Prop Exam 2 Unit 4 to 11 Flashcards
1
Q
- The well site indirect heater has been commissioned and is operating at its normal temperature. The third step for a start-up sequence for a sour well is:
a) Slowly open the wing valve to pressure the surface equipment to the choke valve.
b) Open the choke valve to flow the well into the pipeline.
c) Check that the wing valve and tubing head vent valves are both in the closed position. Slowly open the master valve.
d) Slowly open the pipeline lateral block valve.
A
d) Slowly open the pipeline lateral block valve.
2
Q
- Factors that influence the choice of equipment used in the development of a gas field are:
a) Reservoir pressure, gas composition, and liquefiable hydrocarbon content.
b) Reservoir pressure, gas composition, and barometric pressure.
c) Reservoir pressure, gas composition, and temperature.
d) Reservoir pressure, gas composition, and location.
A
a) Reservoir pressure, gas composition, and liquefiable hydrocarbon content.
3
Q
- Factors that influence the number of wells to be drilled and whether field compression equipment is required are:
a) Reservoir pressure and atmospheric pressure.
b) Reservoir pressure and temperature.
c) Reservoir pressure and proven gas reserves.
d) Reservoir pressure and barometric pressure.
A
c) Reservoir pressure and proven gas reserves.
4
Q
- A series of low reservoir pressure, dry, sweet gas wells are being developed. The equipment that would be required is:
a) Gas Compressor, water and hydrocarbon dew point control with chilling facilities & gas metering.
b) Indirect Heater, gas compressor and simple dehydration unit.
c) Gas compressor, simple dehydration unit & gas metering.
d) Gas Compressor, Indirect Heater and; Free Liquid KO.
A
d) Gas Compressor, Indirect Heater and; Free Liquid KO.
5
Q
- The size of the well tubing will be determined by:
a) Reservoir pressure.
b) Permeability of the reservoir.
c) Depth of the well.
d) Back-pressure at the wellhead.
A
c) Depth of the well.
6
Q
- Producing wells with H2S as part of their composition are equipped with a _______________ as a safety device in the event of serious damage to the wellhead.
a) Surface Safety Shutdown Valve.
b) Bottom-hole safety valve.
c) Hi-Lo Pressure Pilot.
d) Wellhead Master Valve.
A
b) Bottom-hole safety valve.
7
Q
- Permeability is a measure of:
a) Inherent pressure within a gas reservoir.
b) The void spaces in the materials that make up rock.
c) Water influx into a gas reservoir.
d) The ability of the reservoir fluid to flow through the formation.
A
d) The ability of the reservoir fluid to flow through the formation.
8
Q
- Operators should not enter a sour gas well site unless they have:
a) In their possession an approved H2S detector/monitor.
b) Advised a central control authority of the well location.
c) On their person a pressure-demand breathing apparatus.
d) All of the above.
A
d) All of the above.
9
Q
- Cracking open a well:
a) Prevents the formation of hydrates in the wellbore.
b) Can result in hydrates plugging off the tubing.
c) Results in water coning into the wellbore.
d) Can result in the formation of H2S in the wellbore.
A
b) Can result in hydrates plugging off the tubing.
10
Q
- For well shutdowns of up to 8 hours:
a) It is sufficient to close the automatic choke.
b) The heater and safety valve must be taken out of service.
c) The wellhead unit should be isolated from the gathering line by closing the lateral valve, wing valve and the master valve.
d) The flow line and the meter run must be depressurized.
A
a) It is sufficient to close the automatic choke.
11
Q
- To cleanly separate free gases from the free hydrocarbon liquids, the basic separator must be strong enough to withstand the required working pressure, and promote the accumulation of froths and foams in the vessel.
a) True.
b) False.
A
b) False.
12
Q
- A disadvantage of a vertical separator is:
a) Inexpensive for its size and volume.
b) Liquid-level control is extremely critical.
c) Lower capacity than any other type of separator when compared on the basis on effective diameter.
A
c) Lower capacity than any other type of separator when compared on the basis on effective diameter.
13
Q
- The most common type of separator is the:
a) Horizontal type.
b) Vertical type.
c) Cyclonic type.
d) Spherical type
A
b) Vertical type.
14
Q
- The section of a conventional separator that acts as a receiver for all liquid removed from the gas is referred to as the:
a) Secondary or gravity settling section.
b) Sump or liquid collecting section.
c) Mist extraction or coalescing section.
d) Primary or initial separation section.
A
b) Sump or liquid collecting section.
15
Q
- One advantage of a vertical type separator is that the unit is:
a) Inexpensive for its size and volume.
b) Readily adaptable to a skid-mounted unit.
c) Easy to clean.
d) Lower in capacity than any other type of separator.
A
c) Easy to clean.
16
Q
- The three-phase horizontal separator is designed to separate oil, water, and gas, and has:
a) Two liquid outlets.
b) Three liquid outlets.
c) One liquid outlet.
d) Three inlets.
A
a) Two liquid outlets.
17
Q
- Three-phase separating refers to separating:
a) Gas from liquids from solids.
b) Liquid hydrocarbons from water from solids.
c) Water from solids from gases.
d) Gas from liquid hydrocarbons from water.
A
d) Gas from liquid hydrocarbons from water.
18
Q
- Spherical separators are used for the separation of:
a) Large volumes of liquid from extremely small volumes of gas.
b) Large volumes of gas from extremely small volumes of liquid.
c) Large volumes of gas from extremely small volumes of solids.
d) Large volumes of solids from extremely small volumes of gas.
A
b) Large volumes of gas from extremely small volumes of liquid.
19
Q
- A disadvantage of a horizontal separator is:
a) Expensive for its size and volume.
b) Lower capacity than any other type of separator when the comparison is based on effective diameter.
c) Limited separation space and liquid surge capacity.
d) Liquid-level control is extremely critical compared to a vertical unit.
A
d) Liquid-level control is extremely critical compared to a vertical unit.
20
Q
- The section of a conventional separator that is used to collect the majority of the liquid in the inlet stream is referred to as the:
a) Sump or liquid collecting section.
b) Mist extraction or coalescing section.
c) Primary or initial separation section.
d) Secondary or gravity settling section.
A
c) Primary or initial separation section.
21
Q
- An inlet separator in a gas plant includes all of the following fittings and controls except:
a) Sight glass and blow down lines.
b) High liquid level alarm and shutdown.
c) HP contactor.
d) Gas and liquid flow recorders.
A
c) HP contactor.
22
Q
- Pressure within the inlet separator is usually maintained within a specific pressure range by:
a) A sour water level control valve.
b) A pressure relief valve.
c) An excess liquid hydrocarbon control valve.
d) A gas back-pressure regulating valve.
A
d) A gas back-pressure regulating valve.
23
Q
- Safety and protection against overpressure of the inlet separator is provided by a:
a) Flare relief valve.
b) Pressure relief valve.
c) Liquid hydrocarbon flow control valve.
d) Gas back-pressure regulating valve.
A
b) Pressure relief valve
24
Q
- Any shutdown by the emergency shutdown valve is:
a) Irreversible.
b) Manually actuated.
c) Reversible if acted upon immediately.
d) Regulated by the product flow control valve.
A
a) Irreversible.
25
5. A relief valve differs from a safety valve in that it:
a) Opens further with decreasing upstream pressure under the device set pressure.
b) Opens further with increasing upstream pressure over the device set pressure.
c) Is used on vapour services.
d) Is characterized by full opening or "pop" action upon opening.
b) Opens further with increasing upstream pressure over the device set pressure.
26
6. A serious disadvantage of using a rupture disc for overpressure situations in vapour services is that:
a) It has moving parts that will foul or stick.
b) An absolutely tight seal at all pressures below the bursting pressure is not obtainable.
c) It has very high and costly maintenance requirements.
d) Vessel pressure and contents are completely lost when the disc ruptures.
d) Vessel pressure and contents are completely lost when the disc ruptures.
27
7. The purpose of the inlet separation system in a gas plant is to:
a) Act as a buffer between the gathering system pressure and plant working pressure.
b) Smooth out and stabilize the flow of the product by taking care of liquid surges coming in from the field.
c) Provide space and time for the effluent gas to separate into three phases.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
28
8. When the raw feedstock enters the inlet separation stage of a gas plant, it is separated into its three phases:
a) Gas, liquid hydrocarbons, and sulphur dioxide.
b) Liquid hydrocarbons, water and BS&W.
c) Gas, water, and hydrogen sulphide.
d) Gas, liquid hydrocarbons, and water.
d) Gas, liquid hydrocarbons, and water.
29
9. In designing plant inlet facilities, allowances must be made in the separator sizing and related liquid piping and valves to:
a) Accommodate surging conditions when flow rates are decreased.
b) Handle both normal field liquid production and predictable liquid slugs.
c) Allow for extra storage space during unpredictable production increases.
d) Separate sales gas from the raw feedstock before processing.
b) Handle both normal field liquid production and predictable liquid slugs.
30
10. Liquid slugging conditions in a gas plant are generally predictable when gathering flow rates are:
a) Stopped.
b) Increased.
c) Decreased.
d) Contaminated.
b) Increased
31
The factor involved in treating crude oil emulsions that gathers together small droplets to provide larger drops is referred to as:
a) Settling.
b) Coalescing.
c) Breaking.
d) Skimming.
b) Coalescing.
32
To ensure that intimate mixing will occur after the chemical compound is introduced to the flow stream, there must be:
a) A rapid temperature increase.
b) Sufficient agitation.
c) A reduction of flow.
d) No agitation so that the chemical compound can be properly absorbed into the stream.
b) Sufficient agitation.
33
3. With a chemical pump, the solution is forced into the flow stream by a:
a) Displacement-type plunger pump.
b) Dynamic-type pump.
c) Regenerative-type pump.
d) Volute centrifugal-type pump.
a) Displacement-type plunger pump.
34
When a lubricator is used on downhole treating, it is filled with chemical, diluted with crude oil, and dumped in batches into the:
a) Separator.
b) Tank.
c) Annular space.
d) Bottomhole choke.
c) Annular space
35
In batch tank treating operations, the chemical is introduced into the emulsion:
a) Before it has been produced.
b) While it is being produced.
c) After it has been produced.
d) At the wellhead.
c) After it has been produced.
36
The amount of chemical compound added to the emulsion affects the degree of breakdown, but has no effect on the speed of the breakdown or on the settling time to separate the oil and water after the emulsion has been broken.
a) True.
b) False.
b) False.
37
7. Water is slower to separate from crude oil emulsions when the:
a) Temperature is high.
b) Gravity differential between the oil and the water is great.
c) Water droplets are larger.
d) Viscosity of the crude is high.
b) Gravity differential between the oil and the water is great.
38
Of the following techniques used to bring the water settling rate to an acceptable level, the least used and most expensive technique is:
a) Distillation.
b) Centrifuging.
c) Using diluents.
d) Heat treating.
a) Distillation.
39
Water has a lower specific gravity than oil, allowing it to settle to the bottom of a tank..
a) True.
b) False.
b) False.
40
Free water knockouts are used to remove excessive volumes of free water:
a) Upstream of the annulus.
b) Ahead of the treating plant.
c) At the wellhead.
d) Downstream of the treating plant.
b) Ahead of the treating plant.
41
1. Some treaters use a horizontal electrostatic treater, which provides an ac or dc electrostatic field that is used to promote coalescence of the water droplets. The electric field causes the droplets to move about rapidly, increasing the collisions with other droplets at a great enough velocity to eventually cause them to:
a) Disintegrate.
b) Evaporate.
c) Coalesce.
d) Dissolve.
c) Coalesce.
42
2. The front chamber of a horizontal treater contains the gas separation section, free water knockout section, and the heating section. The rear chamber contains the:
a) Settling and the water draw-off sections.
b) Firetube and spreader sections.
c) Gas equalizer and mist extractor sections.
d) Emulsion inlet and baffle sections.
a) Settling and the water draw-off sections.
43
3. To aid in the separation of oil and water as the fluids move through the heating section of a horizontal treater, the fluids are heated by the:
a) Heat exchanger.
b) Firetube.
c) Residual heat from the extraction of gas.
d) Excelsior packs.
b) Firetube.
44
4. In systems where flow line pressures are low, a treater can be used as a primary separator, which means that the regular _____________ can be omitted.
a) Free water knockout.
b) Filter section.
c) Heater.
e) Separator
e) Separator
45
5. The heat exchanger in a vertical treater serves a number of purposes. Which of the following is NOT a function of the heat exchanger?
a) Expedites the coalescing of the smaller water particles.
b) Mixes the injected treating compound with the well fluid.
c) Cools the well stream.
d) Cools the outgoing treated oil to a more desirable storage tank temperature.
c) Cools the well stream.
46
1. The reflux equipment in a glycol unit includes all of the following except:
a) An accumulator.
b) A condenser.
c) A reboiler.
d) A pump.
c) A reboiler.
47
2. The inlet scrubbers are equipped with baffles and mist extractors that are designed to:
a) Provide the intimate contact between the gas stream and the glycol solution.
b) Eliminate gas turbulence and increase efficiency.
c) Remove the water from the rich glycol and reactivate the glycol for reuse.
d) Encourage gas turbulence causing increased separation of gases and liquids.
b) Eliminate gas turbulence and increase efficiency.
48
3. The absorber provides a series of contacts for removing water from the wet gas as it flows:
a) Downwards, in contact with the concentrated glycol.
b) Downwards as the glycol moves upwards.
c) Upwards, in contact with the concentrated glycol.
d) None of the above.
c) Upwards, in contact with the concentrated glycol
49
4. Most of the corrosion in the rectifier of a glycol unit occurs:
a) In the top of the feed tray.
b) Immediately below the feed tray.
c) To a lesser extent with DEG than with TEG.
d) In the bottom of the feed tray
b) Immediately below the feed tray.
50
5. The removal of oxygen and all acid gases dissolved in the foul solution in the flash tank of a glycol system is accomplished by:
a) Lowering the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a long period of time.
b) Raising the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a long period of time.
c) Raising the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a short period of time.
d) Lowering the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a short period of time.
d) Lowering the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a short period of time.
51
6. The regenerator operating temperature is maintained by:
a) Heat supplied by a bottom reboiler.
b) A closed water-cooled coil.
c) Heat supplied by an overhead reboiler.
d) None of the above.
a) Heat supplied by a bottom reboiler.
52
7. A vent tank can be installed:
a) Upstream of the inlet scrubber.
b) Downstream of the absorber.
c) Downstream of the filters.
d) Upstream of the absorber.
b) Downstream of the absorber.
53
8. If light oils and condensate from the scrubber are carried into the absorber, they will find their way to the rectifier where they can:
a) Collapse the filter element.
b) Crush the packing in packed columns.
c) Cause the filter sack to burst.
d) Flood the reboiler.
b) Crush the packing in packed columns.
54
10. Rectifier corrosion can be minimized by the use of coatings, by keeping the system free of contaminants, and by:
a) Operating at a maximum temperature.
b) Operating at a pressure above atmospheric.
c) Operating at a minimum temperature.
d) Minimizing the time the glycol is subject to decomposition.
c) Operating at a minimum temperature.
55
1. In a TEG desiccant unit, the lean solution is a glycol-water solution whose glycol concentration ranges from:
a) 95 to 99% by weight.
b) 85 to 89% by weight.
c) 75 to 89% by weight.
d) 90 to 95% by weight.
a) 95 to 99% by weight.
56
2. In a TEG desiccant unit, the rich solution is a water-rich solution whose glycol content is less than:
a) 99% by weight.
b) 97% by weight.
c) 95% by weight.
d) 98% by weight.
c) 95% by weight.
57
3. In the regeneration section of the TEG plant, the reboiler temperature requirements are:
a) The same as in a DEG plant.
b) Lower than in a DEG plant.
c) Dependent on the design limits of the reflux equipment.
d) Higher than in a DEG plant.
d) Higher than in a DEG plant.
58
4. Since water and TEG have widely varying boiling points, the two liquids can be separated easily by:
a) Fractional distillation.
b) Chemical separation.
c) Simple distillation.
d) Using an open pot to drive off the water as steam
a) Fractional distillation.
59
5. Dewpoint depressions of 72°C to 78°C are possible with glycol dehydrators using TEG and the high concentration glycol regenerators.
a) True.
b) False.
a) True.
60
8. Preventive dehydration controls the moisture content in gas by injecting certain inhibitors or chemicals, which:
a) Reduces the sulphur content of the acid gas.
b) Reduces the pressure at the injector ports.
c) Lowers the corrosiveness of the gas.
d) Lowers the freezing point of the water.
d) Lowers the freezing point of the water.
61
9. Preventive dehydration controls the moisture content in gas by injecting certain inhibitors or chemicals. One drawback of ammonia inhibitors is that they:
a) Promote hydrate formation at high pressures.
b) Combine with the carbon dioxide in the gas, forming ammonium carbamate.
c) Mixes with the hydrogen sulphate in the gas to create ammonium sulphate.
d) Combine with the carbon dioxide in the gas, forming ammonium chloride.
b) Combine with the carbon dioxide in the gas, forming ammonium carbamate.
62
1. One advantage of a molecular sieve hydrocarbon treating system is that:
a) High temperature gas regeneration is required.
b) Its capacity is not affected by pressure variations.
c) Molecular sieve degradation does not occur when corrosion inhibitors are present.
d) Removal of all polar compounds is achieved in a series of simple steps.
d) Removal of all polar compounds is achieved in a series of simple steps.
63
2. One disadvantage of a molecular sieve hydrocarbon treating system is that:
a) The molecular sieve material is corrosive.
b) Its capacity is affected by pressure variations.
c) Removal of all polar compounds is achieved in a series of simple steps.
d) Product loss occurs when the beds are drained, depressured, or regenerated with hot gas.
d) Product loss occurs when the beds are drained, depressured, or regenerated with hot gas
64
3. Adsorption occurs only on the surface of a:
a) Molecular sieve.
b) Nonpolar paraffin.
c) Liquid.
d) Solid.
e) a and d.
d) Solid.
65
4. The adsorbing capacity of a molecular sieve depends on the:
a) Contaminants in the mixture.
b) Kind and amounts of components to be adsorbed.
c) Pressure variation.
d) Vessel fluid flow rate.
b) Kind and amounts of components to be adsorbed.
66
5. Of the following, the compound that is most effectively adsorbed by a molecular sieve is:
a) Light mercaptans.
b) Carbonyl sulphide.
c) Heavy mercaptans.
d) Hydrogen sulphide.
a) Light mercaptans.
67
6. To prevent the loss of molecular sieve during an upset condition, inlet and outlet nozzles should be covered with:
a) Baffle plates or equivalent distributors.
b) A coarse screen.
c) A fine screen.
d) Deflectors
c) A fine screen.
68
7. Iron sulphide and iron flake carryover into a molecular sieve system may be eliminated by:
a) Adding a filter on the feed inlet line.
b) Unloading the sieves during maintenance turnarounds.
c) Adding a layer of activated carbon on the inlet end of the bed.
d) Minimizing the glycol, amine, or absorber oil in the purge gas.
a) Adding a filter on the feed inlet line.
69
8. During the molecular sieve treating cycle, the feed pressure must be high enough to:
a) Maintain the flow in the gas phase.
b) Regenerate the bed.
c) Maintain the flow in the liquid phase.
d) Allow sweet, ambient temperature fuel gas to flow through the bed.
c) Maintain the flow in the liquid phase.
70
9. During the molecular sieve regeneration cycle, sweet fuel gas is circulated through the adsorber at moderate pressure. This gas is heated in the regeneration gas heater to temperatures ranging from:
a) 225 - 260°C.
b) 260 - 315°C.
c) 360 - 415°C.
d) 240 - 275°C.
b) 260 - 315°C.
71
10. During the molecular sieve cool and fill cycle, when the treating direction is downflow, the entire vessel must be filled with liquid prior to switching in order to drive all gas from void spaces to ensure that:
a) Product contamination with the regeneration medium does not occur.
b) The adsorber repressurizes to the incoming product pressure.
c) The temperature of the regeneration gas is controlled.
d) No channelling occurs from two-phase flow.
d) No channelling occurs from two-phase flow.
72
In the feed (flash) drum, the water and any glycol carried in from the field is:
a) Condensed and sent to the reboiler.
b) Recovered and used to provide fuel to the fired heaters.
c) Dropped out and collected in the water leg at the bottom of the tank.
d) Cooled and partially condensed in the stabilizer overhead condenser
c) Dropped out and collected in the water leg at the bottom of the tank
73
The condensate leaves the flash drum at about 10°C, and flows through the:
a) Stabilizer feed/bottom heat exchanger.
b) Fin-fan aerial coolers.
c) The reflux accumulator.
d) The inlet separator.
a) Stabilizer feed/bottom heat exchanger.
74
3. The chamber arrangement at the lower section of the stabilizer prevents the:
a) Loss of suction at the reboiler pump.
b) Formation of hydrates.
c) Increase of suction at the reboiler pump.
d) Liquid surge point from exceeding design maximum.
a) Loss of suction at the reboiler pump.
75
4. The overhead vapours from the reflux drum are preheated to prevent formation of:
a) Flare gases.
b) Condensate.
c) Hydrates.
d) Bottom product.
c) Hydrates.
76
5. The purpose of the condensate stabilizer is to remove light hydrocarbons allowing the safe _______________ of the natural gasoline.
a) Fractionization.
b) Processing.
c) Sale.
d) Storage.
d) Storage.
77
6. The purpose of the stabilizer overhead condenser is to remove _______________ from the vapour stream.
a) C1, C2, C3, and C4.
b) Acid gases.
c) C5, C6, and C7+.
d) Water vapour.
c) C5, C6, and C7+.
78
7. The purpose of the Stabilizer Feed/Bottoms exchanger is to:
a) Prevent hydrates in the tower.
b) Recover heat from bottoms products.
c) Pre-heat raw condensate prior to entering the tower.
d) Flash water from the raw condensate.
e) b and c.
e) b and c.
79
Water has been found in the Stabilizer Reflux Drum. This may be due to:
a) Liquid slug into the Inlet Separator.
b) Malfunctioning Level Controller on the boot of the Stabilizer Feed Drum.
c) Operating the stabilizer reboiler above design temperature.
d) A hydrate in the Overhead vapour line to the L.P. contactor.
b) Malfunctioning Level Controller on the boot of the Stabilizer Feed Drum.
80
9. Analysis of the stabilizer bottoms product being sent to storage is found to have significant C3 and C4 components. This will be due to:
a) Operating the tower below design pressure.
b) Operating the reboiler below design pressure.
c) Operating the reboiler below design temperature.
d) Operating the tower without reflux.
c) Operating the reboiler below design temperature.
81
10. A condensate stabilizer tower is divided into sections. The top, or "rectifying section", includes:
a) All the trays above the feed tray.
b) All the trays below the chimney tray.
c) All the trays above the reflux tray.
d) All the trays below the feed tray.
a) All the trays above the feed tray.
82
The type of pig to be used and its optimum configuration for a particular task in a pipeline should be determined based upon the following:
a) The contents of the pipeline.
b) Pipeline characteristics.
c) The purpose for which the pig is to be used.
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
83
3. Pigs that are used to remove solid or semi-solid deposits or debris from the pipeline are generally considered to be a type of:
a) Gel pig.
b) Utility pig.
c) Smart pig.
d) Mapping pig.
b) Utility pig.
84
1. The workers’ responsibilities while pigging include:
a) Facilitate proper training.
b) Adhere to PPE policies.
c) Establish “critical” work areas.
d) Provide proper instruction on any protective requirements.
b) Adhere to PPE policies.
85
4. When incorporating gel pigs into a pig train, care must be taken to:
a) Minimize fluid bypass of the pigs.
b) Ensure a good seal between two dissimilar products within the pipeline is provided.
c) Maximize fluid bypass of the pigs.
d) Ensure that the electric charge being fed to the pig sets up the required magnetic field.
a) Minimize fluid bypass of the pigs.
86
5. The type of smart pig that only works with liquid pipelines is:
a) Caliper tools.
b) Ultrasonic crack detection tools.
c) Pipe deformation tools.
d) Ultrasonic metal loss detection tools.
b) Ultrasonic crack detection tools.
87
6. This type of smart pig locates and records magnetic flux anomalies in pipes:
a) Magnetic flux leakage tool.
b) Pipe deformation tool.
c) Transverse magnetic flux leakage tool.
d) Elastic wave tool.
a) Magnetic flux leakage tool.
88
7. The type of Smart Pig used to gather information about the physical size of the interior of a pipeline is called a:
a) Metal Loss Tool.
b) Geometry Tool.
c) Crack Detection Tool.
d) Mapping Tool.
b) Geometry Tool.
89
8. In order to safely load or retrieve a pig, it is critical that the pig barrels are properly isolated, _________, drained, and purged before they are opened.
a) Pressurized.
b) Cleaned.
c) Depressurized.
d) Identified.
c) Depressurized.
90
9. When launching a pig in a liquid system, it is important to open the drain valve and allow air to displace the liquid by:
a) Equalizing pressure across the isolation valve.
b) Opening the vent valve.
c) Closing the main valve.
d) Closing the vent valve.
b) Opening the vent valve.
91
10. When preparing to receive a pig, once the receiver is pressurized, the next step is to fully open the:
a) Trap closure.
b) Bypass valve.
c) Main valve.
d) All of the above.
b) Bypass valve.
92
The main dehydration solvent used in Alberta gas patch is:
a) DEG (Dyethylene glycol)
b) EG (Ethylene glycol)
c) TEG ( Triethylene glycol)
d) MEG (Monoethylene glycol)
c) TEG ( Triethylene glycol)
93
Preventive dehydration controls the moisture content in gas by injecting certain inhibitors or chemicals which:
a) Reduce the sulphur content of the acid gas
b) Reduce the pressure at the injector ports
c) Lower the corrosiveness of the gas
d) Lower the freezing point of the water
d) Lower the freezing point of the water
94
A sweet gas well has a high wellhead temperature of 35 C. The gas is to be transported under high pressure a distance of 50 km without the use of heaters. Preventive hydrate control measures most suited would be:
a) Ethylene glycol injection
b) Diethylene glycol injection
c) Tryethylene glycol injection
d) Methanol injection
d) Methanol injection
95
An operator wishes to increase the dew point depression from 30 C to 36 C on a plant's TEG dehydration unit. the action required to reach this is:
a) Increase circulation of glycol
b) Reduce operating pressure in absorber
c) Decrease gas flow rate
d) Increase reboiler temperature
d) Increase reboiler temperature
96
In the TEG dehydration plant, the rising water-rich vapour is in intimate contact with the descending glycol in the:
a) Contactor
b) Stripper column
c) Separator
d) Surge Tank
b) Stripper column
97
If the inlet gas to a glycol dehydrator contactor is at constant pressure, the higher the temperature is :
a) The lower the water content of the natural gas will be
b) The higher the dewpoint depression of the natural gas will be
c) The water content of the natural gas will remain the same
d) The higher the water content of the natural gas will be
c) The water content of the natural gas will remain the same
98
In the glycol regeneration section of a TEG plant, with the stripper:
a) Glycol-rich vapour from the reboiler rises in intimate contact with descending water -rich liquid from the absorber
b) Water-rich vapour from the absorber rises in intimate contact with descending glycol-rich liquid from the reboiler
c) Water rich vapour from the reboiler rises in intimate contact with descending glycol-rich liquid from the absorber
d) Water-rich vapour from the reboiler descend in intimate contact with rising glycol-rich liquid from the absorber
c) Water rich vapour from the reboiler rises in intimate contact with descending glycol-rich liquid from the absorber
99
Operating glycol reboilers at abnormally high temperatures will cause:
a) Glycol degradation
b) Foaming in the glycol regenerator
c) Excessive glycol losses
d) Corrosion in the regenerator
a) Glycol degradation
100
Glycol dehydration systems that do not have Glycol Flash tanks are more prone to corrosion due to:
a) Un-removed acid gases depressing PH
b) Hydrocarbon flashing in the rectifier
c) Build-up of solids in the system
d) Greater foaming tendencies
a) Un-removed acid gases depressing PH
101
In a glycol dehydration system, the wet gas flows ___________ through the contactor, ________ to the glycol flow
a) Upward, concurrent
b) Downward, concurrent
c) Upward, countercurrent
d) Downward, countercurrent
c) Upward, countercurrent
102
The amount of heat transferred to the glycol solution in the regenerator is dictated by:
a) Dewpoint depression required
b) Strength of reconcentrated solution
c) Column operating pressure
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
103
The absorbing capacity of a molecular sieve depends on the:
a) Contaminants in the mixture
b) Kind and amounts of components to be absorbed
c) Pressure variation
d) Vessel fluid flow rate
b) Kind and amounts of components to be absorbed
104
One disadvantage of a molecular sieve hydrocarbon treating system is that:
a) Difficulty of disposing sour regeneration gas may occur
b) Its capacity is affected by pressure variations
c) The molecular sieve material is corrosive
d) These systems can only handle small streams of hydrocarbons
a) Difficulty of disposing sour regeneration gas may occur
105
The stabilizer feed drum is designed to provide sufficient holding time to settle surges from the inlet separator to give adequate:
Settling time for the water wash desalting operation
106
The stabilizer reboiler provides the stabilization tower with:
Heat
107
In a fired heater, which of the following problems can occur:
Overheating, tube rupture and refractory break down
108
because the stabilizer feed drum operates at a much lower pressure than the inlet pressures, it partially stabilizes the stream by:
flashing off a large amount of lighter components
109
The heat exchanger contributes to the economy of the system by:
Recovering heat and transferring it to the stabilizer feed
110
Sealing pigs are:
Used to provide an interlace between two dissimilar products within the pipeline
111
The type of pig used to establish the integrity of a pipeline by detecting internal and external corrosion is a :
Smart pig
