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Prometric > Prometric > Flashcards

Prometric Flashcards

1
Q

Hyphae of which fungi branch at 45-degree angle?

A

Aspergillus spp.

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2
Q

Hyphae of which fungi branch at 90-degree angle?

A

Mucor spp.

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3
Q

What simple test is used for differentiation between S. aureus and micrococcus?

A

Oxidative/fermentative media (O/F)

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4
Q

What virus causes sandy spots on cells?

A

Arenavirus

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5
Q

What virus is suspected in a patient with splenomegaly and positive mono-spot test?

A

EBV (Epstein Barr virus)

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6
Q

What special stain is used for amyloid?

A

Congo red stain

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7
Q

What virus causes swelling of salivary and parotid glands?

A

Mumps virus

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8
Q

Which virus causes eye irritation and conjunctivitis after swimming?

A

Adenovirus

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9
Q

Negri bodies are eosinophilic inclusion bodies caused by which virus?

A

Rabies virus

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10
Q

Which organism cultured on blood agar produces a swarming phenomenon?

A

Proteus spp.

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11
Q

What is the characteristic of capsulated highly mucoid bacteria?

A

Klebsiella spp.

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12
Q

What color indicates a positive urease test for Brucella spp.?

A

Red color

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13
Q

What is the special medium used for Mycobacterium?

A

Löwenstein—jensen medium (Lj)

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14
Q

Which type of Plasmodium causes malignant malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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15
Q

What culture media is used for fungi?

A

Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA)

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16
Q

What causes yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharges?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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17
Q

What is creatinine clearance used for?

A

Estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

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18
Q

What type of bilirubin increases in hemolytic anemia?

A

Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin

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19
Q

What is the prozone in Ag-Ab reaction?

A

Zone of excess Abs

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20
Q

What is the optimum temperature for the complement fixation test (CFT)?

A

56 C°

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21
Q

What does the glycated Hb (hemoglobin) test measure?

A

HbA1c (average of glucose in 2-3 months)

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22
Q

Auer rods are found in which type of leukemia?

A

Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

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23
Q

In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with?

A

Picric acid in alkaline media

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24
Q

When a test is truly negative, what does this indicate?

A

Specificity

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25
Q

What is the function of a primer in DNA replication?

A

Provides 3’OH end needed to grow nucleotide chain

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26
Q

What is the germ tube test used for?

A

Candida albicans

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27
Q

What does a wet preparation of stool show when it contains eggs with bipolar plugs?

A

Egg of Trichuris trichura

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28
Q

What is the function of a microtome?

A

Produce sections (cutting)

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29
Q

What must a patient provide before using their samples in research?

A

Informed consent

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30
Q

What do RACE & PASS check refer to in lab safety?

A

Fire safety procedures

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31
Q

Who performs the gross examination (Grossing) in histopathology?

A

Pathologists

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32
Q

What is the confirmatory test for VDRL?

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)

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33
Q

What is the use of tumor markers?

A

Cancer monitoring

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34
Q

What is the deferral period for a donor visiting a malaria area?

A

1 year

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35
Q

What blood product is most appropriate for preventing GVHD?

A

Irradiated blood (RBCs)

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36
Q

What is the minimum ICT for autologous donation?

A

33%

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37
Q

If both parents are A blood group, what is the possible offspring blood group?

A

75% group A, 25% group O

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38
Q

What is the double dose (homozygous) expression of jK (a+) antigen?

A

jK (a+b-)

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39
Q

What is the most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens?

A

D antigen

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40
Q

On which chromosome are the ABO genes located?

A

Chromosome 9

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41
Q

On which chromosome are the Rh genes located?

A

Chromosome 1

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42
Q

Define directed donation.

A

Donation for a specific recipient

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43
Q

What antibodies cause HDFN?

A

Anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, anti-e and anti-K

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44
Q

What is one of the applications of the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)?

A

Antibody screening

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45
Q

What type of antibodies causes transfusion reactions?

A

Clinically significant antibodies

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46
Q

Which antibodies are IgG?

A

Anti-e, anti-P, anti-S, anti-s, anti-U, anti-K, anti-jK(a,b)

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47
Q

What is the normal sperm count?

A

20 million to 250 million

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48
Q

What is the time limit for a fresh semen sample?

A

2 hours

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49
Q

What bacteria is suspected in a gram stain of CSF showing kidney-shaped gram-negative bacteria?

A

N. meningitidis (meningococcal infection)

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50
Q

What condition is indicated by a patient with 3 days of vomiting and a distinctive smell of breath like nail polish?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

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51
Q

What causes the dark yellow color of amniotic fluid?

A

Bilirubin

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52
Q

What is the diagnosis when a chemical strip of urinalysis shows positive bilirubin and decreased urobilinogen?

A

Biliary obstruction (post-hepatic jaundice)

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53
Q

What non-pathological condition shows a high blood albumin level?

A

Dehydration

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54
Q

If a blood tube is left for 5 hours, which test is not affected?

A

Uric acid

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55
Q

What specific enzyme is elevated in biliary obstruction?

A

GGT

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56
Q

What is the confirmatory test for suspected acute myocardial infarction?

A

Troponin T

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57
Q

What is the special test for evaluating congenital hypothyroidism?

A

TSH

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58
Q

What is the tumor marker for colon cancer?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

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59
Q

What specific enzyme is associated with hepatobiliary diseases?

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

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60
Q

What blood product is suitable for treating von Willebrand disease?

A

Cryoprecipitate

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61
Q

What is the specific enzyme for acute pancreatitis?

A

Lipase

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62
Q

What diagnosis is indicated by a protein electrophoresis showing normal fractions except for an elevated gamma fraction?

A

Monoclonal gammopathy

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63
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with bleeding after dental extraction, factor assay shows factor VIII deficiency?

A

Hemophilia A

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64
Q

What medication acts as a vitamin K antagonist?

A

Warfarin

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65
Q

What test is used for differentiation between factor deficiency and factor inhibitor?

A

Mixing studies

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66
Q

What is a common finding in a patient with a high level of ADH?

A

Hyponatremia

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67
Q

What test differentiates von Willebrand disease from hemophilia?

A

Bleeding time

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68
Q

What condition is indicated by peripheral smear showing rouleaux formation?

A

Multiple myeloma (MM)

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69
Q

Howell-jolly bodies are seen in which conditions?

A

Hemolytic anemia, splenectomy, megaloblastic anemia

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70
Q

What type of anemia is G6PD anemia classified as?

A

Hemolytic anemia

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71
Q

What part in reticulocytes stained with new methylene blue represents?

A

RNA

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72
Q

What type of WBCs are elevated in E. vermicularis infection?

A

Eosinophils

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73
Q

What are the CD markers for T lymphocytes?

A

CD3, CD4

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74
Q

What mutation is associated with polycythemia vera and essential thrombocythemia?

A

JAK2 V617F

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75
Q

What mutation is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?

A

t(9:22)

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76
Q

What anticoagulant can cause pseudothrombocytopenia?

A

EDTA

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77
Q

What lab finding is associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

A

Low PLTs count

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78
Q

What is the chemical movement of neutrophils called?

A

Chemotaxis

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79
Q

What are liver macrophages called?

A

Kupffer cells

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80
Q

Which organ’s macrophages are responsible for the elimination of bacteria?

A

Liver and spleen

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81
Q

What condition is indicated by severe menorrhagia, low PLTs, and normal PT and APTT?

A

Von Willebrand disease

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82
Q

What clinical condition is associated with autoantibodies against thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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83
Q

What protein is produced by activated macrophages?

A

Interleukins

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84
Q

What can cause rashes and fever after the administration of intravenous penicillin?

A

IgE

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85
Q

What condition is indicated by a patient with dry mouth, gritty feeling eyes, high ANA, and anti SS Abs?

A

Sjogren syndrome

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86
Q

What is indicated by high sugar levels with normal insulin?

A

Insulin independent diabetes mellitus

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87
Q

What histopathology finding indicates contamination?

A

A section of liver found on a section of lung

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88
Q

What causes hematuria?

A

S. hematobium

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89
Q

In a gram stain, how is S. aureus arranged?

A

Clusters

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90
Q

What acids are used for urine preservation?

A

Hydrochloric acid, boric acid

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91
Q

What special technique is used for treponema and spirochetes?

A

Dark field microscope

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92
Q

What endocrine disorder is characterized by weight gain and cold intolerance?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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93
Q

What endocrine disorder is characterized by weight loss and heat intolerance?

A

Graves disease

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94
Q

What causes meningitis in infants when caused by gram-positive rods with tumbling motility?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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95
Q

What test differentiates M. tuberculosis from other mycobacteria?

A

Production of niacin (nicotinic acid)

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96
Q

What gram-positive rods can infect fetuses and pregnant women and can grow at 4 C?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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97
Q

What virus causes infant diarrhea and can be prevented by the national immunization program?

A

Rota virus

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98
Q

What is the biosafety level (BSL) for MERS-CoV/SARS-CoV-2?

A

BSL 3

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99
Q

What allows influenza virus to attach to epithelial cells?

A

Hemagglutinin

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100
Q

What does an electron microscope show when examining a virus with crown-like projections?

A

Corona virus

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101
Q

What is used to detect fungi in a skin sample?

A

10% KOH

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102
Q

What causes ringworm?

A

Trichophyton

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103
Q

What is the suitable mask for MERS-CoV?

A

N95

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104
Q

What state describes access to patient information, results, and diagnosis?

A

Patient confidentiality

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105
Q

What does Hb-electrophoresis show when normal HbA and high HbA2 are present?

A

Thalassemia minor

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106
Q

What is called when treatment is provided regardless of age, sex, or religion?

A

Access to care

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107
Q

What is the only lipoprotein synthesized and secreted in the intestine?

A

Chylomicron

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108
Q

What protocol is followed for a positive malaria case in Saudi Arabia?

A

Inform the infectious disease department

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109
Q

What findings indicate pancreatitis?

A

High lipase and amylase

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110
Q

What is the method used for centrifugation of pleural fluid?

A

Centrifugation

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111
Q

How do you differentiate Staphylococci from Streptococci?

A

By catalase test

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112
Q

What stain is used for reticulocyte count?

A

Supravital stain (new methylene blue)

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113
Q

What hormone causes glucose in urine (renal glycosuria) to be normal in blood?

A

Glucagon hormone

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114
Q

What should be done if creatinine is 5.9 (critical)?

A

Call physician

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115
Q

What conditions are considered for donation in HIV, BBV, sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait?

A

Sickle trait

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116
Q

What is the abnormal chromosome associated with CML?

A

Philadelphia chromosome

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117
Q

What is the best test for iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?

A

Ferritin

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118
Q

What causes low ESR?

A

Low fibrinogen

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119
Q

What do PT: 20 sec, APTT: 50 sec, TT: 18 sec indicate?

A

Hypofibrinogenemia

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120
Q

What can cause a false positive DAT?

A

Clotted sample

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121
Q

What result is seen in factor X deficiency?

A

Prolonged PT & APTT

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122
Q

What factor is not measured by PT & APTT?

A

Factor XIII

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123
Q

What occurs when PT is prolonged and IV vitamin K normalizes it after 24 hours?

A

Obstructive jaundice

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124
Q

What is indicated if prolonged APTT is corrected with factor VIII deficient plasma but not with factor IX deficient plasma?

A

Factor VIII deficiency

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125
Q

What indicates PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged, low PLTs count?

A

DIC

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126
Q

What is factor XII deficiency associated with?

A

Increased risk of thrombosis

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127
Q

In a factor VIII assay, a patient’s plasma is mixed with?

A

Factor VIII deficient plasma

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128
Q

What is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system (plasmin)?

A

Alpha 2-antiplasmin

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129
Q

What is plasminogen deficiency associated with?

A

Thrombosis

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130
Q

What condition is indicated when a baby develops petechiae and purpura with PLTs count of 18 x 10 *9/L?

A

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

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131
Q

What is the suitable blood product when PT and APTT are prolonged, and PLTs count is 100 x 10*9/L with fibrinogen at 40 mg/dL?

A

Cryoprecipitate

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132
Q

What condition is indicated by normal PT, prolonged APTT, increased bleeding time, and normal platelet count?

A

Von Willebrand disease

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133
Q

What is the correct ratio of anticoagulant to blood for coagulation procedures?

A

1:9

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134
Q

What is the function of vitamin K in coagulation?

A

Required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors

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135
Q

The APTT is sensitive to deficiency of which factor?

A

Factor X

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136
Q

What test is used for heparin monitoring?

A

APTT

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137
Q

What indicates normal fasting blood sugar and high 2-hour postprandial glucose?

A

Isolated postprandial hyperglycemia

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138
Q

What causes amber color of urine?

A

Presence of bilirubin

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139
Q

What is bilirubin’s characteristic regarding photosensitivity?

A

Photosensitive

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140
Q

What does the osmolality of urine depend on?

A

Na + specific gravity

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141
Q

What is phenylketonuria caused by?

A

Lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase

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142
Q

What is used to detect ketones in urine?

A

Sodium nitroprusside

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143
Q

What is the principle of ELISA?

A

Antigen-Antibody complex

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144
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Type 4?

A

Delayed hypersensitivity (takes 24-72 hours)

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145
Q

Define autoimmune disease.

A

An autoimmune disease occurs when an individual produces antibody or a T cell response to own antigens.

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146
Q

What causes hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli 0157:H7, Shigella dysenteriae

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147
Q

What parasite causes acute diarrhea?

A

Giardia

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148
Q

What is the selective media for vibrio?

A

TCBS

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149
Q

What anticoagulant is used in PT?

A

Warfarin

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150
Q

What causes gas gangrene?

A

C. perfringens

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151
Q

What media contains vancomycin, colistin, and nystatin?

A

Thayer Martin media

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152
Q

What is the bile solubility test used for?

A

Special test for S. pneumoniae

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153
Q

What virus causes intranuclear giant cytopathic effect as owl eyes?

A

Cytomegalovirus

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154
Q

What indicates viral meningitis?

A

Normal glucose with high protein

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155
Q

What produces neurotoxins?

A

C. tetani, C. botulinum, S. aureus, B. cereus

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156
Q

What stains are used for fungi?

A

Grocott methamine silver, periodic acid Schiff, lactophenol cotton blue

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157
Q

What does the Wood lamp test diagnose?

A

Hair skin infected by dermatophytes

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158
Q

What condition is indicated by acromegaly?

A

Test of growth hormone (GH)

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159
Q

What deficiencies cause niacin (nicotinic acid/vitamin B3) and tryptophan deficiency?

A

Pellagra

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160
Q

What is Cushing syndrome characterized by?

A

High cortisol, Hyperaldosteronism, high ACTH

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161
Q

What does double zone of beta hemolysis indicate?

A

C. perfringens

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162
Q

What does HbA1c measure?

A

Sugar for the last 3 months

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163
Q

What causes hypoalbuminemia?

A

Acute or chronic inflammation, nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis, heart failure, malnutrition, allergy

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164
Q

What is INR used for?

A

PT

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165
Q

Define MCV.

A

Measure of average volume of RBC

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166
Q

In what conditions are Heinz bodies seen?

A

G6PD anemia

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167
Q

What deficiency causes Pellagra?

A

Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency

Pellagra is characterized by the three D’s: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.

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168
Q

What is Cushing syndrome characterized by?

A

High cortisol, hyperaldosteronism, high ACTH

Cushing syndrome results from prolonged exposure to elevated levels of cortisol.

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169
Q

What organism displays a double zone of beta hemolysis?

A

C. perfringens

This bacterium is known for causing gas gangrene.

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170
Q

What does HbA1C measure?

A

Average blood sugar levels over the last 3 months

HbA1C is used to diagnose and monitor diabetes.

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171
Q

What causes hypoalbuminemia?

A

Acute or chronic inflammation, nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis, heart failure, malnutrition, allergy

Hypoalbuminemia can indicate various underlying health issues.

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172
Q

What does INR stand for and what is it for?

A

International Normalized Ratio, used for monitoring PT (Prothrombin Time)

INR is crucial in managing patients on anticoagulants.

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173
Q

Define MCV.

A

Mean Corpuscular Volume, a measure of the average volume of red blood cells

MCV helps classify anemias.

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174
Q

In which conditions are Heinz bodies seen?

A

G6PD anemia, denatured hemoglobin

Heinz bodies indicate oxidative damage to red blood cells.

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175
Q

What are Coomb control cells?

A

RBCs coated with IgG

These are used in the Coombs test to detect antibodies against red blood cells.

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176
Q

What is a common cause of hypercalcemia?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

Hypercalcemia can also result from malignancies or vitamin D disorders.

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177
Q

What are cell blocks?

A

Microbiopsies embedded in paraffin wax for cytology specimens

These are used to analyze small tissue fragments from fine needle aspiration (FNA).

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178
Q

What special stain is used for the stomach?

A

PAS (Periodic Acid-Schiff)

This stain helps visualize carbohydrates in tissue.

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179
Q

What is Wilson’s disease characterized by?

A

Low ceruloplasmin and high copper levels in urine

Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder leading to copper accumulation.

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180
Q

What causes Hemophilia A?

A

Deficiency of factor VIII

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder.

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181
Q

What is the lifespan of red blood cells?

A

120 days

RBCs are continuously produced in the bone marrow.

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182
Q

What does the Kleihauer-Betke test detect?

A

Fetal red blood cells in maternal circulation

This test is used in cases of suspected fetal-maternal hemorrhage.

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183
Q

What bacterium is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea?

A

C. difficile

C. difficile infection can occur after antibiotic use.

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184
Q

Which bacteria are transmitted by cat bites?

A

Pasteurella multocida

This bacterium can cause serious infections if not treated promptly.

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185
Q

How is LDL calculated?

A

LDL = total cholesterol - HDL - TG/5

This formula estimates low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels.

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186
Q

What media inhibits the swarming of Proteus species?

A

CLED (Cystine-Lactose-Electrolyte-Deficient) agar

CLED agar is used for urinary cultures.

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187
Q

Which bacteria can grow at 42-43°C?

A

Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Borkholderia

These bacteria are thermophilic.

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188
Q

Which bacteria can grow at 4-43°C?

A

Listeria monocytogenes & Yersinia

These bacteria are psychrotrophic and can grow in refrigerated foods.

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189
Q

What is the labeled material in ELISA?

A

Antibody labeled with an enzyme

ELISA is used for detecting antigens or antibodies.

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190
Q

What factors affect tissue processing machines?

A

Solution viscosity, agitation, heat, vacuum & pressure

These factors ensure adequate infiltration and embedding of tissues.

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191
Q

What is the proper thickness for tissue samples?

A

2-4 mm, 3-5 microns

Proper thickness is crucial for effective processing and analysis.

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192
Q

What is tissue infiltration or embedding done with?

A

Paraffin wax, resin, agar, gelatin, celloidin

These materials are used to preserve tissue morphology.

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193
Q

What causes ice artifacts in frozen sections?

A

Slow freezing of tissue

Rapid freezing techniques are used to avoid these artifacts.

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194
Q

What is an exchange transfusion used for?

A

Patients with ABO antibodies, HDFN, to remove bilirubin and maternal antibodies

This procedure is critical for managing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).

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195
Q

What is intrauterine transfusion (IUT) used for?

A

HDFN due to Rh incompatibility

IUT is performed using the umbilical vein to maintain fetal hemoglobin levels.

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196
Q

What type of antibodies are Lewis antibodies?

A

Cold antibodies

These antibodies are typically IgM and can react at lower temperatures.

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197
Q

What special stain is used for parasites?

A

Giemsa stain, H&E

These stains help visualize various parasites in tissue samples.

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198
Q

Where are Reed-Sternberg cells found?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

These cells are characteristic of this type of cancer.

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199
Q

What is the special stain for amoeba?

A

Best carmine, PAS

These stains help identify amoebic infections in tissue.

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200
Q

What enzyme is responsible for glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate kinase

This enzyme catalyzes the final step of glycolysis.

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201
Q

What are the differences between hyaline and waxy casts?

A

Hyaline cast: colorless, translucent, seen in normal individuals & renal disease; Waxy cast: yellow, high refractive index, seen in chronic renal failure

Casts are indicative of different types of renal pathology.

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202
Q

What is the giant intranuclear inclusion like owl eyes indicative of?

A

CMV (cytomegalovirus)

This cytopathic effect is typical in infected cells.

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203
Q

What color do gram-negative bacteria appear?

A

Pink or red

This is due to the thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls.

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204
Q

What test is used for monitoring HIV?

A

CD4 count

This test helps assess immune function in HIV-positive patients.

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205
Q

What does RT-PCR do?

A

Produces DNA from RNA

RT-PCR is used for amplifying RNA sequences.

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206
Q

How is embedding done in tissue processing?

A

Filling of tissue with paraffin wax using suitable molds or tissue cassettes

This process preserves tissue for sectioning and analysis.

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207
Q

What happens if a tissue cassette is not closed?

A

Cut the tissue into a proper size

Proper closure is essential for maintaining tissue integrity during processing.

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208
Q

What disease is characterized by a barking cough?

A

Croup caused by parainfluenza virus

Croup typically affects young children.

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209
Q

What enzyme is affected by alcohol consumption?

A

GGT (Gamma-glutamyl transferase)

Elevated GGT levels can indicate liver disease.

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210
Q

Which hormone controls the adrenal gland?

A

ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol.

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211
Q

What test differentiates group B from group A streptococci?

A

CAMP test

The CAMP test detects the synergistic hemolytic activity of group B strep.

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212
Q

In which condition is Bence Jones protein found?

A

Multiple myeloma

Bence Jones proteins are free light chains of immunoglobulins excreted in the urine.

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213
Q

Which bacterium causes gas gangrene?

A

C. perfringens

Gas gangrene occurs due to the production of gas in tissues by this organism.

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214
Q

What is the concentration of sodium citrate used for coagulation studies?

A

3.2%

Sodium citrate acts as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes.

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215
Q

What device is used to obtain sediments?

A

Centrifuge

Centrifuges separate components of blood or other fluids based on density.

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216
Q

What enzyme is elevated in obstructive jaundice?

A

ALP (Alkaline Phosphatase)

ALP levels rise due to bile duct obstruction.

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217
Q

What is Indian ink used for?

A

Detection of capsule and Cryptococcus neoformans

The Indian ink preparation is a classic method for visualizing the capsule of this yeast.

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218
Q

What bacterium causes peptic ulcers and is urease positive?

A

H. pylori

H. pylori is a common cause of chronic gastritis and peptic ulcers.

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219
Q

What anticoagulant is used for blood cultures?

A

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

This anticoagulant prevents clotting while allowing the growth of bacteria.

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220
Q

What are cylindrical larvae classified as?

A

Nematodes (e.g., Ascaris, hookworm)

Nematodes are a type of parasitic worm.

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221
Q

What is the main difference between fungi and bacteria in terms of ribosomes?

A

Fungi have 80S ribosomes, bacteria have 70S ribosomes

This difference is important for antibiotic targeting.

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222
Q

What do eukaryotes lack?

A

Mesosomes

Mesosomes are structures found in prokaryotes.

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223
Q

What parasite causes hematuria?

A

S. haematobium

This trematode is associated with urinary schistosomiasis.

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224
Q

Which cell type is predominant in parasitic infections?

A

Eosinophil

Eosinophils respond to parasitic infections and allergic reactions.

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225
Q

Which cell type is predominant in bacterial infections?

A

Neutrophil

Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections.

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226
Q

How long can CPD-stored blood be used?

A

14-21 days

CPD (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose) is an anticoagulant used in blood storage.

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227
Q

How long can CPDA-stored blood be used?

A

35 days

CPDA (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose Adenine) extends blood storage time.

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228
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

Plasma contains fibrinogen

Serum is the liquid that remains after blood has clotted.

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229
Q

What causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A

Anti-D, anti-K antibodies

HDN occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells.

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230
Q

What color does Shigella appear on XLD agar?

A

Red

Shigella does not ferment xylose, leading to a red colony appearance.

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231
Q

What color do platelets need to be stored at?

A

22-27°C for 5 days

Proper storage conditions are critical for platelet viability.

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232
Q

Where are nucleated RBCs found?

A

Hemolytic anemia and megaloblastic anemia

Nucleated RBCs indicate a response to anemia or stress on the bone marrow.

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233
Q

Which anemias are characterized by anemia with thrombocytopenia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia and aplastic anemia

These conditions can affect multiple blood cell lines.

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234
Q

Which bacteria is associated with a fishy smell?

A

Proteus spp.

This smell can be indicative of urinary tract infections.

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235
Q

What is the life cycle duration of Plasmodium malariae?

A

72 hours

This parasite causes malaria and has a cyclical pattern of symptoms.

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236
Q

What causes visceral leishmaniasis?

A

Leishmania donovani

This protozoan parasite is transmitted by sandflies.

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237
Q

What bacteria is indole positive, lactose fermenter, and motile in UTI cases?

A

E. coli

E. coli is a common cause of urinary tract infections.

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238
Q

What type of anemia is G6PD deficiency classified as?

A

Hemolytic anemia

This condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.

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239
Q

What bacteria are oxidase positive?

A

Pseudomonas, Vibrio, Neisseria, H. influenzae

Oxidase tests help identify specific bacterial species.

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240
Q

Where does the maturation of B lymphocytes occur?

A

In the bone marrow

B cells are central to the adaptive immune response.

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241
Q

Where does the maturation of T lymphocytes occur?

A

In the thymus gland

T cells are crucial for cell-mediated immunity.

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242
Q

What is the indirect Coombs test (IAT) used for?

A

Detect antibodies in vitro

This test is often used in blood typing and prenatal testing.

243
Q

What is the direct Coombs test used for?

A

Detect sensitized RBCs with antibodies in vivo

This test helps diagnose hemolytic anemia.

244
Q

What condition is associated with high growth hormone in children?

A

Gigantism

Excess growth hormone leads to abnormal growth in children.

245
Q

What condition is associated with high growth hormone in adults?

A

Acromegaly

Acromegaly results in enlarged bones and tissues.

246
Q

How can HbSS be differentiated from HbAS?

A

By Hb electrophoresis

This test separates different hemoglobin types.

247
Q

What is the appearance of Shigella on MacConkey agar?

A

Colorless

Shigella does not ferment lactose, resulting in no color change.

248
Q

What is the appearance of Salmonella on XLD agar?

A

Pink color with a black center

The black center indicates hydrogen sulfide production.

249
Q

What is the appearance of Salmonella on MacConkey agar?

A

Colorless or pale yellow

Similar to Shigella, Salmonella does not ferment lactose.

250
Q

What is meant by autosomal recessive inheritance?

A

Two copies of a defective gene must be inherited from both parents

Many genetic disorders follow this inheritance pattern.

251
Q

What is the CA-125 marker used for?

A

Ovarian and breast cancer

CA-125 is a tumor marker often elevated in these cancers.

252
Q

What should be done after a fire alarm is activated?

A

Continue the fire drill and close the door

Following safety protocols is essential in emergency situations.

253
Q

What disinfectant kills microorganisms and spores?

A

Glutaraldehyde

Glutaraldehyde is a potent sterilizing agent.

254
Q

What indicates pancreatic cancer in laboratory results?

A

High CA 19-9 and high lipase and amylase

These markers can suggest pancreatic pathology.

255
Q

What color code indicates a spill emergency?

A

Orange

Color codes are used to quickly communicate the type of emergency.

256
Q

Who is considered a primary health care provider?

A

Person who directly contacts patients and provides care

This role is crucial in the healthcare system.

257
Q

What is type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

An allergic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies

This type of hypersensitivity leads to immediate allergic responses.

258
Q

What media can affect the indole test?

A

Any media containing dyes, MacConkey, EMB, and Mueller Hinton agar

These media can alter the results of the indole test.

259
Q

Where are Howell-Jolly bodies found?

A

In patients who have undergone splenectomy

These bodies are remnants of red blood cell nuclei.

260
Q

What is the result of normal Hb and normal MCV?

A

Normocytic normochromic red blood cells

This indicates a normal red blood cell size and hemoglobin content.

261
Q

What is the suitable time and temperature for autoclaving at 15 lbs?

A

121°C for 15 minutes

This standard ensures sterilization of materials.

262
Q

What should be used for a patient needing 4 units of blood with an unknown blood group?

A

0 negative blood group

O negative is the universal donor type for emergencies.

263
Q

What bacterium gives a blue-green colony with a positive fried egg appearance?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

This organism is known for its distinctive colony morphology.

264
Q

How is BUN calculated?

A

Urea/2.14

BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) is an important marker for kidney function.

265
Q

What is the heterozygous JK reaction?

A

JK(a+b+)

This refers to the Kidd blood group system.

266
Q

What is protein S a cofactor for?

A

Protein C

Protein S is crucial for the regulation of coagulation.

267
Q

How do you differentiate fibrinogenolysis from DIC?

A

D-dimer positive in DIC

DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is characterized by elevated D-dimer levels.

268
Q

What are phenotypes?

A

The morphology and properties of an organism

Phenotypes result from the interaction of genotype and environment.

269
Q

What is genotype?

A

The genetic makeup of an organism (DNA) and hereditary information

Genotype determines potential traits of an organism.

270
Q

What blood component is suitable for a patient with vWF deficiency?

A

Cryoprecipitate

Cryoprecipitate contains factor VIII and fibrinogen.

271
Q

What is a laboratory reagents system?

A

Inventory system

This system manages the stock of laboratory reagents.

272
Q

What type of food poisoning is caused by gram-positive bacilli?

A

C. perfringens

This bacterium is associated with improperly stored foods.

273
Q

What methods are used for leukemia diagnosis?

A

Flow cytometry, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, cytogenetics (FISH, PCR), immunohistochemistry, CBC, blood films, MRI

These methods help confirm the diagnosis and subtype of leukemia.

274
Q

What is the function of the primer in PCR?

A

RNA primer to detect genetic expression

Primers are essential for initiating DNA synthesis in PCR.

275
Q

What color do gram-negative bacteria appear after Gram staining?

A

Pink or red

This is due to the structure of their cell walls.

276
Q

What urine cast is found in cases of sickle cell anemia?

A

Hemosiderin (hemoglobin) cast

These casts indicate hemolysis and renal involvement.

277
Q

What condition is familial hypercholesterolemia associated with?

A

High LDL

This genetic disorder leads to elevated levels of low-density lipoprotein cholesterol.

278
Q

What lipid is affected by meals?

A

Triglycerides

Triglyceride levels can spike after eating.

279
Q

Complete the template for AAGCAT for DNA and RNA.

A

DNA: TTCGTA, RNA: UUCGUA

This demonstrates the base pairing rules in nucleic acids.

280
Q

Which virus is HDV associated with?

A

HBV (Hepatitis B virus)

HDV requires HBV for its replication.

281
Q

What are the symptoms associated with EBV infection?

A

Atypical lymphocytes, heterophile tests, monospot test, lymphadenopathy, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

EBV is linked to infectious mononucleosis and certain cancers.

282
Q

What are common cases of traveler-related hepatitis?

A

NAV (Non-A, Non-B hepatitis)

This includes various viral hepatitis types not traditionally classified.

283
Q

What controls unfractionated heparin?

A

APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)

APTT is used to monitor anticoagulation therapy.

284
Q

What is the role of crystal violet in MacConkey agar?

A

Inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria

Crystal violet helps select for gram-negative organisms in culture.

285
Q

What does high WBCs in urine indicate?

A

UTI & pyelonephritis

Elevated white blood cells suggest infection in the urinary tract.

286
Q

Define proficiency tests.

A

External quality control evaluating laboratory testing results by comparison

Proficiency testing ensures accuracy and reliability in lab results.

287
Q

What does elution mean in a laboratory context?

A

Removal of antibodies attached to the surface of a red blood cell

Elution is used in identifying specific antibodies.

288
Q

What are missing epitopes of the D antigen referred to as?

A

Partial D antigen

This can complicate blood typing and transfusion compatibility.

289
Q

What are the features of iron deficiency anemia?

A

Microcytosis (microcytic hypochromic anemia)

This is characterized by smaller and paler red blood cells.

290
Q

Where is the Philadelphia chromosome seen?

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

This chromosomal abnormality is a hallmark of CML.

291
Q

What enzyme is specific for osteoporosis?

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Elevated ALP can indicate increased bone turnover.

292
Q

What is the risk associated with HPV-18?

A

High risk of cervical cancer

HPV-18 is one of the high-risk types linked to cervical carcinogenesis.

293
Q

If PT and PTT results are normal, which factor is likely deficient?

A

Factor XI

Factor XI deficiency often does not affect PT or PTT significantly.

294
Q

What media does Vibrio cholerae grow on?

A

TCBS media (Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose)

This selective media supports the growth of Vibrio species.

295
Q

What is the characteristic of Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic bacteria that are optochin sensitive?

A

S. pneumoniae

This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and other infections.

296
Q

What type of bacteria has a drumstick-like appearance?

A

C. tetani

This appearance is characteristic of the bacterium that causes tetanus.

297
Q

What stain is used for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Albert stain

This stain highlights the metachromatic granules of the bacteria.

298
Q

What conditions lead to high urea, creatinine, and ammonia levels?

A

Due to high protein consumption

These levels can indicate kidney function or dietary intake.

299
Q

What type of crystal is found in renal tubular acidosis (RTA)?

A

Calcium salts (Calcium phosphate, calcium carbonate)

These crystals can indicate disturbed calcium metabolism.

300
Q

What bacterium causes pharyngitis?

A

S. pyogenes

This bacterium is responsible for strep throat.

301
Q

What parasite is associated with vaginal discharge and itching?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

This protozoan causes trichomoniasis.

302
Q

What are examples of X-linked diseases?

A

Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency), Hemophilia B (factor IX deficiency)

Hemophilia C is autosomal recessive (factor XI deficiency).

303
Q

What is the predominant type of white blood cell?

A

Neutrophil

Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cells in the human body.

304
Q

What is the predominant complement component?

A

C3, C3b

C3 is central to the complement system and immune response.

305
Q

What type of anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

This type of anemia results from impaired DNA synthesis.

306
Q

What is associated with hypersegmented neutrophils?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

Hypersegmented neutrophils are a classic finding in this condition.

307
Q

Where should safety data sheets be located?

A

In an area available for all staff

Accessibility is essential for safety compliance.

308
Q

What is the color code for abduction?

A

Pink

Color codes are used for various emergency protocols in healthcare settings.

309
Q

What test differentiates between alpha and beta thalassemia?

A

Hb electrophoresis

This test analyzes the types of hemoglobin present.

310
Q

Which hormones increase blood glucose levels?

A

Cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, T3, T4, ACTH, growth hormone

These hormones play roles in glucose metabolism.

311
Q

What do beta cells of the pancreas secrete?

A

Insulin

Insulin regulates blood glucose levels.

312
Q

What do alpha cells of the pancreas secrete?

A

Glucagon

Glucagon raises blood glucose levels during fasting.

313
Q

Which organ produces erythropoietin?

A

Kidney

Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.

314
Q

What hormone is responsible for sodium, potassium, and water reabsorption?

A

Aldosterone

Aldosterone plays a key role in fluid and electrolyte balance.

315
Q

What condition is indicated by high liver enzymes, specifically GGT?

A

Cholestasis

Elevated GGT can indicate liver dysfunction or bile duct obstruction.

316
Q

What does polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) detect?

A

IgG and C3 coated RBCs

This test is used in blood banking to detect antibodies.

317
Q

What does monospecific AHG detect?

A

Either IgG or C3

This allows for more specific identification of antibodies.

318
Q

What does high ALP indicate?

A

Paget disease

Elevated ALP levels can also indicate liver disease or bone disorders.

319
Q

From which DNA strand can RNA be made?

A

Positive strand DNA (+ve sense)

This is the strand used as a template for RNA synthesis.

320
Q

What is the normal urine pH?

A

Acidic (4 to 8), average (5-6)

Urine pH can vary based on diet and metabolic state.

321
Q

What does a positive ANA and positive RF indicate?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

These tests are used to screen for autoimmune disorders.

322
Q

What symptoms are associated with polyuria, weight loss, and high glucose?

A

Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

These are classic signs of uncontrolled diabetes.

323
Q

What type of tube is used for coagulation studies?

A

Sodium citrate (Na citrate)

This anticoagulant is essential for accurate coagulation testing.

324
Q

What is the value of MCV in macrocytic anemia?

A

High

Macrocytic anemia is characterized by larger than normal red blood cells.

325
Q

What elevated hemoglobin is seen in beta thalassemia major?

A

HbF (Fetal Hemoglobin)

HbF levels are often elevated as a compensatory mechanism.

326
Q

What abnormal hemoglobin is found in alpha thalassemia?

A

Hb Bart, Hb H

These hemoglobins are indicative of severe forms of alpha thalassemia.

327
Q

What does the sickle solubility test depend on?

A

HbS (Sickle Hemoglobin)

This test helps screen for sickle cell disease.

328
Q

What conditions show reticulocytosis?

A

Hemolytic anemia, hemorrhage, blood loss, leukemia, sickle cell anemia, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, treatment of vitamin B12, IDA, folate deficiency

Reticulocytosis indicates an increased production of red blood cells.

329
Q

What causes paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?

A

Anti-P antibodies

PCH is a rare form of hemolytic anemia.

330
Q

What cells are part of the innate immunity?

A

Neutrophil, monocyte, basophil, eosinophil, macrophage, dendritic cell

These cells play critical roles in the immediate immune response.

331
Q

If a patient has blood group A2 with anti-A1, what blood group is suitable for transfusion?

A

A2 or O

Compatibility is essential to avoid transfusion reactions.

332
Q

What blood group should a patient with anti-E receive?

A

Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E antigen)

This ensures compatibility and reduces the risk of hemolytic reactions.

333
Q

What is the heterozygous reaction for Lutheran (Lu)?

A

Lu (a+b+)

This refers to the Lutheran blood group antigen system.

334
Q

What is the homozygous reaction for Lutheran Lu (a)?

A

Lu (a+b-)

This indicates a lack of the b antigen in homozygous individuals.

335
Q

What are the Duffy group antigens?

A

Fy (a), Fy (b)

Duffy antigens are significant in blood transfusion and malaria susceptibility.

336
Q

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

A

In the thymus

The thymus is essential for the development of T cells.

337
Q

What are the signs of low CSF glucose, high lactate, and high protein?

A

Bacterial or fungal meningitis

These findings indicate an infection in the central nervous system.

338
Q

What test is used for H. pylori detection?

A

Urea breath test

This non-invasive test detects H. pylori by measuring carbon dioxide in breath.

339
Q

What is the normal highest electrolyte level in the body?

A

Sodium (Na 135-145)

Sodium is crucial for fluid balance and nerve function.

340
Q

What is the major cation of intracellular fluid?

A

Potassium (K)

Potassium is vital for cellular function and muscle contraction.

341
Q

What causes high prolactin levels?

A

Infertility

Elevated prolactin can inhibit ovulation and contribute to infertility.

342
Q

What medium is used for electrophoresis?

A

Agarose gel

Agarose gel electrophoresis separates nucleic acids and proteins based on size.

343
Q

What are ghost cells?

A

RBCs in hypotonic urine

Ghost cells appear when red blood cells are lysed in dilute urine.

344
Q

What is the main corticosteroid hormone?

A

Cortisol

Cortisol is involved in stress response and metabolism regulation.

345
Q

What does a positive CEA indicate?

A

Carcinomas of the colorectal (colon), pancreas, breast, and stomach

CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen) is a tumor marker used in cancer diagnosis.

346
Q

What type of bacteria are gram-negative coccobacilli that grow on chocolate agar?

A

H. influenzae

This bacterium can cause respiratory infections and meningitis.

347
Q

How do bacteria move?

A

By flagellum

Flagella are whip-like structures that enable motility.

348
Q

What concentration technique is used to look for parasites?

A

Sediment

This technique helps concentrate parasites in a sample.

349
Q

What is a characteristic of pleural fluid sample exudate?

A

High protein

Exudate indicates inflammation or infection in the pleural space.

350
Q

What is the most common type of laboratory error?

A

Preanalytical errors

These errors occur before the analysis of samples.

351
Q

What causes air bubbles in tissue artifacts?

A

Poor floatation technique

This can lead to inadequate adherence of tissue to slides.

352
Q

What is the temperature of the water bath during tissue processing?

A

10°C below the melting point of paraffin wax

This temperature is critical for effective embedding.

353
Q

What is the most common type of urine cast?

A

Hyaline cast

Hyaline casts can be seen in normal and pathological conditions.

354
Q

What cleaves C3 in the complement system?

A

C3 convertase

C3 convertase is essential for the activation of the complement pathway.

355
Q

What condition is indicated by high thyroid hormone levels?

A

Hyperthyroidism

Hyperthyroidism leads to increased metabolism and various systemic effects.

356
Q

What should a lab technician do after a needlestick injury?

A

Wash the wound

Immediate washing reduces the risk of infection.

357
Q

What bacteria are catalase positive and coagulase positive?

A

S. aureus

S. aureus is a common pathogen responsible for various infections.

358
Q

What methods are used for detecting chromosomal translocations?

A

FISH, cytogenetic analysis, karyotyping, DNA microarray, PCR, and immunohistochemistry (IHC)

These methods are essential in oncology for diagnosing specific cancers.

359
Q

What blood group will a child have if the mother is blood group O and the father is blood group A?

A

Codominant expression

The child can inherit either A or O blood group alleles.

360
Q

What is enriched media?

A

Medium containing natural proteins like blood, hemoglobin, serum, growth factors

Enriched media supports the growth of fastidious organisms.

361
Q

What is the term for an overactive thyroid condition?

A

Hyperthyroidism

362
Q

What should be done immediately after a lab technician sustains a needlestick injury?

A

Wash the wound

363
Q

What bacteria is catalase positive and coagulase positive?

A

S. aureus

364
Q

What methods are used to detect chromosomal translocations?

A
  • FISH
  • Cytogenetic analysis
  • Karyotyping
  • DNA microarray
  • PCR
  • Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
365
Q

If a mother has blood group O and a father has blood group A, what is the inheritance pattern for their child?

A

Codominant

366
Q

What is enriched media?

A

Medium containing natural proteins like blood, hemoglobin, serum, and growth factors

367
Q

Which bacteria is known to cause bacillary dysentery?

A

Shigella

368
Q

If a fresh blood sample is sent for a PT test and an APTT test is requested later, what should the technologist do?

A

Request a new sample for APTT

369
Q

What test should be performed next for a 12-year-old girl with fatigue and positive RPR?

A

HIV test by ELISA

370
Q

What is the primary hemoglobin in patients with thalassemia major?

A

Hgb F

371
Q

How is the interaction strength between an antigen and antibody characterized?

A

Affinity

372
Q

Which statement about urine collection for routine bacteriologic culture is inappropriate?

A

The sample may be held at 2°C—8°C for up to 48 hours prior to plating

373
Q

Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?

A

Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours

374
Q

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?

A

Perform additional testing such as typing with anti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B

375
Q

What can cause a brown or black pigment in urine?

A
  • Gantrisin (Pyridium)
  • Phenolsulfonphthalein
  • Rifampin
  • Melanin
376
Q

What condition is suggested by a 1-year-old infant with recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising?

A

von Willebrand’s disease

377
Q

Which typing results are most likely to occur when a patient has an acquired B antigen?

A
  • Anti-A 4+
  • Anti-B 3+
  • A1 cells neg
  • B cells neg
378
Q

What does the Fc receptor bind?

A

Fc portion of antibody heavy chain

379
Q

What is the critical cytotoxic lymphocyte in innate immunity?

A

Natural killer cell (NK cell)

380
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

High RDW

381
Q

What is the structure of IgM?

A

Pentameric

382
Q

Which immunoglobulin has the highest concentration in the serum?

A

IgG

383
Q

Which bacteria are known to cause abortion?

A
  • C. perfringens
  • Bacteroides fragilis
  • Brucella
  • G. vaginalis
  • N. gonorrhea
  • L. monocytogenes
384
Q

What is the Ag binding site of an antibody called?

A

Fab (paratop)

385
Q

What are the steps of PCR?

A
  • Denaturation
  • Annealing
  • Extension
386
Q

What is the function of plasmin?

A

Fibrinolysis, removing fibrin deposits

387
Q

What is a common marker of immature B and T cells?

A

tdt

388
Q

What stains are used for sperm viability?

A
  • Eosin
  • Eosin-nigrosin
389
Q

What condition is indicated by a patient with an 88-year-old history of ABO discrepancy?

A

Weak antibody reaction

390
Q

What is the term for transplantation of cartilage from one person to another?

A

Allograft transplantation

391
Q

How can one differentiate S. aureus from other staphylococci?

A

Coagulase test

392
Q

What is the most suitable blood component for a patient with coagulation factors deficiency?

A

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

393
Q

What is the reagent used in the indole test?

A

Kovacs reagent

394
Q

Which type of leukemia is associated with basophilia?

A

CML

395
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b?

A

C3 convertase

396
Q

What parasitic infection shows eosinophilia and larvae in stool without eggs?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis infection

397
Q

What type of globulin is immunoglobulin?

A

Gamma globulin

398
Q

What antibody is produced in the secondary immune response?

A

IgG

399
Q

What antibody is produced in the primary immune response?

A

IgM

400
Q

What is the most nitrogenous product in the body?

A

BUN, urea

401
Q

What condition is characterized by proteinuria?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

402
Q

Which coagulation factors are involved in contact activation?

A
  • Factor XII
  • PK
  • HMWK
403
Q

What is synovial fluid?

A

Fluid from the joints

404
Q

What metabolic processes are involved in catabolism and anabolism?

A

Citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)

405
Q

What is Bence Jones protein tested for?

A

Heat test at 40-60 C

406
Q

What is the primary method of differentiating between hyaline and waxy casts?

A

Refractivity

407
Q

What stain is used for DNA?

A

Ethidium bromide

408
Q

What is the last step in an ELISA?

A

Add substrate or stop solution

409
Q

What is the second most common cause of fungal infection after Candida?

A

Aspergillus

410
Q

What type of gloves are used for handling chemical bottles?

A

Nitrile gloves

411
Q

What condition is indicated by a patient with lockjaw?

A

Tetanus

412
Q

What protein is responsible for iron binding in the body?

A

Transferrin

413
Q

What does CBAHI stand for?

A

Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions

414
Q

What is the most common type of urine sample collected?

A

Random urine sample

415
Q

What is the method for quantifying electrolytes?

A

Ion selective electrode (ISE)

416
Q

What is the aeration requirement for Enterobacteriaceae?

A

Aerobic and anaerobic

417
Q

What condition is Glanzmann disease associated with?

A

Defect in platelet aggregation

418
Q

What are Kell antigens?

A

K, k antigens

419
Q

What causes turbid semen?

A

Presence of WBCs

420
Q

Which antigens show dosage effects?

A
  • C, c
  • E, e
  • Fya, Fyb
  • M, N
  • S, s
  • Ka, Kb
421
Q

What is the most common type of H. influenzae?

A

Type B

422
Q

What is the color of amorphous phosphate?

A

White, gray, colorless

423
Q

What is the marker for alcoholic liver disease?

A

GGT

424
Q

What is the marker of thyroid cancer?

A

Calcitonin

425
Q

What is indicated by normal hemoglobin and normal MCV?

A

Normocytic/normochromic RBCs

426
Q

Which organism is known to have no cell wall?

A

Mycoplasma

427
Q

What should be done if a sample shows cold agglutination?

A

Warm at 37 C and rerun

428
Q

What are the steps in tissue processing?

A
  • Fixation
  • Dehydration
  • Clearing
  • Impregnation
  • Embedding and blocking
  • Sectioning
  • Staining
429
Q

What is a potential cause of a wound that does not heal?

A

Factor XIII deficiency

430
Q

What can cause gray patches around the cornea?

A

High cholesterol (familial hypercholesterolemia)

431
Q

What extra abnormality might be seen in a vegetarian with ovalocytes and target cells?

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils

432
Q

What condition is indicated by cottage cheese vaginal discharges?

A

Candida infection

433
Q

What bacteria are associated with drinking raw sheep milk?

A

Brucella

434
Q

What bacteria can cause a bacterial infection from uncooked rice?

A

Bacillus cereus

435
Q

What is urease positive and found in stool?

A

Proteus

436
Q

What test is prolonged in a patient treated with heparin?

A

APTT

437
Q

What is the procedure for minor cross matching?

A

Patient cell + donor plasma

438
Q

What is the procedure for major cross matching?

A

Patient plasma + donor cells

439
Q

What is the RF marker in autoimmune diseases?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

440
Q

What are the age categories for children according to WHO?

A
  • Neonate: birth to 1 month
  • Infant: 1 month to 2 years
  • Children: 2 to 12 years
441
Q

What is required for AB negative blood type to receive FFP?

A

AB negative/positive

442
Q

What type of bilirubin is elevated in obstructive jaundice?

A

Direct bilirubin

443
Q

What is the confirmatory test for HIV?

A

Western Blot (WB)

444
Q

What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid?

A

Na

445
Q

What markers are associated with Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

A
  • CD5
  • CD19
  • CD23
446
Q

What condition is characterized by the presence of giant platelets?

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

447
Q

What is the primary function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis

448
Q

What does a positive catalase test indicate?

A

Positive in staphylococci, negative in streptococci

449
Q

What are the three main steps in urine formation?

A
  • Filtration
  • Reabsorption
  • Secretion
450
Q

What is the immediate action after rescuing and activating an alarm in case of fire?

A

Contain fire + close doors

451
Q

What is the null Duffy phenotype?

A

Fy(a-,b-)

452
Q

What is the expected increase in hematocrit after a blood transfusion?

A

3%

453
Q

What is prohibited from patient reports?

A

Intern students

454
Q

What is the primary cause of atherosclerosis?

A

High LDL

455
Q

What causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis?

A

Naegleria fowleri

456
Q

What is the function of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?

A

Binds platelets to promote adhesion and stabilizes factor VIII

457
Q

What condition is rickets associated with?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

458
Q

What test is used for Group A and D streptococci?

A

PYR test

459
Q

What is a sign of pinworm infection?

A

Perianal itching

460
Q

What does the herpes simplex virus cause?

A

Painful lesions

461
Q

What are the types of crossmatch?

A
  • 2
  • Minor
  • Major
462
Q

What is the age range for T cells in whole blood?

A

80%

463
Q

What condition is characterized by a moon face or buffalo hump?

A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome)

464
Q

What is the genotype for blood group A?

A

A0 or AA

465
Q

What are the genes associated with genetic breast cancer?

A
  • BRCA 1
  • BRCA 2
  • HER2
466
Q

What causes Chicago disease?

A

Blastomyces (blastomycosis)

467
Q

What is nitrocellulose used for?

A

Southern blotting

468
Q

What represents the characteristic normal range?

A

Characteristic of 95% of values from a normal population

469
Q

What is the practice of maintaining patient record confidentiality called?

A

Medical privacy

470
Q

What does a positive D-dimer indicate?

A

DIC

471
Q

How is the CK-MB index calculated?

A

CK-MB/CK x 100

472
Q

What unit is used for reporting enzyme activity?

A

Activity unit

473
Q

What is the method for bacterial identification and sensitivity testing?

A

Micro scan walk way

474
Q

What components are found in Coombs reagent?

A

Anti-human globulin antibody against IgG and C3d

475
Q

What type of filter is used in laboratories?

A

HEPA filter

476
Q

What is the basal brain gland?

A

Pituitary gland

477
Q

What parameter is used for measuring erythropoiesis?

A

Reticulocyte count

478
Q

What organism is identified by a trophozoite with ingested RBCs?

A

E. histolytica

479
Q

What is the marker for T-helper cells?

A

CD4

480
Q

What immunohistochemistry test is performed for adenocarcinoma from breast tissue?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

481
Q

What condition is indicated by abdominal pain and diarrhea with a positive string test?

A

Giardia

482
Q

What test should be performed for a woman with joint pain and deformity?

A

Rheumatoid Factor (RF)

483
Q

What condition is indicated by the presence of ketone bodies?

A

Ketoacidosis

484
Q

What is associated with lupus anticoagulant?

A

Prolonged APTT

485
Q

What does the Elek test detect?

A

C. diphtheriae

486
Q

What causes a fruity odor in urine?

A

Acetone

487
Q

What does GVHD stand for?

A

Graft-versus-host disease

488
Q

What stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol and aldosterone?

A

ACTH

489
Q

What is the function of PCO in the body?

A

Maintain pH

490
Q

What organ uses the most glucose in the body?

A

Brain

491
Q

What enzyme indicates hepatocellular disease?

A

ALT

492
Q

What are the needle tip crystals indicative of alkaline urine?

A

Calcium phosphate

493
Q

What bacteria causes green pigment on MacConkey agar?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

494
Q

What is the most common bacteria causing food poisoning?

A
  • S. saprophyticus
  • S. epidermidis
  • S. aureus
  • Micrococcus
495
Q

What should be the doctor’s action if a patient has a positive RPR and unprotected sex?

A

Screening test should be followed by a confirmatory test

496
Q

What bacteria is responsible for whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertussis

497
Q

Which fungus can be seen by dark field microscopy and Indian ink?

A

C. neoformans

498
Q

What process is used for dehydrating tissue?

A

Alcohol

499
Q

What is the purpose of the trypsin and Giemsa staining?

A

Chromosomal studies

500
Q

What condition is indicated by three missing alpha genes?

A

Hb-H disease

501
Q

PCR for HIV?

A

RNA amplification.

502
Q

Patient with null kidd he has what Ab

A

Anti-k3.

503
Q

Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes

A

Duffy (Fya, Fyb).

504
Q

In the room temperature there is 2+ reaction but in 37C and AHG phases there is no reaction what anti-body is suspected to present?

A

Cold Ab.

505
Q

Urine type for culture?

A

Mid clean catch MSU.

506
Q

T P H A principle?

A

Sheep RBCs or gel particles sensitized with Tpallidum sonicate.

507
Q

How to solve rouleaux formation problem?

A

Saline replacement technique.

508
Q

if patent has respiratory acidosis what is the urine pH

A

Below 5.5, acidic.

509
Q

Bacteria cause endocarditis?

A

Viridans (vancomycin sensitive), enterococci (vancomycin resistance).

510
Q

Sickle cell anemia substitution?

A

A to T

511
Q

Women with first child and has a cat

A

Toxoplasmosis.

512
Q

Confirmatory test for pheochromorcytoma?

A

Catecholamine in urine (24h).

513
Q

Microaerophilic organism?

A

Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori

514
Q

Smallest amount that cause death?

A

Poison

515
Q

Usually seen in the female urine, young sexually a c t i v e females?

A

S. saprophyticus

516
Q

Sterilization?

A

Autoclave

517
Q

Correct about PT?

A

Stable for 24 h if capped

518
Q

Acquired B found in?

A

A and AB group

519
Q

CD marker during the first stage of T cell?

A

CD2

520
Q

Spiral hyphae?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

521
Q

Nocturnal parasite?

A

• W. bancrofti, B. malayi, B. timori
• Note loa loa with diurnal periodicity
• M. perstans and M. ozzardi are nocturnal and diurnal (no periodicity)

522
Q

Stain for trypanosoma?

A

Giemsa stain

523
Q

Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody?

A

Duffy, M. N, S

524
Q

Wood lamp

A

Fungal examination.

525
Q

White Piedra?

A

• Trichosporon spp
• Note that black Piedra caused by Piedraia hortae

526
Q

Neutralizing acidic spill?

A

Backing soda

527
Q

Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by activation of factor VI ?

A

Tissue factor

528
Q

Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo? in vitro clot formation and not in vivo coagulation?

A

Xlla

529
Q

Which results would be expected for the prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) in a patient with polycythemia?

A

Both prolonged

530
Q

What reagents are used in the PT test?

A

Thromboplastin and calcium

531
Q

A modification of which procedure can be used to measure fibrinogen?

A

Thrombin time

532
Q

Which of the following characterizes vitamin K?

A

It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation
factors

533
Q

Which statement about the fibrinogen/fibrin degradation product test is correct?

A

It detects late degradation products (D and E)

534
Q

Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test?

A

XlI, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, Il, l

535
Q

Which coagulation tests) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-deficient patient?

A

PT and APTT.

536
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)?

A

It standardizes PT results

537
Q

Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous activator of
plasminogen?

A

Tissue plasminogen activator

538
Q

A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is?

A

Factor I

539
Q

In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results in response to?

A

Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis

540
Q

Which of the following clotting factors are activated by thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-VIla)?

A

V and Vlll

541
Q

Which of the following antibodies is used in the D-dimer assay?

A

Monoclonal against D-dimer

542
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by?

A

Increased platelet aggregation

543
Q

Thrombocytopenia may be associated with?

A

Hypersplenism

544
Q

Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which
enzyme?

A

Cyclo-oxygenase

545
Q

Normal platelet adhesion depends upon?

A

Glycoprotein Ib

546
Q

Which of the following test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Platelet count

547
Q

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with?

A

Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

548
Q

When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation results would most likely be associated with Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A

Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; decreased aggregation to Ristocetin

549
Q

Which set of platelet responses would be most likely associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?

A

Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine

550
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Spontaneous remission within a few weeks

551
Q

TTP differs from DIC in that?

A

APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC

552
Q

Which of the following is associated with post-transfusion purpura (PTP)?

A

Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/ alloantibodies

553
Q

Storage pool deficiencies are defects of

A

Platelet granules

554
Q

Lumi-aggregation measures?

A

Platelet aggregation and ATP release

555
Q

Neurological findings may be commonly associated with which of the
following disorders?

A

TTP

556
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Autoimmune disease

557
Q

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of?

A

Connective tissue

558
Q

Which of the following prevents platelet aggregation?

A

Prostacyclin

559
Q

Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome?

A

Alpha granule defect

560
Q

The P2Y12 ADP receptor agonist assay may be used to monitor platelet aggregation inhibition to which of the following drugs?

A

Clopidogrel (Plavix).

561
Q

Which of the following instruments can be used to evaluate platelet function

A

A. Platelet aggregometer B. VerifyNow C. PFA-100 D. Al of the above.

562
Q

Which of the following platelet aggregating agents demonstrates a monophasic aggregation curve when used in optimal concentration?

A

Collagen

563
Q

Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?

A

Immunologic fibrinogen level.

564
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of classic hemophilia A?

A

Mild to severe bleeding episodes.

565
Q

Refer to the following results: PT = prolonged APTT = prolonged, Platelet
count = decreased. Which disorder may be indicated?

A

DIC

566
Q

Which of the following is a predisposing condition for the development of DIC?

A

Adenocarcinoma

567
Q

The following results were obtained on a patient: normal platelet count and function, normal PT, and prolonged APTT. Which of the following disorders si most consistent with these results?

A

Hemophilia A.

568
Q

The following laboratory results were obtained from a 40-year-old woman: PT = 20 sec; APTT = 50 sec; thrombin time = 18 sec. What is the most probable
diagnosis?

A

Hypofibrinogenemia

569
Q

The most suitable product for treatment of factor VI deficiency is?

A

• Factor VIII concentrate

570
Q

Which of the following is associated with an abnormal platelet aggregation test

A

Afibrinogenemia.

571
Q

Refer to the following results: PT =normal APTT =prolonged, Bleeding time= increased, Platelet count = normal Platelet aggregation to ristocetin = abnormal Which of the following disorders may be indicated?

A

von Willebrand’s disease

572
Q

Which results are associated with hemophilia A?

A

Prolonged APTT, normal PT

573
Q

Patient History A3-year-old male was admitted to a hospital with scattered petechiae and epistaxis. The patient had normal growth and had no other medical problems except for chickenpox 3 weeks earlier. His family history was unremarkable. PT: 1 sec, PTT: 32 sec, platelets count: 18x103⁄4L.

A

ІТР

574
Q

Patient History A 12-year-old white male has the following symptoms: visible bruising on arms and legs, bruising after sports activities, and excessive postoperative hemorrhage following tonsillectomy 3 months ago. His family history revealed that his mother suffers from heavy menstrual bleeding, and his maternal grandfather had recurrent nosebleeds and bruising.

A

Von Willebrand disease

575
Q

The following laboratory results were obtained on a 25-year-old woman with menorrhagia after delivery of her second son. The patient has no previous bleeding history. Normal platelet count; normal bleeding time; normal PT;
prolonged APTT Mixing of the patient’s plasma with normal plasma corrected the prolonged APTT on immediate testing. However, mixing followed by 2-hour incubation at 37°C caused a prolonged APTT. What is the most probable cause of these laboratory results?

A

Factor VIll inhibitor

576
Q

A62-year-old female presents with jaundice and the following laboratory data: Peripheral blood smear: macrocytosis, target cells, Platelet count: 355 x 109/L PT: 25 sec (reference range =10-14) APTT: 65 sec (reference range = 28-
36) Transaminases: elevated (AST:ALT> 1) Total and direct bilirubin: elevated. These clinical presentations and laboratory results are consistent with?

A

Cirrhosis of the liver

577
Q

Aplasma sample submitted to the lab for PT testing has been stored for 25 hours at 4°C. The PT result is shortened. What is the most probable cause?

A

Activation of factor VIll due to exposure to cold temperature

578
Q

The APTT results are not elevated in a patient receiving heparin. Which of the following factors may be associated with the lack of response to heparin therapy in this patient?

A

Antithrombin deficiency

579
Q

A50-year-old patient was admitted to the emergency department complaining of pain in her right leg. Her leg was red, swollen, and warm to the touch. Deep venous thrombosis was suspected, and the patient was started on heparin therapy. Which of the following is (are) the proper protocol to evaluate patients receiving heparin therapy?

A

A baseline APTT and platelet count; APTT testing every 6 hours until the target is reached.

580
Q

A30-year-old female was referred to the hospital for evaluation for multiple spontaneous abortions and current complaint of pain and swelling in her right leg. Her family history is unremarkable.

A

Lupus anticoagulant.

581
Q

A60-year-old patient was admitted to a hospital for a liver biopsy. The biopsy was scheduled for 11:00 a.m. The coagulation results performed at the time of admission revealed a prolonged PT with an INR of 4.5. What is the physician’s most appropriate course of action?

A

Cancel the procedure and start the patient on vitamin K therapy

582
Q

Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test

A

Xll Xl lX Vlll X V ll l

583
Q

Normal platelets count and function, normal PT, prolonged APTT ?

A

Hemophilia A

584
Q

Which drug may be associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

A

Oral contraceptives.

585
Q

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c

A

r ‘ ry

586
Q

What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody

A

rr

587
Q

AAA (acetoacetic acid is detected in urine by reaction with?

A

Sodium nitroprusside.

588
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the dry reagent strip test for bilirubin is true?

A

The test detects only conjugated bilirubin

589
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with a high level of S-type amylase?

A

Mumps

590
Q

What is the most likely cause of the following CSF results?
Glucose: 20 mg/dL, protein: 200 mg/dL, lactate: 50 mg/dL (normal 5-25 mg/dL

A

Acute bacterial meningitis

591
Q

Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following except?

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

592
Q

Four units of packed RBCs were brought to the nurses’ station at 10:20 a.m. Two units were transfused immediately, and 1 unit was transfused at 10:40 a.m. The remaining unit was returned to the blood bank at 11:00 a.m. The units were
not refrigerated after leaving the blood bank. What problem(s) is (are) present in this situation?

A

The only problem is with the returned unit; the 30-minute limit has expired, and the unit cannot be used

593
Q

What should be done fi all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?

A

Wash the cells with warm saline,autoadsorb the serum at 4°C

594
Q

Which laboratory test is affected by heparin therapy

A

Thrombin time

595
Q

Apatient’s red cells forward as group O, serum agglutinates Bcells (4+) only. Your next step would be:

A

Incubate washed red cells with anti-A1 and anti-A,B for 30 minutes at room
temperature

596
Q

Al of the following are characteristic findings in a patient with iron deficiency anemia except

A

Increased RBC protoporphyrin

597
Q

Which antibodies to a component of complement are contained in the rabbit polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent for detection of in vivo sensitization?

A

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

598
Q

Plasma or serum treatment with DT (dithiothreitol/thiol reagent) for?

A

• Dissolves and eliminate the activity of IgM antibody, so testing of IgM will
be negative.
• And eliminate Kel antigen, LW, Lutheran, JMH and Yta antigen.

599
Q

Howell-Jolly Bodies seen in?

A

Splenectomy or in hyposplenism/Asplenia (non-functioning spleen).

600
Q

Immunoglobulin with shortest half-life?

A

IgE ( 1 to 5 days)

601
Q

Which o the following not related to liver enzymes

A

Ck

602
Q

Increase in which electrolyte will leads to cardiac arrest?

A

Hyperkalemia (K).

603
Q

Increase in which electrolyte will leads to cardiac arrest?

A

Hyperkalemia (K).

Prometric (3 decks)

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