must be paid to HMRC, while shortfalls are repaid by HMRC.

125
Q

Describe the differences between standard, exempt, and zero-rated supplies for VAT.

A

Standard supplies are taxed at 20%, exempt supplies do not have VAT applied, and zero-rated supplies are taxed at 0%, including items like books, baby clothes, and cycle helmets.

126
Q

Do businesses need to check the government website for the latest VAT rates and SDLT thresholds?

A

Yes, businesses should always verify the current rates on the government website to ensure compliance with the most up-to-date regulations.

127
Q

Define Stamp Duty Land Tax (SDLT) and its application to non-residential freehold properties.

A

SDLT is a tax on property transactions in the UK, and for non-residential freehold properties, the rates vary based on the property or lease premium value.

128
Q

Describe the difference between exempt and 0-rated.

A

With0-rated VAT, can be reclaimed even though no tax was paid; with exempt items, it is not possible to reclaim.

129
Q

What is the basis of charge for Capital Gains Tax?

A

Capital gains tax is payable on disposal of an asset that has increased in value.

130
Q

Define the principal private dwelling-house exemption for Capital Gains Tax.

A

Capital gains tax is not payable when a home is sold under specific conditions, such as being the main residence and not used for business purposes.

131
Q

How does opting to charge VAT benefit a client in terms of reclaiming VAT?

A

Any VAT paid can be offset against the VAT charged, and if the VAT paid exceeds the VAT charged, the client may receive money back from HMRC.

132
Q

Describe the transactions that may be subject to VAT in property dealings.

A

Leases, freehold transactions (residential and commercial), and newer residential properties are subject to VAT.

133
Q

What are the applicable rates for Capital Gains Tax for basic rate taxpayers and higher rate taxpayers?

A

Basic rate taxpayers pay 18% on property and 10% on other assets, while higher rate taxpayers pay 28%.

134
Q

What is the deadline for reporting and paying Capital Gains Tax to HMRC after a sale?

A

Capital gains tax must be reported and paid to HMRC usually within 60 days of the sale.

135
Q

Describe the distinction between real property and personal property in land law.

A

Real property refers to immovable property like land, while personal property includes movable items and intangibles.

136
Q

Define a freehold estate in land law.

A

A freehold estate grants ownership of land in perpetuity.

137
Q

How do equitable owners differ from legal owners in land law?

A

Equitable owners have a financial interest in the property and cannot transfer legal title, while legal owners have complete and permanent ownership.

138
Q

Do joint owners in land law hold the property on trust for each other?

A

Yes, joint owners in different proportions are said to hold the property on trust for one another in the agreed proportions.

139
Q

Describe the requirements of a deed in land law according to the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989.

A

A deed must be signed in the presence of witnesses, say on its face that it is a deed, and be delivered as a deed.

140
Q

Explain the exceptions to the requirement of a deed for creating legal rights in land law.

A

Short leases, less than a certain duration, can be created without a deed in land law.

141
Q

Describe the nature of equitable interests and who they bind, except for BFP.

A

Equitable interests bind everyone except BFP (Bona Fide Purchaser).

142
Q

How can equitable interests arise by failure to comply with formalities in land transactions?

A

Equitable interests can arise when an interest, though within the law, was not created by deed as required or when a deed-created interest was not registered when it should have been.

143
Q

Define the primary method of protecting third party rights in registered land and its effect.

A

Notices are the primary method of protecting third party rights in registered land. Interests stated as notices take precedence over subsequent buyers.

144
Q

What are the types of notice that can bind BFPs in unregistered land transactions?

A

The types of notice are actual notice, constructive notice, and imputed notice.

145
Q

Explain the criteria for overreaching a beneficial interest in land transactions.

A

To overreach a beneficial interest, the buyer must purchase the legal estate, pay money to all trustees, and involve at least two trustees.

146
Q

Describe the provision under s 27 LPA 1925 regarding the purchase of land from trustees.

A

Under s 27 LPA 1925, if purchase monies are paid to at least 2 trustees, the purchaser need not enquire about the trusts affecting the land and will take the land free of trusts.

147
Q

Describe the types of transactions that require protection of interests in land registration.

A

Transactions like granting a lease for more than 7 years, assigning a lease with over 7 years left, and granting a first legal mortgage.

148
Q

How can interests in land registration be protected through Notices?

A

Interests can be protected by entering them in the register as a Notice, which is an entry in the register of the burden of an interest affecting a registered estate.Notice of Restriction: If you want to limit or control dealings with the property (e.g., to prevent a sale without consent), a restriction notice would be appropriate. Restrictions often appear in the Proprietorship Register.
Notice of Charge: If a lender wants to secure a loan against the property, a notice of charge would be entered in the Charges Register. This is typical for mortgages or other secured debts.
Notice of Easement: If someone has a right of way or other easement over the property, this can be noted in the Property Register or sometimes in the Charges Register, depending on how the easement was created.

Notice of Restriction: If you want to limit or control dealings with the

149
Q

Define Agreed Notice in the context of land registration.

A

An Agreed Notice is an entry in the register that requires consent from the relevant proprietor and evidence of the validity of the claimed interest.

150
Q

What is a Unilateral Notice in land registration?

A

A Unilateral Notice is a notice made by a person claiming to be entitled to an interest affecting the registered estate without the consent of the proprietor.

151
Q

How can a Unilateral Notice be cancelled in land registration?

A

A Unilateral Notice can be cancelled by either removal under LRA 2002 or cancellation under section 36 of the Land Registration Act.

152
Q

Explain the concept of ‘prove it or lose it’ in land registration.

A

This concept refers to the requirement for the validity of an underlying right to be proven when challenging a Unilateral Notice, or else the Notice may be eliminated from the register.

153
Q

What are interests that override registration in land registration?

A

Interests like registered charges, those in Schedule 3, and notices in the register override registration and take precedence even if not on the registry.

154
Q

How can a Unilateral Notice be deleted from the register in land registration?

A

A Unilateral Notice can be removed by withdrawal if the registrar is satisfied, or cancelled through a process where the validity of the underlying right is challenged.

155
Q

Describe the main interests to look out for as per Schedule 3 in relation to registered land.

A

Leases granted for 7 years or less, interests of someone in actual occupation, express legal easements, implied legal easements.

156
Q

What are the core principles of unregistered title to land?

A

Role of title deeds, interests that override first registration, third party rights, land charges.

157
Q

Define title deeds in the context of land ownership.

A

Documents proving ownership of land/property, including root of title and ownership history.

158
Q

How does the Land Charges Act 1972 classify land charges?

A

Into six classes (A to F) based on the nature of the interests in land.

159
Q

Do land charges need to be registered for a purchaser to be bound by them?

A

Yes, a purchaser has constructive notice of registry, and if not registered, the purchaser may not be bound regardless of actual knowledge.

160
Q

Describe the process of analysing an epitome of title and deducing ownership in real estate law.

A

It involves investigating a registered or unregistered freehold title to understand the ownership through a series of title deeds and documents.

161
Q

What interests in land can be protected by notice as third party rights?

A

Legal and equitable charges, estate contracts, freehold restrictive covenants, charges under Family Law Act 1996, leases over 7 years, bankruptcy entries, and charging orders affecting legal estate.

162
Q

Describe the differences between joint tenancy and tenancy in common in law and equity.

A

Joint tenancy involves co-ownership where each owner owns everything, while tenancy in common treats co-owners as having separate shares.

163
Q

Define ‘unity of possession’ in the context of joint tenancy.

A

Unity of possession means there can be no physical division, and each owner has the right to fully participate in the fruits of possession.

164
Q

How can joint tenancies be severed?

A

Joint tenancies can be severed by notice in writing, mutual agreement, or by an act operating on one’s own share like a sale or mortgage.

165
Q

What is the ‘right of survivorship’ in co-ownership?

A

The right of survivorship means that upon the death of a joint tenant, the entire estate continues to be held by the surviving joint tenants.

166
Q

Describe the application of Trusts of Land & Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 in solving disagreements between co-owners.

A

The Act applies to all trusts concerning land from 1 January 1997 and provides mechanisms to resolve disputes among co-owners.

167
Q

What are the trustee’s duties in relation to the exercise of general powers according to TOLATA 96?

A

The trustee must have regard to the rights of beneficiaries, not contravene any rule of law or equity, and act in the beneficiaries’ best interest.

168
Q

Describe the essential characteristics of easements.

A

Easements are non-possessory, non-security rights in land that allow one landowner to make use of another nearby piece of land for the benefit of their own land.

169
Q

Define a positive easement and provide an example.

A

A positive easement is the right to use someone else’s land in a particular way. For example, a right of way across a neighbor’s property.

170
Q

Explain what a negative easement is and give an example of one.

A

A negative easement is a right to prevent a neighbor from doing something on their land. An example is a right to prevent a neighbor from blocking your access to light.

171
Q

What are the parties involved in an easement, and what are their roles?

A

The dominant tenement receives the right to use or prevent, while the servient tenement is subject to the dominant’s rights.

172
Q

How is an easement created through express grant or reservation?

A

An easement can be created through express grant or reservation by clearly stating the rights in a legal document like a conveyance or transfer of land.

173
Q

Describe the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows for implied easements.

A

Under the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows, easements can be implied into a transfer of part comprising the dominant tenement if they were continuous, apparent, necessary for reasonable enjoyment, and in use at the time of sale.

174
Q

Explain the concept of appurtenant easements.

A

Once an easement is validly created, it will be appurtenant, meaning it benefits subsequent owners without needing to be renewed for the benefited land.

175
Q

What are the types of negative easements and what are they restricted to?

A

Negative easements are restricted to rights to light, air, support, and water, while anything else would be considered a restrictive covenant.

176
Q

Describe the criteria for an easement to be established through prescription.

A

The easement must have been exercised as of right, by one freehold owner against another, and continuously.

177
Q

Define the Doctrine of lost modern grant in relation to easements.

A

It refers to the situation where a right has been exercised for 20 years, and the presumption of its existence is not rebuttable.

178
Q

How can an easement be extinguished according to the content?

A

An easement can be extinguished through express release, abandonment, effluxion of time, alteration of dominant land, loss to another by prescription, or expropriation under statute.

179
Q

Describe the distinction between legal and equitable easements.

A

Legal easements are in perpetuity or for a certain term, created formally, and bind subsequent purchasers. Equitable easements have an uncertain term, are not formally created, and must be registered to be enforceable.

180
Q

Do all easements bind purchasers in registered land?

A

No, in registered land, easements only bind purchasers if noted on title, within the knowledge of the buyer, obvious, or used 12 months prior.

181
Q

Explain the difference between the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows and section 62 in relation to easements.

A

Section 62 operates when there is a conveyance, while Wheeldon applies when there is only a contract. Both deal with the creation of easements.

182
Q

Describe the period during which a certain order is effective.

A

The period during which an order is effective refers to the duration in which the order remains valid and enforceable.

183
Q

Define freehold covenants.

A

Freehold covenants are promises made under a deed by the freehold owner of a legal estate regarding the use or non-use of their land in specific ways.

184
Q

How can the benefit of freehold covenants be passed in law and equity?

A

The benefit of freehold covenants can be passed in both law and equity if certain conditions are met, such as touching and concerning the land, intention to run with the land, and the original covenantee holding the legal estate.

185
Q

What is the Doctrine of Mutual Benefit and Burden in property law?

A

The Doctrine of Mutual Benefit and Burden states that if a purchaser accepts certain benefits under a conveyance, they cannot avoid the associated burdens of a covenant.

186
Q

Describe the distinction between passing the burden of positive covenants in law and equity.

A

In law, the burden of positive covenants cannot pass and the original covenantor remains liable. In equity, the burden may pass under specific conditions like the covenant being negative in nature and touching the covenantee’s land.

187
Q

What is the purpose of a chain of indemnity covenants in property law?

A

A chain of indemnity covenants is used to protect the original covenantor against subsequent breaches of covenant by having each successor in the chain take out an indemnity covenant.

188
Q

How can the burden of freehold covenants pass in equity?

A

The burden of freehold covenants can pass in equity if the covenant is negative, the covenantee owned the benefited land at the time of the covenant, the covenant touches and concerns the covenantee’s land, and there is proper notice and registration.

189
Q

Describe the Party Wall Act 1996.

A

The Party Wall Act 1996 regulates the process of carrying out certain works to party walls or structures in adjoining buildings, requiring written notice and adherence to specific rules.

190
Q

What are the ways of circumventing the burden not running in law for freehold covenants?

A

One way is through a chain of indemnity covenants, where the original covenantor remains liable but takes out indemnity covenants to protect against subsequent breaches, although this method may have limitations.

191
Q

Describe the roles of mortgag and mortgagee in a mortgage agreement.

A

Mortgagor refers to the borrower, while mortgagee refers to the lender in a mortgage agreement.

192
Q

Define the creation of mortgages and the two ways they can be established.

A

Mortgages can be created by granting a long lease (mortgage by demise) or by executing a charge by way of legal mortgage.

193
Q

How are mortgages protected in unregistered land versus registered land?

A

In unregistered land, mortgages are protected by deposit of title or registration of a land charge. In registered land, they are protected by notice on the charges register.

194
Q

What are some rights of the mortgagor (borrower) in a mortgage agreement?

A

Rights of the mortgagor include the right to redeem, grant leases, possess the property, and bring legal proceedings.

195
Q

What rights does the mortgagee (lender) have in a mortgage agreement?

A

The mortgagee has rights to possession, insurance, and remedies such as foreclosure and sale of the property.

196
Q

Describe the process of foreclosure in a mortgage agreement.

A

Foreclosure is the process where the mortgagee takes possession of the property due to defaults in mortgage repayments, usually requiring a court order. Any surplus from a sale does not have to be repaid to the mortgagor.

197
Q

Describe the priority of further advances over subsequent mortgages in registered land according to s 49 LRA 2002.

A

Further advances take precedence when there is no notice of subsequent charge, consent from subsequent mortgagee, or an obligation to make further advance entered in the register.

198
Q

Define the formalities required for creating leases.

A

Leases must be created by deed.

199
Q

How does registration affect leases over 7 years according to S. 4 LRA 2002 and S. 27 LRA 2002?

A

Leases over 7 years must be registered; failure to register results in no legal estate, but a contract to grant a legal lease.

200
Q

Describe the relationship between a landlord (LL) and a tenant (T) in a lease.

A

The relationship is governed by contract law, LPA 1925, and LL-T regulations to prevent exploitation of tenants.

201
Q

Define the essential characteristics of a lease and differentiate it from a licence.

A

Essential characteristics of a lease include exclusive possession, a certain period of time, and rent or consideration; a lease is a legal estate, while a licence is a right in personam.

202
Q

What are the defining areas of law that govern the relationship between a landlord and a tenant in a lease?

A

The relationship is governed by contract law, LPA 1925, and LL-T regulations to prevent exploitation of tenants.

203
Q

How does uncertainty impact the validity of a lease?

A

A lease will fail if there is uncertainty regarding commencement and duration; a clear date of commencement is essential for a lease.

204
Q

Describe the difference between a lease and a licence in terms of enforceability.

A

A lease constitutes a right in rem enforceable against the whole world, while a licence is a right in personam usually enforceable against only one person.

205
Q

What is the significance of the lease/licence distinction?

A

The distinction is important as leases grant broader rights in rem, while licences are more limited rights in personam.

206
Q

Describe the concept of privity of contract in property law.

A

Privity of contract allows parties to a contract to pursue one another for breaches of the contract.

207
Q

Explain the concept of privity of estate in property law.

A

Privity of estate allows parties with a direct grantor-grantee relationship in property matters to pursue one another for breaches of covenants that ‘touch and concern’ the land.

208
Q

What is the impact of privity of contract and privity of estate in landlord-tenant relationships?

A

Landlord-tenant relationships involve privity of contract and privity of estate, where different parties have different legal relationships and obligations.

209
Q

Define the passing of the benefit and burden of leasehold covenants in property law.

A

The passing of the benefit and burden of leasehold covenants refers to how rights and responsibilities under a lease agreement are transferred between parties.

210
Q

How does the passing of the burden of leasehold covenants work for old leases granted before 1996?

A

For old leases granted before 1996, the original tenant remains liable under the doctrine of privity of contract, and the burden of covenant binds the assignee if it touches and concerns the land.

211
Q

Describe the passing of the benefit of leasehold covenants for new leases granted after 1996.

A

For new leases granted after 1996, the incoming landlord takes the benefit and burden of all covenants from the date of transfer, while the outgoing landlord retains the right to sue for existing breaches.

212
Q

Explain the role of an Authorised Guarantee Agreement (AGA) in leasehold covenants.

A

An AGA is a legal agreement where an outgoing tenant agrees to remain liable for the lease obligations, and it is only valid between the parties who enter into it.

213
Q

How does the passing of the burden of leasehold covenants work for new leases granted after 1996?

A

For new leases granted after 1996, the outgoing tenant is released from all liability under tenant covenants, and the incoming tenant becomes liable for all tenant covenants, which do not necessarily have to touch and concern the land.

214
Q

Describe the covenant related to insurance in a lease agreement.

A

The tenant must insure the building.

215
Q

What does the covenantnot to deny LL’s title’ entail in a lease agreement?

A

If the tenant denies the landlord’s title, the landlord has the automatic right to forfeit the lease.

216
Q

Explain the covenant of alienation in a lease agreement.

A

It may prohibit the tenant from assigning or subleasing the property, with a qualified prohibition where the landlord cannot unreasonably refuse consent.

217
Q

What is the significance of the covenant to keep premises in repair in a lease agreement?

A

The tenant is obligated to maintain the premises in good repair.

218
Q

Define the covenant regarding restrictions on alterations in a lease agreement.

A

It may limit the tenant’s ability to make alterations to the property without the landlord’s consent.