Property Flashcards

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1
Q

What are four types of landlord-tenant estates?

A
  1. Tenancy for years
  2. Periodic tenancy
  3. Tenancy at will
  4. Tenancy at sufferance
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2
Q

Which covenant is a promise by the landlord not to interfere with the tenant’s possession of the leased premises?

How is this breached?

A

The implied covenant of quiet enjoyment, which is implied in every lease.

This warranty is breached only when the conduct of the landlord or someone with superior title prevents the tenant from possessing the leased premises.

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3
Q

How do wild crops differ from cultivated crops when it comes to property?

A

Wild, uncultivated crops (i.e., fructus naturales) are considered part of the real property on which they grow, so they pass automatically with the land. Crops that are purposely planted and cultivated (i.e., fructus industriales) are considered the landowner’s personal property and, similarly, are generally conveyed with the land. However, the prior owner has the right to reenter to remove these crops if they were:

  • harvested and therefore severed from the land
  • ripe (i.e., mature) and therefore deemed constructively severed from the land (in some courts) or
  • planted by a tenant with a lease of uncertain duration or an adverse possessor under a claim of right.*
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4
Q

When analyzing facts concerning a party’s liability for changing the flow of surface water, what three theories should you consider?

A
  1. Common Enemy
  2. Natural Flow
  3. Reasonable Use
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5
Q

If a buyer is purchasing property using an installment land contract, when does she obtain legal title?

A

Buyer obtains legal title upon final payment under the installment payment plan.

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6
Q

What are the three common types of concurrent estates? What unities are required for each?

A
  1. Tenancy in common: Unity of possession
  2. Joint tenancy: Unities of possession, interest, time, and title (“PITT”)
  3. Tenancy by the entirety: Unities of person, possession, interest, time, and title
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7
Q

As between an assignee and a sublessee, who is in privity of estate with the landlord and thus liable to the landlord for rent and other covenants in the lease?

A

An assignee is in privity of estate with the landlord, and thus he is liable to the landlord for the rent and any other covenants in the lease.

However, if the assignee reassigns the leasehold to a subsequent tenant, then the privity of estate with the landlord ends and the initial assignee is no longer liable to the landlord based on privity of estate.

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8
Q

In a lien jx, what happens when a tenant in common takes out a mortgage (without the other tenant in common) and then dies?

A

The mortgage extinguishes, because the dead tenant in common’s interest in the property disappears (as it was absorbed by the survivor).

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9
Q

Explain the two doctrines that govern the rights that a land owner has to take or use water from a watercourse that flows through or adjacent to the owner’s land?

A

Reasonable-use: Favored in the eastern U.S. and allows the owner to make any reasonable use of the water. Water rights cannot be sold or transferred separately.

Prior-appropriation: Favored in the western U.S. and states that water rights are determined by priority of beneficial use (first in time, first in right). Water rights can be sold or transferred separately.

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10
Q

In most states, there is a rebuttable presumption that a conveyance to two or more persons creates what kind of tenancy?

A

Tenancy in common (which requires only the unity of possession).

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11
Q

For a deed to be effective, what must the grantor and grantee do?

A

In general a deed transfers title only when
1. The grantor INTENDS to convey an interest,
2. The grantor DELIVERS a deed to the grantee, AND
3. The grantee ACCEPTS the deed.

Tip: When comparing and contrasting questions about delivery, always look to facts indicating the grantor’s INTENT.

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12
Q

What is the type of priority purchase money mortgages have, and what does it mean?

A

Purchase money mortgages have super priority over all other liens– whether or not the PMM or those liens are recorded– because PMMs secure the purchase price of the mortgaged property.

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13
Q

What is required to get an exception to a zoning ordinance when the ordinance includes a special exception permitting a particular future use of property when a special-use permit is obtained?

A

If a property owner complies with the procedures for obtaining a special use permit and establishes entitlement to that permit, the responsible government agency must issue the permit.

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14
Q

What two possible components denote a contingent remainder?

A

The remainder is created in an unascertainable grantee,

OR

if it is subject to a condition precedent to the grantee’s taking.

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15
Q

What are the two types of mortgages?

A
  1. Purchase money mortgage: A person takes out a loan for the purpose of purchasing property
  2. Future advance mortgage: A line of credit used for home equity, construction, business, and commercial loans (“second mortgage”)
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16
Q

How do the remedies available for breach of a real covenant differ from the remedies available for breach of an equitable servitude?

A

The remedy for breach of a real covenant is money damages, while the remedy for breach of an equitable servitude is an injunction.

Tip: When deciding whether to analyze facts under a real covenant analysis or an equitable servitude analysis, note what the party is seeking (damages or an injunction).

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17
Q

What future interest, held by a third party, is not a remainder, and generally cuts short the prior interest upon the occurrence of a specified condition?

A

An executory interest

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18
Q

What is a charitable trust?

A

A charitable trust is one with a stated charitable purpose made to benefit the community at large or a particular segment of the community. As a result, the trust beneficiaries must be reasonably numerous and unidentifiable

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19
Q

What happens when a casualty occurs during the time between execution of a land-sale contract and closing, and the seller is carrying insurance?

A

Any insurance proceeds the seller receives must be credited against the buyer’s purchase price.

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20
Q

What remedies does a tenant have when a landlord breaches the warranty of habitability?

A

If the premises are not habitable, then the tenant may choose to:

  1. Refuse to pay rent
  2. Remedy the defect and offset the cost against rent
  3. Defend against eviction
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21
Q

Does the merger doctrine apply to mortgages?

A

Most jurisdictions have adopted the position that the merger doctrine does not apply to mortgages. Instead, a mortgagee that receives a deed in lieu of foreclosure is treated as having impliedly retained the right to foreclose on its mortgage– unless it had actual notice of a junior lien. If so, the mortgagee cannot foreclose on its mortgage to eliminate that junior lien.

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22
Q

Who bears the risk of loss if real property is destroyed between execution of a land-sale contract and closing?

A

In most states, the buyer bears the risk of loss (regardless of whether the buyer takes possession of the property), except when the loss is due to seller’s intentional or negligent actions (then seller bears risk).

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23
Q

What is the intermediate theory of mortgages?

A

Under the intermediate theory of mortgages, a mortgagor is entitled to possession until default, at which time the lender acquires legal title to the mortgaged property.

In contrast, under the majority rule lien theory, the lender cannot take possession prior to foreclosure, whereas under the minority title theory, the lender may take possession at any time.

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24
Q

How is the Doctrine of Ancient Lights treated in the US?

A

The English common-law Doctrine of Ancient Lights enabled landowners to protect their right to light by preventing neighbors from building any structure that blocked the landowner’s access to sunlight. This doctrine has been rejected in the United States. As a result, landowners can only restrict another’s blockage of light if they are protected by statute or enter into an agreement with the neighboring landowner to create a negative easement.

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25
Q

A landlord’s failure to comply with applicable housing code requirements is evidence of a breach of which warranty?

A

The implied warranty of habitability, which applies to residential leases and is nonwaivable.

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26
Q

After a mortgaged property is sold at a foreclosure sale, in what order are the proceeds distributed to different stakeholders? (Identify at least four.)

A
  1. Proceeds are used to pay any costs related to the sale.
  2. The party who foreclosed on the property is paid, up to the amount outstanding on its mortgage interest.
  3. If any money remains, any junior interests are paid in order of their priority.
  4. If any money remains, the mortgagor is paid.
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27
Q

What is the difference between a sublease and an assignment?

A

An assignment is a complete transfer of a tenant’s remaining lease term; a transfer of less than that is a sublease.

Tip: If the tenant retains a reversionary interest in the leasehold, then the transfer is a sublease.

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28
Q

What does it mean if a remainder is subject to a condition precedent?

A

The condition must first be met or satisfied for a remainderman to ever take possession.

Example: Carlos conveys his bakery “to A for life, then to B if B eats cake every day for one year.” B’s remainder is contingent because she must eat cake every day for one year before she can take possession.

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29
Q

What are the three requirements in a land sale contract to satisfy the Statute of Frauds?

A

It must be in writing, signed by the party to be charged, AND contain all essential terms (parties, description of property, price/payment info).

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30
Q

In a lien theory state (which is the majority), a mortgage interest is treated as a lien that does not affect a joint tenancy until foreclosure. What does a mortgage do to a joint tenancy in a title theory state?

A

In a title theory state, the joint tenancy is severed upon the granting of the mortgage, and the interest is converted into a tenancy in common.

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31
Q

What is the doctrine of merger?

A

The doctrine of merger applies to mortgages when the same person acquires both: a mortgagee’s (lender’s) interest in real property and the mortgagor’s (borrower’s) interest in that same property. When this occurs, the mortgage merges into the fee estate and is thereby extinguished.

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32
Q

Can a buyer who assumed a mortgage as part of a purchase price raise defenses that the debtor could have raised to avoid the mortgage obligation?

A

A buyer who assumed a mortgage as part of the purchase price may not raise defenses—e.g., duress, statute of limitations, lack of legal capacity—that the debtor could have raised to avoid the mortgage obligation. Otherwise, the buyer would be unjustly enriched.

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33
Q

What is a prematurely recorded deed, and does it provide record notice?

A

A prematurely recorded deed is a deed recorded by a buyer before the seller owns the property, and it falls outside a later buyer’s chain of title and fails to provide record notice.

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34
Q

What happens when a joint tenant leases his interest?

A

There is a split among jurisdictions with respect to joint tenancies when one joint tenant leases his interest. Some jurisdictions hold that the lease destroys the unity of interest and thus severs the joint tenancy, while other jurisdictions believe that the lease merely temporarily suspends the joint tenancy, which resumes upon expiration of the lease.

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35
Q

What is a mortgage?

A

A mortgage is a security device used to secure payment of a debt.

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36
Q

A conveyance by will by a joint tenant of his property interest has what effect?

A

NONE.

The property passes automatically to the remaining joint tenant(s) due to the right of survivorship.

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37
Q

What is an actual eviction?

A

An actual eviction, as opposed to a constructive eviction, occurs when the landlord removes the tenant from the premises. This total eviction terminates the lease and ends the tenant’s obligation to pay rent.

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38
Q

What are the prerequisites for creating an easement by necessity?

A

The dominant and servient estates must have been under common ownership in the past, and the necessity arose when the property was severed (which rendered the dominant property virtually useless without the benefit of an easement across the servient estate).

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39
Q

What is a landowner’s liability if he excavates on his land and causes the adjacent, undeveloped land to collapse or subside?

A

The excavating land owner is strictly liable.

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40
Q

Name four real property instruments that must comply with the Statute of Frauds (aside from a land sales contract).

A
  1. Promise to create an interest in real property
  2. Assignment of a right to purchase
  3. Option contract
  4. Promise to give a mortgage or other lien security
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41
Q

What are the two types of executory interests? How is each defined?

A
  1. Shifting executory interest: divests the interest of the grantee by cutting short a prior estate created in the same conveyance. The estate “shifts” from one grantee to another on the happening of the condition.
  2. Springing executory interest: divests the interest of the grantor or fills a gap in possession in which the estate reverts to the grantor.
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42
Q

Why is the following grant a fee simple absolute rather than a fee simple determinable?: Grantor conveys Blackacre “to B to be used for a horse farm.” B does not use Blackacre as a horse farm.

A

Grantor’s language merely indicates his desire, intent, or purpose for which the property should be used rather than imposing a condition that could limit the duration of the estate.

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43
Q

How does abandonment relate to covenants?

A

A covenant can be terminated in the same manner as an easement, including by abandonment. Abandonment occurs when an affirmative act—something more than neglect or nonuse—shows a clear intent to relinquish the covenant.

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44
Q

By what point in time must a seller deliver marketable title?

A

Seller is not required to deliver marketable title until closing (as sellers often use the proceeds of the sale to satisfy any prior mortgages or liens).

For installment contracts, not until delivery.

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45
Q

What is the common law exoneration-of-liens doctrines?

A

The common-law exoneration-of-liens doctrine* applies when a devisee (the son) receives a specific devise of real property (the house) that is subject to an encumbrance (e.g., mortgage, lien). Under this doctrine, the devisee is entitled to pay off any encumbrances on that property—including a purchase-money mortgage—from the remaining assets in the testator’s estate

46
Q

What happens to a profit holder if the government condemns the property?

A

The profit holder has an interest in the land and thus is entitled to compensation.

47
Q

What future interest is held by the grantor who grants a life estate but does not convey the remaining future interest to a third party?

A

A reversion (or “reverter”)

A reversion is fully transferable inter vivos, devisable by will, and descendible by inheritance. Reversions are not subject to the Rule Against Perpetuities.

48
Q

What does the cy pres doctrine do?

A

The cy pres doctrine allows courts to reform a conveyance to prevent it from violating RAP (it can save charitable gifts and it can also be applied when RAP would void a contingent future interest in a non-charitable grantee).

49
Q

What is a constructive eviction?

A

A constructive eviction occurs when the landlord breaches a duty to the tenant, such as failing to make a repair, that substantially interferes with the tenant’s use and enjoyment of the leasehold (e.g., fails to provide heat or water).

50
Q

What is the “one stock” rule as it relates to exclusive easements in gross?

A

The collective use that transferees can make of the easement is limited to the use that the transferor made of the easement.

51
Q

What is a major difference between a vested remainder subject to open and a contingent remainder?

A

A vested remainder subject to open is transferred to a group rather than individual, and at least one member of the group is individually ascertainable and entitled to the remainder interest.

A contingent remainder is created in a grantee who is unascertainable.

52
Q

What are the three types of waste that both a tenant of a life estate and a tenant in a leasehold must avoid?

A

(i) Voluntary waste (affirmative, substantial change);

(ii) Permissive waste (deterioration through neglect, failure to preserve, or failure to reasonably protect); and

(iii) Ameliorative waste (voluntary waste that does not diminish the value of the property).

53
Q

What kind of tenants have the right to unilaterally partition a piece of property?

A

A tenant in common or a joint tenant may unilaterally partition property.

(NOTE: A tenant by the entirety does not have this right.)

54
Q

What are the requirements for adverse possession?

A

Possession must be Continuous, Actual, Open and Notorious, Hostile, and Exclusive for the statutory period.

Mnemonic: ANOCHE (“last night” in Spanish)

(Note: Government-owned land cannot be adversely possessed.)

55
Q

What is the fifth unity unique to a tenancy by the entirety?

A

The fifth unity, unique to tenancies by the entirety, is the unity of person.

The 5 unities are: Possession, interest, time, title, and person.

56
Q

To which future interests will the Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP) never apply?

A

RAP is not an issue when analyzing future interests that revert to the grantor (i.e., reversion, possibility of reverter, right of reentry).

57
Q

Under what circumstances are a deed void vs. voidable?

A

Void v. Voidable deed

Void

Transfer of deed is invalid & cannot be enforced by bona fide purchaser if:

  • grantor’s signature is forged
  • deed is forged (ie, falsely made or materially altered with intent to defraud) or
  • grantor is deceived about nature of executed document
    Voidable

Transfer of deed is valid until set aside & may be enforced by bona fide purchaser if:

  • procured by fraudulent inducement or
  • party lacks capacity to execute deed (eg, infancy, lack of capacity)
58
Q

What are the three common types of recording acts?

A

1) Notice: A purchaser for value without notice of prior interest prevails.

2) Race: A purchaser for value who records first prevails.

3) Race-notice: A purchaser for value without notice and records first prevails.

59
Q

What is the doctrine of subrogation?

A

Under the doctrine of subrogation, a third party (subrogee) who pays another’s mortgage loan in full becomes the owner of the loan and the mortgage securing that loan to the extent necessary to prevent unjust enrichment. This means that the subrogee may seek reimbursement from the debtor (the former owner) or enforce the mortgage.

60
Q

What is a retaliatory eviction?

A

A retaliatory eviction is the unlawful eviction of a residential tenant by a landlord in response to the tenant complaining, in good faith and with reasonable cause, about a housing, building, or safety code violations.

61
Q

A tenant is considered a holdover tenant when he continues to occupy the premises without the landlord’s consent and after the expiration of the lease. What two remedies does a landlord have?

A

The landlord may evict, or the landlord may bind the holdover tenant to a new periodic tenancy.

62
Q

Groundwater is natural water that flows or lies under the surface and either percolates to the surface naturally or is tapped by a well. What are the four doctrines that govern groundwater rights?

A
  1. Prior-appropriation
  2. Correlative-rights
  3. Reasonable-use
  4. Common-law doctrine of absolute ownership
63
Q

What are the six covenants of title that a grantor guarantees with a general warranty deed?

A

SIX Covenants of a General Warranty Deed

Present covenants:
1) Covenant of seisin,
2) Covenant of the right to convey
3) Covenant against encumbrances

Future covenants:
4) Covenant of quiet enjoyment
5) Covenant of warranty
6) Covenant of further assurances

64
Q

A plaintiff must prove racial intent or purpose in order to establish a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment’s Equal Protection Clause. What must a plaintiff show to establish racial discrimination under the Fair Housing Act?

A

The plaintiff needs to show a disparate racial impact.

65
Q

What happens to liens when a co-tenancy is divided in an action for partition by sale?

A

When a co-tenancy is divided in an action for partition by sale, any lien on a tenant’s property interest will stay attached to that interest if the creditor is not a party to the action. But if the creditor is a party, then the lien will attach to the sale proceeds attributable to that interest.

66
Q

What protections does a buyer have with an option contract?

A

During the time specified in the contract, the buyer is protected against revocation by the grantor and termination if the grantor of the option dies or becomes incapacitated.

67
Q

What is a major difference between a vested remainder subject to complete divestment and a contingent remainder?

A

A vested remainder subject to complete divestment is subject to a condition subsequent that can completely divest the remainder interest (trigger words: but if).

A contingent remainder is subject to a condition precedent to grantee’s taking.

68
Q

What is a life estate pur autre vie?

A

A life estate measured by the life of a third party is called a “life estate pur autre vie.”

69
Q

What terms must a valid deed contain?

A

(i) Identities of the grantor and the grantee,

(ii) Words of transfer,

(iii) Description of the property interest being transferred, and

(iv) Grantor’s signature.

70
Q

A sublessee is not liable to the landlord for rent or any other covenants in the lease unless what happens?

A

If the sublessee expressly assumes the rent covenant (or any other covenants), then the sublessee becomes personally liable to the landlord.

71
Q

What is an ouster?

A

Ouster occurs when a co-tenant refuses to allow another co-tenant access to the property. In this event, the ousted co-tenant may seek an injunction to gain access to the property and to recover the value of the use of the property for the time during which the co-tenant was denied access to the property.

72
Q

A covenant running with the land means that subsequent owners may be burdened by or may have to enforce the covenant. What are the 6 requirements for a burden to run with the land?

A
  1. Writing to satisfy Statute of Frauds (exception implied reciprocal servitude)
  2. Intent
  3. Notice
  4. Horizontal Privity
  5. Vertical Privity
  6. Touch and Concern
73
Q

What is a right of reentry and who retains this right?

A

A right of reentry is a future interest retained by the grantor after a fee simple subject to a condition subsequent is granted.

74
Q

Describe the difference between accessions and trade fixtures.

A

Accessions are items that are so attached to other property that they cannot be removed without causing substantial damage. Trade fixtures are items attached to real property by a tenant for use in his/her trade or business– which can be removed without the landlord’s consent if (1) the removal occurs before, or within a reasonable time after, the lease ends and (2) the removal will not substantially harm the property.

75
Q

How long does an owner’s title insurance policy remain in effect?

A

So long as the named insured (or the named insured’s heirs) own the property.

76
Q

What is an option contract?

A

In an option contract, one party acquires the right to purchase property, usually for a specific period of time, in exchange for consideration. (i.e., The buyer usually pays for the option.)

77
Q

What’s the difference between a negotiable and non-negotiable promissory note?

A

A non-negotiable promissory note requires a separate assignment document to transfer ownership, while a negotiable promissory note can be transferred by merely endorsing and delivering the note to the assignee.

78
Q

What is attornment and how does it happen?

A

Attornment is the tenant’s acknowledgement of a new landlord.

This can be accomplished (i) in writing, or (ii) by making rent payments to the new landlord.

79
Q

For a constructive eviction claim to be effective (i.e., tenant no longer has to pay rent), what TWO things must a tenant do if the residential rental property is uninhabitable?

A
  1. Give notice and adequate time for the landlord to correct the problems, AND
  2. Vacate the property within a reasonable amount of time
80
Q

What are the four exceptions to the Statute of Frauds writing requirement?

A
  1. Partial performance
  2. Full performance
  3. Detrimental reliance
  4. Admission
81
Q

Regarding the effect of a mortgage on a joint tenancy, what is the difference between a title theory jurisdiction and a lien theory jurisdiction, and which is the majority rule?

A

Lien theory states (the majority): no severance - the mortgage is only a lien on the property

Title theory states (the minority): severance - the joint tenancy is converted into a tenancy in common with respect to the mortgaging tenant

82
Q

What future interest is retained by a grantor when a fee simple determinable is conveyed?

A

A possibility of reverter is a future interest retained by a grantor when a fee simple determinable is conveyed.

83
Q

How is the scope of an easement determined?

A

The scope of an express easement is defined in the first instance by its terms. If the terms are ambiguous, courts look to the intent of the parties.

The scope of an easement by necessity is determined by the extent of the necessity.

The scope of an easement by implication is determined by the existing quasi-easement.

The scope of an easement by prescription is limited to the nature and extent of the adverse use.

84
Q

What’s the difference in enforceability between a mortgage and its underlying obligations?

A

A mortgage is generally enforceable only to the extent that the underlying obligation is enforceable. Therefore, a mortgage is subject to the same defenses as the underlying obligation secured by the mortgage—e.g., mistake, duress, lack of capacity, statute of limitations.

85
Q

What is a novation?

A

A novation is an agreement by the landlord to release the original tenant from liability after an assignment or sublease.

Note: Absent a novation, the original tenant remains liable to the landlord for the entire duration of the lease.

86
Q

What are three corresponding future interests to these three defeasible fees:

  1. fee simple determinable
  2. fee simple subject to a condition subsequent
  3. fee simple subject to an executory condition
A
  1. Fee simple determinable: possibility of reverter (if holder is grantor) or executory interest (if holder is third party).
  2. Fee simple subject to a condition subsequent: right of entry/right of reentry/power of termination (holder is grantor and must exercise right to terminate)
  3. Fee simple subject to an executory condition: executory interest (holder is third party).
87
Q

When are due on sale clauses not enforceable?

A

If property is transferred to a spouse or ex-spouse upon divorce; if property is transferred to living trust.

88
Q

Regarding a landlord’s tort liability, the modern trend is to hold them to a general duty of reasonable care. This means that a landlord may be liable for what three things?

A

A landlord may be liable for:

  1. Existing defects prior to the tenant’s occupation of the premises
  2. Failure to make repairs required by a housing code
  3. At times, the criminal activity of third persons who injure tenants
89
Q

What are a life tenant’s duties to the estate re: taxes?

A

Paying ordinary taxes on the real property, but only to the extent that the life tenant receives a financial benefit from the property (i.e., rent/possession of the land)

90
Q

What is a due on sale clause, and what happens if a lender waives the clause?

A

A “due on sale” clause allows a lender to demand full payment of any remaining mortgage debt if the debtor transfers the mortgaged property without the lender’s written consent. If this clause is waived, the debtor remains liable on the note—even after transferring the mortgaged property—until the debtor is released by the lender.

91
Q

What are two major exceptions to a tenant’s duty to pay rent?

A
  1. Destruction of the premises not due to tenant’s fault, or
  2. Material breach of the lease by the landlord (e.g., breach of the covenant of quiet enjoyment or the implied warranty of habitability)
92
Q

If one co-tenant rents out the property, how must profits be split among all co-tenants?

A

A co-tenant must account to other co-tenants for rent received from third parties, and rent is divided based on ownership interest of each tenant.

93
Q

What durational language is often used with a fee simple determinable?

A

So long as

While

During

Until

94
Q

What happens to a fee simple determinable estate upon the happening of the stated condition?

A
  1. The fee simple determinable terminates automatically and
  2. Full ownership of the property either
  • returns to the grantor (possibility of reverter) or
  • transfers to a third party (executory interest).
95
Q

What estate requires clear language that the interest is measured in terms of a life, not a number of years?

A

A life estate is a present possessory estate that is limited in duration by a life. Upon the end of the measuring life, title reverts to the grantor or specified remainderman.

96
Q

What is marketable title?

A

Marketable title is title free from defects (such as undisclosed easements, future interests) regardless of the type of deed.

Essentially, it is title that is free from an unreasonable risk of litigation.

97
Q

A purchase-money mortgage (PMM) is often used by buyers who don’t have enough money for a traditional down-payment or who cannot get a large enough bank mortgage. The PMM funds must be used to purchase the property and are given either to the seller as part of the purchase price or to a third party lender.

In the event that a mortgagor-borrower defaults, who has priority if there is a seller PMM and third party lender PMMs?

A

A seller’s PMM has priority over a third-party’s PMM.

Priority of third party PMMs against each other are determined chronologically (subject to applicable exceptions).

98
Q

Restrictions on the transferability of property (restraints on alienation) are generally prohibited. However, what two restraints on alienation can be valid on a life estate?

A

A forfeiture restraint (property forfeited if interest owner attempts to transfer) and a promissory restraint (promise by interest holder not to transfer) can be valid on a life estate.

99
Q

What happens when an attempt to create an easement fails due to the Statute of Frauds?

A

A license results when there is a failed attempt to create an easement.

Example: Grantee receives a license when grantor orally conveys an easement for more than one year.

100
Q

What are the requirements for an easement to be terminated in writing?

A

An easement can be terminated by a written release that complies with the statute of frauds– ie, it must (1) reasonably identify the parties, (2) contain words of transfer, (3) describe the nature of the easement, and (4) be signed by the easement holder.

101
Q

What is a wild deed?

A

A wild deed is a recorded deed that is not within the chain of title (i.e.,recorded and indexed, but not in the correct way to give subsequent purchasers notice).

102
Q

What was the common law Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP) designed to do?

A

RAP was designed to prevent interests from vesting in the too distant future.

Tip: RAP is concerned with contingent interests that may remain contingent beyond the lives in being, plus 21 years. In other words, RAP settles the time within which a contingent remainder must vest in order to be valid. An interest is too remote if it depends upon a contingency, which could possibly happen after the specified period of lives in being, plus 21 years.

103
Q

What happens to an easement appurtenant if the dominant estate expands?

A

The easement can be taken away by the servant estate because they don’t need to accept the expansion of the dominant estate to which the easement was subject.

104
Q

When are fiduciary duties imposed on cotenants and when do they arise?

A

Fiduciary duties are imposed on cotenants who 1) jointly purchase property in reliance on each other or 2) acquire their interests at the same time from a common source (e.g., by gift, will, or inheritance).

This duty primarily arises when the co-owned property is sold at a tax or mortgage foreclosure sale and purchased by a cotenant. The other cotenants then have the right to reacquire their original interests by paying their share of the cost paid to acquire the property (based on the cotenant’s ownership interest) within a reasonable time.

105
Q

What are the three types of notice?

A

Actual, inquiry (if you investigated, what would you see), constructive (would you see it in the record)

106
Q

When it comes to adverse possession, can actual presence occur through the presence of another?

A

Yes, so long as their presence on the land is attributable to the adverse possessor (i.e., a landlord renting out land).

107
Q

What is the majority rule if a remainder is subject to an ambiguous survivorship condition (eg, if he survives)?

A

The majority rule is that the remainderman must survive the owner of the immediately preceding estate (eg, the life tenant) for the interest to become possessory. The minority rule is that the remainderman must survive the transferor.

108
Q

What happens when two or more persons adversely possess the land of another?

A

They acquire a tenancy in common.

109
Q

When is a real estate broker entitled to commission?

A

A real estate broker is entitled to commission if (1) a ready, willing, and able buyer is produced or (2) the seller enters into a sales contract with the buyer during the listing period.

110
Q

How are mineral rights obtained by adverse possession?

A

If the surface and mineral rights are owned by the same party, then the adverse possessor will acquire title to both estates. But if the mineral estate has been severed from the surface estate, that then adverse possessor will only acquire title to the estate that is actually possessed (i.e., by mining or drilling wells).