Project Management Flashcards

1
Q

Owner

A

The party with the overall responsibility for a project beginning from inception and ending with the project sale or occupancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

General Contract Method

A

A common procedure in which the owner of a project contracts with a single firm, often called a prime contractor, for its construction. This firm may contract with specialty contractors for portions of the work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Brokerage

A

A situation in which the general contractor subcontracts all the work on a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Separate Contracts Method (AKA Multiple Prime Contracts Method)

A

An arrangement by which the owner lets contracts directly to specialty contractors for various portions of the work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Self-performance Method

A

A mechanism by which no contracts are awarded for a construction project. The owner’s own workers or employees are solely responsible for the construction effort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Design-Build Method (AKA Design-Construct or Turnkey Construction)

A

An arrangement by which an owner lets a single contract for both the design and the construction of a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Professional Construction Management Method

A

A method in which the owner hires a construction management firm to perform professional services and represent the owner during the design and construction phases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Contract

A

An agreement, usually between two parties, that is enforceable by law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is a contract executed?

A

A contract is executed when both parties to the agreement have fully performed in accordance with the contracts terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is a contract executory?

A

A contract is executory when some portion of the agreement remains to be done. It may be executory on the part of both parties or on just one party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Unilateral Contract

A

A contract in which only one of the contracting parties makes a promise. The other party exchanges something other than a promise, commonly performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Express Contract

A

An agreement in which the terms of the agreement, whether verbal or written, are clear, concise, explicit, and definite. Virtually all written agreements could be classified as being express.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Implied Contract

A

An agreement in which the terms of the agreement are not clearly stated, but are established through inference and deduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Joint Arrangement

A

When individuals are joined, in a legal and liability sense, as one party in the action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What criteria must all contracts meet to be valid?

A

Offer and acceptance, a meeting of the minds, consideration (payment or something of value exchanged), lawful subject matter, and competent parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is an offer made?

A

An offer is considered to be made when one person signifies to another person a willingness to enter into a binding contract on certain specified terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is acceptance?

A

Acceptance creates the contract, provided it is made in the manner and at the time specified in the offer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can you revoke an offer?

A

An offer is revokable as long as it has not been accepted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a meeting of the minds?

A

When the contracting parties agree on the basic meaning and legal implications of a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is consideration?

A

An essential ingredient to a contract that implies something of value, commonly a stated sum of money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is lawful subject matter?

A

The subject of a contract must be definite and clearly defined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Estoppel

A

A principle by which a contract becomes binding in spite of the fact that no formal agreement was made between the parties concerned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Both contracting parties must be competent. Who is an incompetent party?

A

Infants, minors, persons insane and not mentally competent, and drunken persons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When does an assignment of contract occur?

A

When one party to an agreement transfers the rights or obligations of the agreement to another party who was not originally involved in the agreement, but became involved only after the assignment was made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sovereign immunity

A

A government entity cannot be sued without consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lien

A

A legal claim placed on real property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Real property or real estate

A

Land and all items physically attached to it, such as buildings, fences, utilities, and walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tax lien

A

The right of the government to retain possession of property until the tax on it has been paid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Eminent domain

A

The right of the federal government or a state or other public agency to take possession of private property and appropriate it for public use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Condemnation

A

The exercise of eminent domain to seize private property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prescription

A

The legal transfer of private property to a public agency or another private citizen that can occur when that property has been used by the public for a stipulated number of years. (hostile acquisition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dedication

A

When a private property owner grants the public to use the property in a certain manner. The owner cannot deny the use if the public uses it continuously. When the public stops that use, the private owner has free use of the property once again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How can highway property be obtained from private landowners?

A
  1. Outright or direct purchase (mutual agreement) 2. Eminent domain or condemnation proceedings (hostile acquisition) 3. Prescription (hostile acquisition) 4. Dedication (mutual agreement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Right-of-way

A

a tract of land, usually consisting of a series of connected parcels of property, that is used for the operation of a highway or public utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

easement

A

A restricted use of private land granted to another party. If the land is sold, the easement is generally transferred with the land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Zoning

A

A legal means by which a municipality dictates or limits the allowable use of a parcel of land. Also dictates buffers between unlike land uses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mechanic’s Lien

A

A right created by law that permits a worker (or material suppliers, subcontractors, and general contractors) to place a claim on land on which improvements have been made in case the worker is not paid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Stop Work Order

A

The project CA may submit in writing to the owner a notice for the contractor to cease work on all or a portion of a project. This is usually a last resort action to give time to resolve nonconforming work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Agency Agreements

A

an arrangement between a principle and an agent by which the agent agrees to perform certain tasks for the principle. The principle is bound by the actions of the agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cost-Plus Contract

A

For LA-based on actual time the designer spends to complete a task at an agreed upon hourly rate. Reimbursable expenses are added to the cost of services. (Contractor-a contract in which the contractor is reimbursed for specified incurred costs; with an additional allowance provided for overhead and profit.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Independent Contractor

A

A contractor hired to produce a product without being specifically supervised or constrained by specific means and methods of performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are four typical occupations where individuals are considered Statutory Employees?

A
  1. Full time life insurance salespersons, 2. agent drivers and commission drivers, 3. traveling or city salespersons, 4. Homeworkers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the three forms of business organizations?

A
  1. Proprietorships 2. Partnerships 3. Corporations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Proprietorships

A

A firm owned by an individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is income tax handled with a proprietorship?

A

The owner pays income tax on the company profits as personal income.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Partnership

A

An association of two or more persons to carry on a business. Each person acts as an agent for the other partners, and has the power to enter into binding contracts in the name of the partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is income tax handled with a partnership?

A

A partnership pays no income tax. It is not considered a separate legal entity apart from the individual owners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Limited Partner

A

A partner who contributes to a partnership and shares in the profits and losses, but provides no services and has no vote in matters of management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Silent Partner

A

A person who is a partner in a firm but remains unknown to the public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When a partnership dissolves, what is the priority in which debts of the partnership will be paid?

A
  1. Outside creditors are paid first 2. Repayment of loans or advances to the partnership made by any partner above and beyond the capital contributions stated in the articles of partnership 3. Return each partners capital investment 4. The remaining profits (if any) are distributed according to the partnership agreement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Joint Venture

A

A company formed by two or more companies in which the sole objective is typically to perform services and secure a contract that would not be possible for the individuals or companies to perform on their own.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Corporation

A

A corporation is owned by one or more individuals who form an independent body or unit under a special a corporate name. A legal entity (an artificial tax-paying individual) created to act as an individual while protecting the owners or stockholders in the firm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is income tax handled with a corporation?

A

The owners pay income tax only on the profits actually paid to them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Stockholders or Shareholders

A

The owners of a corporation. They are essentially limited to voting at company meetings, they are not agents of the corporation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Common Stock

A

A type of share typically referred to when shareholders are discussed, and entitles the owner to one vote per share.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Preferred Stock

A

A type of share that has a fixed rate of return and is guaranteed as long as a profit is made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Directors

A

Agents that are elected by stockholders in a corporation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Ultra Vires Contracts

A

Agreements made by corporations that go beyond the scope of a corporations implied or expressed powers, when an agent of a corporation acts outside of their authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Holding company

A

Essentially a big stockholder; a firm that has a dominant interest in one or more other companies where it can, through voting power, prescribe the management policies of those companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the difference between a corporation and a subchapter S corporation?

A

The big difference is that the S corporation does not generally pay income taxes as a separate legal entity; earnings are not taxed prior to distribution to shareholders so there is no double taxation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Exculpatory provision

A

contract clauses that shift liability from one of the contracting parties to the other. In the absence of such a clause, the shift will in risk will not occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tort Laws (Negligence and Liability)

A

legal term describing violation where one person causes damage, injury, or harm to another person (physical or emotional distress or violation of personal rights); wrongs committed against others that do not involve contracts. (Negligent - LA can be sued for designs that do not meet safety standards. Liability - LA can be sued for the infringement of intellectual property rights of others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Standard of Care

A

conduct that can reasonably be expected of other landscape architects in a similar situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are 4 general conditions that must be met for the attractive nuisance doctrine to apply?

A
  1. party controlling the property should know that children are likely to trespass 2. party should realize there is an unreasonable risk of death or serious injury on site 3. children will will not recognize the risk 4. party could reduce risk by keeping children out or reducing dangerous conditions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Contributory negligence

A

careless acts of an injured person that accompany the careless acts or physical conditions under the control of a second party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Surety

A

A bond company that guarantees or vouches for the performance or indebtedness of another party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Surety Bond

A

A guarantee provided by a firm that states that the contractor will fulfill the terms of the contract (A surety bond is not the same as insurance) (Analogous to a minor who must have an elder sign a contract to purchase an item on credit)

68
Q

Underwriting

A

rating the acceptability of risks being solicited (The surety conducts an underwriting procedure on contractors to determine their risk to give them a surety bond)

69
Q

Can a project have more than one surety?

A

Yes, some large projects have 5 or 6. Some surety firms do not have enough capital to issue a bond, so multiple firms join together to issue a bond)

70
Q

A surety bond from a surety cannot exceed what percent of the surety’s equity?

A

A surety cannot issue a single obligation that exceeds 10 percent of the surety’s equity.

71
Q

The Miller Act

A

An act that stipulates that surety bonds are required of construction contractors on all federal and federally assisted projects.

72
Q

Under the Miller Act, when are payment and performance bonds required?

A

When the contract exceeds $100,000 for the construction, alteration, or repair of any building or public work in the USA

73
Q

Under the Miller Act, a performance bond must equal what percent of the contract?

A

A performance bond must equal 100% of the contract.

74
Q

Performance Bond

A

A performance bond ensures the owner that a surety (financially responsible party) will stand behind the prime contractor if he/she does not perform properly

75
Q

Under the Miller Act, a payment bond is required for what amount?

A

A payment bond is required for no less than the face value of the performance bond, and should be determined by the contracting officer.

76
Q

What does a payment bond ensure?

A

A payment bond gives protection to the owner if subcontractors and suppliers are not paid by the prime contractor.

77
Q

Bid bond

A

A bid bond is issued to give assurance that the contractor will enter into a binding construction contract and will provide the required payment and performance bonds if the contract is awarded to them.

78
Q

How does a bid bond protect an owner?

A

If a contractor fails to sign the contract or furnish the required bonds, the bind stipulates that the surety will pay the damages (usually to pay the difference between the amounts of the low bidder and the next low bidder up to the face value of the bond)

79
Q

What is a contractors bonding capacity?

A

A contractors bonding capacity is the maximum amount of uncompleted work that a contractor can undertake at one time that is stipulated by the surety.

80
Q

A single bonded contract cannot exceed what percent of the bonding capacity?

A

50%. If a contractor has a $4 million bonding capacity, then they can by given bonds for projects up to $2 million in value.

81
Q

Notice to bid

A

Advertisements that are placed in newspapers, magazines, trade publications, etc., dictated by the jurisdiction of the owner and the type of project. The frequency and length of time advertised are also dictated by the jurisdiction.

82
Q

What are 4 specific procedures that must be followed to award a contract on public projects?

A
  1. Notice to bid must be given 2. Invitations to bid posted in public spaces and distributed to local construction community 3. Bidders must be treated alike and given the same opportunity to bid 4. Prequalifications may be required
83
Q

What is the public bid process normally referred to as?

A

The design-bid-build process (first the design is completed, then the bidding can take place, then the start of construction)

84
Q

What benefit does the prequalification process have for the owner?

A

the result is a select bidders list (a short list) which identifies firms that have demonstrated to the owner that they have the necessary abilities to perform the required work.

85
Q

Value Engineering

A

a review of the contract documents in relation to the owner’s objectives to determine if alternative methods or materials can be used.

86
Q

Bidding / Estimating Period

A

time allowed contractors to prepare an estimate for their bid.

87
Q

Addenda

A

formal changes or clarifications issued by the owner or owner’s representative to all identified bidders during the bidding period.

88
Q

Alternates (add alt or deduct alt)

A

selected items of work that bidders are asked to provide prices that will add to or subtract from the base bid. These items give the owner more flexibility when choosing items to add or delete from the contract.

89
Q

Bid Form

A

a form on which bids are to be submitted. This form will facilitate analysis and comparison of the bids so that irregularities can be detected quickly.

90
Q

Escrow estimate

A

A copy of the estimate from the low-bidding contractor that is sealed and submitted to the owner within a short period of time (usually a day). It is only viewed by the owner as necessary to resolve a dispute (escrow estimates are not a common practice)

91
Q

Notice to Proceed

A

a means of notifying the contractor about the decision to award the contract and specifying when the contract time will start. After the contractor returns a signed contract to the owner, the owner issues the notice to proceed.

92
Q

Give 4 examples of irregular or non-responsive bids

A
  1. bid bond provided by surety that is not on approved list 2. submitting a bid 2 minutes late 3. not submitting a bid on all alternates 4. failure to sign bid
93
Q

Mistakes of fact vs mistakes of judgement when nullifying a bid

A

Mistakes of fact are grounds for relieving the bidder of any further obligations. Mistakes in judgement provide no base for relief.

94
Q

Reverse auction bidding

A

An open website for bidders to submit bids. All bids can be viewed by bidders but are not identified as to who the bid came from. A bidder can bid multiple times to keep lowering their bid as needed.

95
Q

When will a project be broken out into multiple bid packages or contracts?

A

If a project is large and would exceed most contractors bonding capacities. Multiple contracts also allows a project to be completed in phases, or phases can be constructed at the same time by different contractors.

96
Q

What does a project manual consist of?

A

drawings, bidding documents, general conditions, supplementary provisions, and technical specifications.

97
Q

What are the general conditions / the boilerplate?

A

They establish the rights, obligations, and authority of the contracting parties; the owner, owner’s representative, and contractor

98
Q

Supplementary Conditions / Special Provisions / Special Conditions

A

Amending or augmenting the general conditions, more specific to the job being constructed

99
Q

Technical specifications generally follow a standard format that includes what 3 main areas of information?

A

General (defines scope of work to be performed), Product (describes materials, equipment, accessories, components; and their manufacturing process), and Execution (preparation, workmanship, installation, erection, and application procedures to be employed; quality requirements; and performance criteria)

100
Q

Performance Specification

A

describes the end result desired, not the method to accomplish it.

101
Q

Design Specifications

A

‘how to’ specifications that state exactly what the contractor is to do to satisfy the quality requirement.

102
Q

Closed Specification

A

a specification that is expressly restrictive in stating that only one or two products will satisfy the quality requirements, or is implied when performance is so narrowly prescribed that only one or two products will satisfy requirements

103
Q

Proprietary Specification

A

A closed specification that names a product model number and particular manufacturer. (An open proprietary spec would allow for substitutions, ‘or approved equal’)

104
Q

Open Specification

A

permit a wide variety of choices for acceptable products to be used, three or more

105
Q

Multiple Proprietary Specifications

A

An open or closed specification when more than one manufacturer is specified.

106
Q

Reference Specifications

A

References an established industry standard (AASHTO, ACI, ASTM, ANSI, etc) and makes items, established tests, or formal procedures a part of the contract documents by reference.

107
Q

difference between specifications that state ‘equal’ vs ‘approved equal’?

A

equal implies that the contractor can make the substitution, and approved equal must be accepted by architect/engineer

108
Q

Standard Specifications

A

a set of technical specs that have been developed by an owner.

109
Q

Cut sheets

A

information about a product provided in the manufacturers standard literature

110
Q

Give examples of when Shop Drawings may be needed

A

guardrails, sign posts, concrete forms, built-in furnishings

111
Q

As-built drawings (record drawings)

A

Record drawings are updated to reflect as-installed construction items and underground elements.

112
Q

Liquidated Damages

A

A specified sum of money that is charged against a contractor for each day the project completion is delayed. This amount is assumed to accurately reflect the anticipated costs of late completion.

113
Q

How is a contractor paid under a Unit Price Contract? And when are they appropriate?

A

For this contract, the various unit prices of work are determined before the start of construction. Overhead and profit must be factored into the unit prices. Use when a project is fairly well defined but the quantities may be hard to estimate before construction starts.

114
Q

Balanced vs Unbalanced bids

A

In a unit price contract, balanced bids accurately reflect the unit prices where as in unbalanced bids, the unit prices are altered to maybe get more money upfront in a project or give another advantage to the contractor.

115
Q

How is a contractor paid under a Cost-Plus Contract? And when are they appropriate?

A

In this contract, a contractor is reimbursed for most of the direct expenditures associated with a project plus an allowance for overhead and profit. Use when a project is difficult to estimate or when a project has a short completion period and plans and specification cannot be completed before construction. (Or remodeling or renovation)

116
Q

How is a contractor paid under a Lump Sum Contract? And when are they appropriate?

A

In this contract, the contractor will produce the project as designed for a stated specific sum of money. A payment schedule or schedule of values is determined at the beginning of the project, and the contractor is usually paid monthly per the schedule. Plans for the project must be fully completed so the contractor can estimate quantities accurately. Owners with a limited budget like this contract.

117
Q

It is common for changes clauses to have what 4 elements?

A
  1. The owner has the right to make changes within the general scope of the contract. 2. The contractor is obligated to perform the work necessitated by the change. 3. The change must be in written form and signed. 4. An adjustment to the contract price and/or contract duration will be assessed by some means or can be predetermined.
118
Q

Change order

A

Proposed changes that do affect the contract amount or time deadline, usually a directive in writing from the owner

119
Q

Field Change

A

A directive given by owner or designer in the field when a change has no impact on the contract’s amount or duration.

120
Q

Cardinal Changes

A

A change that is not within the general scope of the contract.

121
Q

Hold Harmless Clause

A

clause in contract where the liability is conveyed to the contractor

122
Q

Punch list

A

a list developed at substantial completion that itemizes all remaining work tasks that must be performed before a project reaches final completion

123
Q

Statute of Limitations

A

legal term for established length of time an individual or organization is responsible for certain actions and must therefore maintain adequate documentation in the event a claim is made.

124
Q

As-designed drawings

A

updated drawings as changes occur throughout project (different from as-built dwgs)

125
Q

Davis-Bacon Wages

A

An act passed in 1931 that establishes the requirement for paying local prevailing wages on pubic works projects (laborers, plumbers, carpenters, painters, etc…)

126
Q

Application for payment

A

contractor submits pay app for review by owners representative to determine if the payment requests resemble the work performed.

127
Q

Construction Observation

A

where LA observes construction at the directive of the owner to determine if the project is being built according to plans and specifications.

128
Q

name 8 basic services in a LA contract

A

Pre-design; site analysis; schematic design; design development, construction documents; bidding and negotiations; construction contract administration; postconstruction

129
Q

What are the 4 types of technical specifications?

A

Descriptive, Performance, Reference, and Proprietary

130
Q

Descriptive specification

A

describes methods of installation and materials desired on a project.

131
Q

Substantial Completion

A

a designation of when a project is sufficiently finished to be occupied by the owner. Typically, a certificate of substantial completion marks the beginning of any required warranty periods.

132
Q

Errors and omissions insurance

A

insurance involving tort laws; used to cover claims in regards to poor, inadequate, or dysfunctional design that caused an injury.

133
Q

Preliminary estimate of costs

A

During schematic design phase, prepare preliminary estimate of costs based on preferred design concept, materials selection, and preliminary details.

134
Q

RFP - Request for Proposal

A

An advertisement from an agency (federal, state, or local) seeking planning and design services. LA services fall under the heading of A/E services.

135
Q

Name three types of easements

A

Utility (gas/water/storm/sewer); Access (access to land locked parcels with no legal street access); Conservation (restrictions placed on parcel to restrict development)

136
Q

What are Predesign Services

A

when consultant provides necessary assistance to the client to establish or refine the clients program.

137
Q

What are the differences between schematic design and design development?

A

Schematic design comes first. In schematic design phase, goals are defined and design concepts are created; in design development the client approves a concept and the concept is refined.

138
Q

Post occupancy evaluation (POE)

A

the study of the effectiveness for human users of occupied designed environments after they have been designed, constructed, and occupied.

139
Q

Shop Drawings

A

drawings prepared by the contractor, supplier, manufacturer, subcontractor, or fabricator of a particular item to be installed on project.

140
Q

Construction Change Directive

A

directive for changes in the work where the owner and contractor have not reached an agreement on proposed changes in the contract sum or contract time.

141
Q

Final Inspection - what must contractor submit upon completion of the punch list?

A
  1. affidavit that payroll and materials bills have been paid 2. release and waivers of liens 3. bonding surety’s written consent
142
Q

Codes, Ordinances, and Regulations

A

federal, state, and local laws and regulations that must be addressed in the design of a project.

143
Q

Instructions to Bidders

A

The rules by which the project will be bid. Rules concern the bid itself and the project during construction.

144
Q

Arbitration

A

Methods to resolve disputes prior to taking legal action

145
Q

Name 3 main responsibilities of the designer

A
  1. produce a design that meets applicable codes 2. can be constructed within established budget 3. is functional in terms of the public’s health, safety, and welfare.
146
Q

Negotiated Contract

A

when the owner negotiates an agreement with a contracting firm in advance of the design documents completion. Contractor may provide a GMP.

147
Q

describe Predesign Phase

A

LA and owner determine desired outcome of project. LA creates a written program of all site elements and a probable cost of construction. Phase is complete when LA and owner agree upon scope of work, anticipated construction costs, and time schedule.

148
Q

describe Schematic Design Phase

A

Objective is to design a clearly defined, feasible concept while exploring alternate design solutions.

149
Q

describe Design Development Phase

A

LA expands upon schematic design concept and develops more detailed drawings. Outline specs are prepared listing major site materials and finishes. Verify all building codes.

150
Q

describe Construction Document Phase

A

detailed working drawings and specifications are created which the contractor will use to establish construction cost and build the project.

151
Q

Design Program

A

To be created with the owner and approved before beginning contractual negotiations. Design Program outlines the elements that make up the clients desired project end result.

152
Q

Design Service Contract

A

generally used for consulting services between LA and client, or LA and other consultant.

153
Q

Lump Sum compensation

A

based on an estimate of the total time and effort anticipated

154
Q

Percentage of Construction Cost compensation

A

typically 5-10% of construction costs

155
Q

Cost Plus compensation

A

based on actual amount of time designer spends to complete task, agreed upon hourly rates, reimbursable expenses are added to the cost of services.

156
Q

Hourly Not to Exceed compensation

A

based on actual amount of time designer spends to complete task at an agreed upon hourly rate, with a maximum amount not to exceed.

157
Q

Workers compensation insurance

A

compensation is granted for disability and medical treatment for injuries resulting from accidents occurring as a result of employment, regardless of fault.

158
Q

Key-Man insurance

A

insures a company against the heavy losses that can result from the untimely death of a principal

159
Q

Who is responsible for negotiation of the project schedule with the client?

A

The Prime Design Consultant

160
Q

Building Code

A

Minimum standards established by an agency or municipality to maintain the health, safety, and welfare of the public. Prior to breaking ground, state and local jurisdictions require that building permits are obtained.

161
Q

Covenants

A

restrictions and rules in addition to zoning and subdivision regulations applied to a specific parcel of land regulating the use or development of the land.

162
Q

Subdivision Regulations

A

Enforceable guidelines for subdividing land parcels, including road and street design, minimum lot sizes, required setbacks from property lines, required yards between buildings and property lines, utility design, etc.

163
Q

Design Guidelines

A

usually commissioned by the developer of a property to regulate design that will ultimately be provided by other design teams.

164
Q

OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration: a federal agency providing standards to protect worker safety and reduce hazardous conditions in the work environment.

165
Q

Who can procure permits for a project?

A

It is designated in the contract and can be one of the following: owner, designer, contractor, or permit procurement service.

166
Q

What are 6 responsibilities that the Prime Consultant has?

A
  1. control of design direction and focus 2. responsibility for sub-consultants work (additional liability) 3. coordination of sub-consultant docs 4. meeting established project deadlines 5. administration, billing and paper work 6. compensation for sub-consultants