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RAD1001/2001/3001 > Progress test > Flashcards

Progress test Flashcards

1
Q

What does PGD stand for?

A

Patient group directive

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2
Q

In a CONTROLLED area, workers are at risk of receiving how much of their annual occupational limit?

A

3/10 = 6mSv

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3
Q

What is DICOM the abbreviation for?

A

Digital imaging and communications in medicine

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4
Q

How often are AEC guard timings checked?

A

Annually

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5
Q

What is the unit used for QA of resolution?

A

Line pairs per mm (lp/mm)

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6
Q

What are the two functional parts of the PNS called?

A

Afferent and efferent divisions

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7
Q

How long does bony callous formation take?

A

2 weeks

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8
Q

What in blood is first attracted to the site of injury?

A

Macrophage

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9
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31

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10
Q

What are the three types of bone cells?

A

Osteo -blasts, -clasts and cytes

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11
Q

Which hormone does the ANTERIOR pituitary mostly synthesise?

A

Growth hormone

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12
Q

Which two hormones does the POSTERIOR pituitary synthesise?

A

Oxytocin and ADH

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13
Q

How many bones are there in the foot?

A

26

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14
Q

How many bones in the hand?

A

27

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15
Q

What does INR stand for?

A

International normalisation ratio

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16
Q

What is the normal range of blood glucose?

A

3.5 – 8 mmol/L

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17
Q

What is the outside of bone called?

A

periosteum

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18
Q

What are the 2 ions involved in action potentials?

A

Sodium and potassium

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19
Q

Which organ is both endocrine and exocrine?

A

Pancreas

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20
Q

What three processes are involved in urine formation?

A

Filtration, selective reabsorption, secretion

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21
Q

What word means disease of unknown cause?

A

Idiopathic

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22
Q

What is the pH of blood?

A

7.4 (range 7.35 – 7.45)

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23
Q

What distance should a radiographer be from the pencil beam in DEXA?

A

1m

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24
Q

-What is a normal Z-score?
-What T-score indicates osteopenia?
-What T-score indicates osteoporosis?

A

-2.0 and above
-1.0 to -2.5
-2.5 and below

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25
Q

At diagnostic energy levels, what is the principle effect?

A

Photoelectric effect

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26
Q

What is the anode in a mammography tube made from?

A

Molybdenum and/or rhodium alloy

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27
Q

What are the standard mammography views?

A

Craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique

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28
Q

What is the name of the device used to make radioactive isotopes?

A

Cyclotron

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29
Q

What is the keV of the PETCT photon gamma rays?

A

511 keV

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30
Q

Which radiopharmaceutical is typically used in PET-CT?

A

18 Fluoride

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31
Q

What is the half-life of 18 Fluoride?

A

110 mins

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32
Q

Which filter would you use for salt and pepper noise?

A

Median filter

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33
Q

What symbol is given to represent the current?

A

I

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34
Q

What colour light reads a CR plate?

What colour light is emitted

A

Red

Blue

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35
Q

Which biological factor of radiation is considered in radiotherapy?

A

Oxygen effect

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36
Q

What does OER stand for?

A

Oxygen enhancement ratio

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37
Q

What are the four macromolecules in the human body?

A

Proteins, carbohydrates, phospholipids, DNA

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38
Q

What is produced from interactions between radiation and water?

A

Free radicals

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39
Q

What are the two types of x-ray production called?

A

Breaking/Bremsstrahlung

Characteristic

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40
Q

What is the parent atom of 99m-Tc?

A

Molybdenum-99

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41
Q

Through what process does 99m-Tc decay?

A

Gamma decay

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42
Q

What is the electrostatic charge of 1 electron?

A

1.6 x 10^-19 coulombs

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43
Q

What are the radiation exposure limits set as set by IRR99 for 18+ yo employees?

What are the radiation exposure limits set as set by IRR99 for trainees?

What are the radiation exposure limits set as set by IRR99 for anybody else?

A

20mSv/year

6 mSv/year

1 mSv/year

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44
Q

What quantile of data is used to set NDRL’s (National dose reference levels)?

A

3rd quantile

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45
Q

What does ARSAC stand for?

A

Administration of radioactive substances advisory committee

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46
Q

What would a Hounsfield unit of 0 mean?

A

Water

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47
Q

What does DQE stand for?

A

Detective Quantum Efficiency

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48
Q

Which force is involved in alpha decay?

A

Strong nuclear force

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49
Q

Which force is involved in beta decay?

A

Weak nuclear force

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50
Q

Different number of protons means…

Different number of neutrons means…

Different number of electrons means…

A

Different elements

Different isotopes

Different ions

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51
Q

What is the audible frequency of humans?

A

2Hz to 20kHz

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52
Q

What are the layers of the CR plate?

A

Protective,

phosphor crystals,

reflective,

conductive,

support,

light-shielding,

the backing (top to bottom layers)

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53
Q

What is the name of the effect the transducer uses in US?

A

Piezoelectric effect

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54
Q

What is the wavelength of an x-ray?

A

0.01 to 10nm

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55
Q

What is the atomic number of barium?

A

56

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56
Q

What is the effective atomic number of fat?

A

6.3

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57
Q

What is the half-life of 99m-Tc?

A

6 hours

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58
Q

What is the propagation speed considered to be in soft tissues?

A

1540ms^-1

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59
Q

What is the filament in an x-ray tube normally made of?

A

Tungsten

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60
Q

What is the photon energy of 99M-Tc?

A

140 keV

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61
Q

How is Gaussian noise removed from an image?

A

Mean filter

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62
Q

Gray (Gy)

A

Unit of measurement is defined as ‘equal to the dose of one joule of energy absorbed per kilogram of matter’

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63
Q

Compton scatter is inversely proportional to …

A

kVp

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64
Q

Attenuation

A

The intensity of the primary x-ray beam is reduced as x-rays interact with the tissue it is passing through.

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65
Q

Absorption

A

Where some energy is transferred from the x-ray photons to the atoms of the tissue

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66
Q

Layers of a CR plate

A
  • Protective layer
  • Phosphor layer
  • Light reflective layer
  • Conductive layer
  • Support layer
  • Light shielding layer
  • Backing
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67
Q

Importance of centering points

A

The x-ray beam diverges from the central point. This causes distortion of anatomical structures that aren’t perpendicular to the incident beam, and tends to distort structures at the edge of the field of view. Centring points ensure that any distortion within the image is consistent as the amount of distortion is consistent between practitioners.

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68
Q

DQE vs. effective DQE

A

The quantum detection efficiency is defined for a specific kVp whereas the effective quantum detection efficiency is over the spectrum of x-rays incident on the detector

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69
Q

Bucky assembly

A

assists in reducing the amount of scatter reaching the image detector

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70
Q

Fluoroscopic photocathode

A

releases electrons in direct proportion to the visible light from the input phosphor that is incident on its surface

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71
Q

high dynamic range

A

A higher dynamic range means a detector can detect wider range of brightnesses and / or colour. In medical imaging terms, this means it can capture (for display) more subtle differences in attenuation properties between tissues / structure

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72
Q

Inherent filtration.

A

material that is permanent within the x-ray tube assembly, that is positioned at the x-ray tube window, and always alters the quality of the x-ray beam

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73
Q

Functions of autotransformers

A
  • Provides means for kVp selection.
  • Compensates for fluctuations in the incoming voltage.
  • Provides power to other parts of the x-ray circuit.
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74
Q

remedial level

A

The performance of the equipment lies outside of recognised tolerance limits and action must be taken within a reasonable time frame

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75
Q

suspension level

A

level of non-compliance with
quality assurance criteria at which an item of equipment
should be removed from clinical use with immediate effect

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76
Q

In relation to the abdomen, what are the names of the divisions that are used to localise e.g. abdominal pain?

A

Right upper quadrant.
Left upper quadrant.
Right lower quadrant.
Left lower quadrant.

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77
Q

What is the majority of organic tissue in bone made from?

A

Type I collagen fibres (approximately 90%).

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78
Q

primary inorganic components of bone

A

calcium, which is required for many functions throughout the body;

phosphorus (in the form of phosphate ions), which is a component of buffer systems and energy-rich molecules;

water, which contributes to the compressive resistance of bone and contributes to the fluid matrix of bone.

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79
Q

At which of the following vertebral levels is the conus medullaris typically located

A

The 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebra.

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80
Q

What is the name of the structure within the gastrointestinal tract which contains lymph tissue and is sometimes (contentiously) described as vestigial?

A

appendix.

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81
Q

Which nerve plexus supplies the pelvis and lower limb and is located on the posterior pelvic wall anterior to the piriformis muscle

A

Sacral plexus

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82
Q

Which of the following intra-abdominal organs is partially retroperitoneal?

A

Pancreas

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83
Q

Growth plate zones

A

Zone of reserve - Quiescent chondrocytes are found at the epiphyseal end

Zone of proliferation - Chondrocytes undergo rapid mitosis under influence of growth hormone

Zone of maturation and hypertrophy - Chondrocytes stop mitosis, and begin to hypertrophy by accumulating glycogen, lipids, and alkaline phosphatase

Zone of calcification - Chondrocytes undergo apoptosis. Cartilagenous matrix begins to calcify.

Zone of ossification - Osteoclasts and osteoblasts from the diaphyseal side break down the calcified cartilage and replace with mineralized bone tissue.

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84
Q

Calcium is required for …

A

-Muscle contraction.
-Blood coagulation
-Nerve conduction
BUT NOT
-Bone marrow formation.

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85
Q

Function of a joint bursa

A

To reduce friction by separating adjacent structures such as bone and tendon

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86
Q

Function of both the inorganic and organic component of bone tissue

A

The mineral (inorganic) component provides strength, whilst the organic tissue provides sufficient flexibility i.e. prevents the bone becoming too brittle

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87
Q

Function of rugae

A

Enables contraction of the stomach causing the food to churn, thereby aiding digestion

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88
Q

Which layer of the uterus consists of smooth muscle which undergoes hypertrophy and hyperplasia during pregnancy in order to be able to deliver the fetus at birth

A

Myometrium

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89
Q

Which of the two spinal nerves supplies nerves to the synovial joints of the vertebral column

A

Posterior rami

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90
Q

Genetic effect.

A

The effect is suffered by the offspring of the individual who has been exposed

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91
Q

What difference does the state of reproduction of a cell have on its sensitivity to ionising radiation

A

Cells that are actively reproducing are more radiosensitive - a cell requires the DNA information to be correct for offspring to survive. A direct interaction of radiation with DNA during cell reproduction can result in cell death or mutation whereas an interaction with a dormant cell’s DNA will have less effect.

92
Q

Which of the following types of cancer has been associated with people who mined for uranium?

A

Lung cancer

93
Q

In relation to IR(ME)R2017, what is the most accurate explanation of what is meant by entitlement?

A

This is the legal responsibility for entitling individuals to act as one or more of the three duty holder roles of referrer, practitioner, and operator. Radiographers can be entitled to carry out more than the operator role provided there is a documented process, with approriate procedures and includes the requirements for adequate training.

94
Q

Spatial resolution

A

The extent to which fine detail can be visualised on an image

95
Q

difference between phishing and vishing

A

Vishing is the phone equivalent of phising scams

96
Q

low-pass filter

A

Smoothing - each pixel’s grey scale is averaged with surrounding pixel values to remove high-frequency noise

97
Q

Advantage of helical scanning in CT

A

enables continuous rotation of the x-ray tube and therefore permits faster rotation times and therefore faster scanning.

98
Q

Purpose of compression in mammography

A

To equalize breast thickness so as to produce a radiograph with relatively homogeneous density across the whole breast

99
Q

Sound waves travel via

A

compression and rarefraction

100
Q

How much does a gamma camera amplify the incident electron

A

Factor of 4^10

101
Q

What is a flood test in RNI

A

To ensure that all photomultiplier tubes are functioning correctly.

102
Q

quality control tests regularly undertaken in the radiopharmacy when preparing radiopharmaceuticals

A

Dab tests.
Broth tests.

103
Q

breakthrough test

A

ensures that no traces of molybdenum 99 are present in the technetium 99m

104
Q

accepted upper limit of ‘missed tissue at chest wall’ that is regarded as acceptable in mammography

A

5 mm

105
Q

Diabetes Insipidus.

A

disorder of pituitary gland

106
Q

Hydronephrosis

A

dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces above a blockage

107
Q

Causes of bursitis

A

-Trauma
-Infection
-repeated physical activity
BUT NOT

-OA

108
Q

association between Barrett’s oesophagus and the likelihood of malignancy

A

high association with development of malignancy.

109
Q

High troponin levels

A

Suspected myocardial infarction.

110
Q

How many meninge layers are involved in meningitis

A

2
- pia mater
- arachnoid mater

111
Q

Paget’s disease

A

One of the most common chronic metabolic diseases of the skeleton, affecting males twice as often as females.
It causes bone destruction followed by repair that results in weak, deformed and thickened bone that tends to fracture easily.
Typically affects the pelvis, femora, skull, tibia, vertebrae, clavicles and ribs.’

112
Q

advantage of non-iodinated contrast media compared to iodinated

A

Ionic contrast media is associated with 4 times the number of reactions and is 5.5 times more likely to cause a severe reaction.

113
Q

How are images created in PET imaging

A

Coincidence detection, two gamma photons with an energy of 511 keV are emitted at 180 degrees to each other, only photons that hit the detector at the same time are ‘counted’

114
Q

what is a contrast agent product license

A

The Product Licence defines the accepted (i.e. evaluated) range of use of the contrast agent. Not all contrast agents are licenced for all ages or for all types of examinations.

115
Q

What is the difference between ‘general’ gadolinium based contrast agents used routinely in MRI e.g. for brain imaging, and contrast agents used in MRI specifically for imaging the liver parenchyma?

A

The general type contrast agent passes through the extracellular space and is then excreted via glomerular filtration whereas liver specific agents are taken up by liver cells and excreted by the biliary pathway.

116
Q

what are ultrasound contrast agents made from?

A

Ultrasound contrast agents contain microbubbles of carbon dioxide that are naturally absorbed by the patient’s body.

117
Q

what is CAD

A

Computer Aided Detection.

118
Q

what is the benefit of 3T MRI compared to 1.5T MRI

A

At higher field strengths there is a greater signal to noise ratio; this can lead to improved resolution and / or reduced scan times.

119
Q

which modality is considered a disruptive introduction

A

MRI

120
Q

Co-registration

A

Combining multiple complementary modalities in a single image.

121
Q

main benefit of DICOM

A

Has enabled images to be viewed on any manufacturer’s equipment.

122
Q

Line sensors

A
  • A line sensor has a 1D array of sensors.
  • The sensor moves in a single axis to acquire an image.
  • The sensor size and sampling rate determine spatial resolution.
123
Q

What is the maximum possible fine (as of January 2022) if an organisation is found to have breached the General Data Protection Regulations?

A

twenty million euros or four percent of value

124
Q

saccades

A

The rapid jerky eye movements executed by the eye as it scans an image.

125
Q

false positive example

A

Mistaking a normal lung marking for a small pulmonary nodule.

126
Q

sensitivity

A

The proportion of positives that are correctly identified.

127
Q

specificity

A

The proportion of negatives that are correctly identified

128
Q

In relation to image viewing, what is the relevance of viewing distance and image perception?

A

The optimal viewing distance can vary depending on the size of the lesion so moving closer to or further away from an image can help objects to be perceived.

129
Q

With whom does the ultimate responsibility for contrast administration rest?

A

With the person who prescribes it (typically a radiologist) although the delivery of the contrast agent is frequently delegated to others (typically a radiographer) under protocol.

130
Q

Why does the Royal College of Radiologists recommend that patients are observed post-contrast administration?

A

Not all contrast reactions are acute and / or immediate so it is important to look out for signs of an impending adverse reaction - early identification enables early intervention which may prevent a more serious deterioriation.

131
Q

Patient group directions, and / or patient specific directions.

A

legal framework within which the task of administering contrast agents and other medicines used in imaging is delegated to the radiographer

132
Q

What advice does the Royal College of Radiologists give about giving iodine based contrast media to parents who are breast feeding (as of January 2022)?

A

A very small percentage of the injected dose enters the breast milk and virtually none is absorbed across the normal gut, hence no special precaution or cessation of breastfeeding is required.

133
Q

Which properties determine the probablity of photoelectric absorption occuring when an X-ray beam passes through a subject?

A

The atomic number of the subject.

The energy of the beam.

The physical density of the subject.

134
Q

Why is Rayleigh scattering not of major importance in diagnostic radiography using X-rays?

A

Rayleigh scattering accounts for less than 5% of X-ray interactions at the energies used for diagnostic imaging. Therefore it has minimal impact upon image quality.

135
Q

With regard to IR(ME)R 2017, when should an accidental or unintended exposure be investigated?

A

Any exposure where someone could have been, or was, exposed to levels of ionising radiation significantly greater than those generally considered to be proportionate in the circumstances.

136
Q

Conversion efficiency

A

It is a measure of how effective the detector is at converting the incident x-ray into either a light photon or an electrical charge.

137
Q

geometric unsharpness in a radiographic image is caused by …

A

Focal spot size.

Source Image Distance.

Object Image Distance.

138
Q

What is the suspension level for a light beam alignment test assuming the image is taken at a 1 metre distance from the focal spot?

A

3cm

139
Q

The Institute for Physics and Medicine (IPEM) produces guidance about quality assurance programmes and how often tests within the programme should be performed. According to IPEM Report 91 what is the recommended frequency for a low contrast sensitivity test?

A

4-6 months

140
Q

When undertaking an Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) sensitivity test as part of a quality assurance programme which parameter(s) must be recorded?

A

mAs and Detector Dose Indicator (DDI).

141
Q

Which two structures form the hypophyseal portal system?

A

The anterior pituitary gland and the hypothalamus.

142
Q

function of cortical bone

A

Provides support and protection for the inner trabecular bone.

143
Q

In relation to the physiology of bone growth, what part of the epiphyseal growth plate is being described here? ‘Contains large chondrocytes which divide and are responsible for the longitudinal growth of bone’.

A

The growth or proliferation zone.

144
Q

bone remodelling by osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

Mobilisation of calcium and other minerals from skeletal tissue to maintain serum homeostasis.
Replacing old tissue and repairing damaged bone.
Helping the body to adapt to different forces, loads and stresses applied to the skeleton.

145
Q

principal mechanism of glomerular filtration within the Bowman’s capsule of the kidney?

A

Hydrostatic pressure.

146
Q

Tidal volume for a healthy adult

A

500ml per expiration

147
Q

What process occurs as urine filtrate passes through the descending limb of the loop of Henle?

A

Passive reabsoprtion of water as this part of the tubule is impermeable to sodium ions.

148
Q

Prostate specific antigen

A

enzyme that is secreted by the prostate gland that aids in the liquification of the ejaculate by lysing seminal vesicle proteins

149
Q

Tetrogenic

A

An agent, such as ionising radiation, that can cause malformations in developing embryos

150
Q

Which of the following actions is required under IR(ME)R 2017 if a diagnostic reference level is consistently exceeded?

A

The employer must ensure an appropriate review is undertaken and take corrective action where appropriate.

151
Q

supervised area

A

An area in which any person is likely to receive an effective dose greater than 1 mSv a year, or an equivalent dose greater than 5 mSv a year for the lens of the eye, or greater than 50 mSv a year for the skin or the extremities.

152
Q

edge enhancement

A

averaging signals over fewer adjacent pixels within a 2D image

153
Q

Shuttering.

A

process for removing unexposed borders around an image (i.e. areas of high signal intensity)

154
Q

when viewing digital images why is the ambient light important?

A

Cones within the retina of the eye need to adapt to the brightness of the image to optimise the grey scale resolution.

155
Q

What is the relevance of the grey scale in terms of viewing digital images?

A

Cones in the eye have better grey scale resolution than rods, and images should be viewed in a darkened, although not pitch black, environment.

156
Q

Why are Patient Group Directions (PGDs) and / or Patient Specific Directions (PSDs) currently needed in imaging departments in order for a radiographer to administer a contrast agent?

A

Prescriptions can only be issued when a doctor individually assesses a patient.
This is not possible, logisitically, within imaging departments.
PGDs and PSDs include exclusion and inclusion criteria that enable the radiographer to assess the patient and give the contrast agent without having a prescription, thereby fulfilling the legal requirements for the administration of prescription only medicines.

157
Q

In relation to the Ionising Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations (IR(ME)R) 2017, what is meant by a non-medical imaging exposure?

A

A non medical imaging exposure is where a person has an ionising radiation imaging exam that does not benefit their individual health.
This could be for research purposes, or law enforcement purposes.
It requires suitable ethical approvals and informed consent to be in place.

158
Q

what aspect of the image receptor would reduce the DQE if you changed it?

A

Having a thinner phosphor layer within the receptor.

159
Q

What are photostimulable screens made of in computed radiography?

A

Barium fluorohalides

160
Q

With regards to room design which of the following is generally used to provide radiation protection for adjacent areas?

A

Use of barium plaster and concrete block walls.

161
Q

what impact does a high frequency generator have on average photon energies per exposure?

A

The average photon energies would be higher.

162
Q

With reference to a parallel grid, how are ‘grid ratio’ and ‘grid frequency’ calculated?

h = the height of the lead strip (mm)

D = the interspace (distance / width) (mm)

t = thickness of the lead strip (mm)

A

Grid ratio = h/D
Grid frequency = 1/t+D

163
Q

What is the name given to the structural unit of compact (or cortical) bone?

A

Haversian system

164
Q

At what vertebral level is the sternal angle located?

A

T4/T5

165
Q

which structure is within the the sella turcica

A

Pituitary gland

166
Q

Which cranial nerve has two portions and is involved in two different (i.e. independent) sensory functions?

A

The 8th (vestibulocochlear) cranial nerve.

167
Q

In relation to bone, what is the function of the central (Haversian) canals?

A

They provide passage for blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves.

168
Q

Which avascular layer of the meninges has connective tissue projections known as trabeculae that bind to the underlying layer?

A

The arachnoid mater.

169
Q

An employee notifies their employer that they are pregnant. In relation to IRR2017, what is the employer’s responsibility to that employee?

A

The employer must ensure that the equivalent dose to the fetus is kept as low as is reasonably practicable and at levels unlikely to exceed 1 mSv during the remainder of the pregnancy.

170
Q

At how many weeks post conception would there be the highest risk to a developing fetus of developmental abnormalities due to exposure to ionsing radiation?

A

2 - 7 weeks (during organogenesis).

171
Q

Which of the following is the best description of the Nyquist theorem (in relation to digital image processing)?

A

When sampling a signal the sampling frequency must be greater than twice the frequency of the input signal.

172
Q

Process where an image is automatically adjusted to provide optimum brightness and contrast, regardless of the amount of exposure used to acquire the image?

A

Automatic rescaling.

173
Q

Which of the following is the most common site of ischaemic necrosis?

A

Femoral head

174
Q

Which is the best description of the difference between spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis?

A

Spondylolysis refers to a cleft in the pars interarticularis. If there is displacement due to this defect, this is then called spondylolisthesis.

175
Q

Where in the lung does squamous cell carcinoma typically arise?

A

From the major central bronchi

176
Q

how is buscopan administered

A

Intramuscularly

177
Q

In relation to image perception why is a dimly lit room the optimal viewing environment?

A
  • The use of light enables cones to be used as they have better brightness discrimination than rods.
  • The dimly lit room ensures all shades of grey in the image can be perceived when matched to the ambient light.
178
Q

Hallmark feaTures of ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

A
  • Bilateral concentric narrowing of the hip joints.
  • Complete fusion of the SI joints bilaterally.
  • Ischial enthesophytes.
179
Q

Which two visual phenomena demonstrate how perceived brightness is not a simple function of light intensity?

A

Mach bands
Simulatneous contrast

180
Q

what type of fracture is an intertrochanteric fracture

A

Extracapsular

181
Q

It is stated the patient has a Salter Harris 2 fracture. What would you expect to see on the image?

A

A fracture of the metaphysis

182
Q

According to the Royal College of Radiologists, guidance on intravascular contrast media administration iodinated contrast agents should not be given to which of the following patients groups?

A

Patients with hyperthyroidism.

183
Q

Which statement best reflects current practice regarding the administration of gadolinium based contrast media to pregnant patients?

A

Current advice is that these agents should not be used in pregnancy unless the clinical condition of the patient is sufficiently severe as to make their use absolutely necessary.
No effects on the developing fetus would be anticipated if used.

184
Q

Which of the following medications need to be stopped for a period of time after the administration of an iodine-based contrast agent and why?

A

Metformin because the combination could cause lactic acidosis.

185
Q

how long after a data breach should it be reported under GDPR

A

72hrs

186
Q

calculating dynamic range

A

2^no. of bits

187
Q

With reference to x-ray interactions what is the primary x-ray interaction in a patient at energies between 50 - 60 kVp?

A

Photoelectric absorption.

188
Q

With reference to dose measurements the dose which is given based on the biological weighting factor and the tissue / organ weighting factor is known as?

A

Equivalent dose.

189
Q

Compton scattering is most prominent at which exposure range?

A

75 -120 kV

190
Q

In regards to room design which of the following, typically used in current practice, allows for radiation protection of adjacent areas?

A

Use of barium plaster and concrete block walls.

191
Q

What is the best justification for having the x-ray tube in a mobile image intensifier beneath the patient?

A

The direction of scattered x-ray photons is such that the amount of radiation dose to staff is reduced.

192
Q

Definition of a controlled area?

A

An area where ‘any person working in the area is likely to receive an effective dose greater than 6mSv a year or an equivalent dose greater than 15mSv a year for the lens of the eye or greater than 150 mSv a year for the skin or the extremities’.

193
Q

What characteristic is unique to thoracic vertebrae?

A

Costal facets on the vertebral body.

194
Q

With reference to human anatomy and physiology: Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep:

  1. muscle fibre
  2. perimysium
  3. myofibril
  4. fascicle
  5. endomysium
  6. epimysium
A

SUPERFICIAL

epimysium
perimysium
fascicle
endomysium
muscle fibre
myofibril

DEEP

195
Q

CRANIAL NERVES

A

1- OLFACTORY
2- OPTIC
3- OCULOMOTOR
4- TROCHLEAR
5- TRIGEMINAL
6- ABDUCENS
7- FACIAL
8AUDITORY/VESTIBULAR
9- GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL
10- VAGUS
11- ACCESSORY
12- HYPOGLOSSAL

196
Q

ECG trace meaning

A

P wave- Atrial depolaristion

QRS complex- Ventricular depolaristaiton

T wave- Ventricular repolarisation

197
Q

Current legislation in ionising radiation

A

The Ionising Radiation Regulations (IRR) 2017 are concerned with protection of staff and the public.

The Ionising Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations (IR(ME)R) 2017 are concerned with protection of the patient.

198
Q

A break in the pars interarticularis with resultant anterior slippage of one vertebral body over another is the description for which of the following pathologies?

A

Spondylolisthesis.

199
Q

Scattered plaques of demyelination in a specific pattern as seen on MR images are associated with which pathological conditions?

A

Multiple sclerosis.

200
Q

function of photoreceptors within the eye

A

Cones- perceive colour in bright conditions

Rods- perceive light intensity not colour and are activated in the dark.

201
Q

perceptual and cognitive errors in relation to image interpretation

A

Perceptual error is where the viewer does not see an abnormality which is readily visible on the image.

Cognitive error occurs when the abnormality is seen but the significance is not recognised i.e. misinterpreted.

202
Q

Torus fracture

A

fracture characterised only by an incomplete bulge of the cortex

203
Q

Spiral fracture

A

Complete fracture of a long bone, as a result of a rotational force

204
Q

how variance and standard deviation are related

A

Standard deviation is the square root of the variance

205
Q

Types of ionising radiation

A

Cosmic particles.
Positrons.
Gamma rays.
Alpha particles.
Beta particles.
Neutrons.
X-rays.
Higher energy ultraviolet.

206
Q

Who carries out level A QA tests

A

Radiographers

207
Q

Who carries out level B QA tests

A

Medical physicists

208
Q

Difference between a repeatability and a consistency output test?

A
  • repeatability test checks whether output is consistent when the same exposure is used consecutively.
  • consistency test checks whether output has changed since the initial baseline set of QA checks
209
Q

With reference to human anatomy and physiology the autonomic centres that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the… ?

A

Medulla oblongata.

210
Q

Where within the heart is the body’s pacemaker located?

A

Sinoatrial node.

211
Q

steps of optimisation of an ionising radiation exposure?

A
  • Keeping the dose as low as reasonably practicable, and consistent with the intended purpose.
  • Maintaining a quality control programme.
  • Assessment and evaluation of patient dose.
  • Adherence to diagnostic reference levels.
212
Q

According to IR(ME)R 2017, what is a Significant Accidental or Unintended Exposure (SAUE)?

A

Although the exposure of an individual was intended, the exposure they received was significantly greater or different to that intended

213
Q

In diagnostic radiography which measurements of radiation dose are used for setting Diagnostic Reference Levels (DRLs)?

A

Air kerma area product and entrance surface air kerma.

214
Q

Physical factors that influence the radiosensitivity of cells

A
  • Linear energy transfer.
  • Relative biological effectiveness.
  • Protraction.
  • Fractionation.
215
Q

An adult patient attends for an x-ray answers yes when asked if they are pregnant. This is the first time this patient has mentioned that they are pregnant. Which of the following principles can this patient reasonably expect to be applied to this situation?

A

That none of the information the patient has disclosed about the pregnancy can be used by the radiographer without their explicit consent.

216
Q

Tumour causing destruction of the medullary cavity, producing an “onion skin” periosteal reaction

A

Ewing’s sarcoma.

217
Q

Most likely mechanism of torus fracture injury

A

Falling onto an out-stretched hand.

218
Q

Carer and comforter definition

A

A carer or comforter is any individual who knowingly and willingly incurs an exposure to ionising radiation by helping, other than as part of their occupation, in the support and comfort of individuals undergoing or having undergone an exposure.

219
Q

How does the cathode within an x-ray tube produce electrons?

A

Electrons are liberated from the cathode because they are heated by thermal energy allowing them to overcome their binding to the cathode filament material.

220
Q

How is DAP measured

A

An ionization chamber is placed beyond the X-ray collimators and must intercept the entire X-ray field for an accurate reading.

221
Q

Which hormone promotes milk release in the lactating breast?

A

Oxytocin

222
Q

interactions between ionising radiation and a patient’s atoms?

A

The initial ionising event occurs on macromolecules and water but not DNA.

223
Q

how does water ionisation lead to molecular damage?

A

Water dissociates into two ion pairs HOH- and HOH+ which dissociate further to produce free radicals of hydrogen and hydroxyl.

224
Q

Main benefits of DICOM

A

Replacement of hard copies of digital images.

Remote access of digital images.

Integration with systems such as electronic medical records and radiology information systems.

Enables work flow management.

225
Q

Define a poisson probability distribution

A

Has a variance which is not uniform in different directions.

RAD1001/2001/3001 (2 decks)

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