Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Part 4 Systems > Progress Test 1 > Flashcards

Progress Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the electrical system on a large aircraft?
What are the differences between light and large aircraft electrical systems?

A

GENERATE, REGULATE and DISTRIBUTE electrical POWER;
MORE THAN 1 system for REDUNDANCY;
Normal CONFIG will have seperate AC CIRCUIT powered by ALTERNATOR fitted to each ENGINE and each CIRCUIT feeds specific BUS;
AC more COMMON as it is LIGHTER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are buses?
What is their purpose?
What type of buses are likely to be used

A

POWER is ROUTED to a common bar off which SEVERAL COMPONENTS or SERVICES can be powered;
This means systems can be PRIORITISED for the use of ESSENTIAL SERVICES in event of SUPPLY BREAKDOWN;
PARALLEL, SPLIT, or SPLIT-PARALLEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can AC be produced from DC in emergency?

A

Operating an INVERTER or STATIC INVERTER from DC BATTERY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the requirements before AC generators are connected in parallel?

A

OUTPUT VOLTAGE, FREQUENCY, and PHASE ROTATION of ALL GENERATORS are SAME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are emergency lighting systems required?

What is the requirement of it?

A

During TOTAL POWER FAILURE or EMERGENCY EVACUATIONS;

Must be ARMED and AUTOMATICALLY activated after FAILURE of PRIMARY LIGHTING POWER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of a CSD?

Why do we need this?

A

CONSTANT SPEED DRIVE;
To keep the ALTERNATOR at a CONSTANT SPEED and PRODUCE CONSTANT 400Hz +/-8Hz;
Frequency of power out of alternator is determined by ROTATION of ARMATURE which is DRIVEN by ENGINE that is VARIABLE usually between 7000-10000RPM so CSD is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most commonly used CSD

A

HYDRO MECHANICAL device which uses MECHANICAL GOVERNORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What will happen to the CSD if an electrical fault occurs?

What about an overheating or mechanical problem?

A

Electrical fault: CIRCUIT BREAKERS;
Overheat/mechanical: ROTATION must be STOPPED FIRST through the use of a GUARDED SWITCH labelled “GEN DISC” activates a SOLENOID which pulls a DOG CLUTCH OPEN that BREAKS the DRIVE between GEARBOX and CSD. It CANNOT be RESET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does Boeing and Airbus call their respective CSDs?

A

Boeing: INTEGRATED DRIVE GENERATORS;
Airbus: INTEGRATED CONSTANT SPEED DRIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the purpose of the cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system?
What does this specifically cover?

A

TO provide a means of TEMPERATURE, HUMIDITY, and VENTILATION control;
PAX COMFORT;
AVOID CONDENSATION on AVIONICS equipment due to HEAT build up;
DOMESTIC ANIMAL COMFORT in CARGO compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the definition of PD?

How is PD controlled throughout the flight?

A

DIFFERENCE in PRESSURE between INSIDE HULL and AMBIENT at ALTITUDE flying;
Will regulate PRESSURE to 8000ft due to HYPOXIA regardless of aircraft altitude so PD INCREASES with ALTITUDE;
PD is built up by controlling the OUTFLOW to be LESS than the INTAKE through AIRCON when OPTIMUM PD is achieved INFLOW = OUTFLOW;
The VERTICAL SPEED is also controlled by RATE CONTROLLER to ensure PAX COMFORT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is the outflow valve controlled?

What values is it trying to achieve?

A

Through the PRESSURE CONTROLLER either MANUALLY or AUTOMATICALLY to maintain CORRECT pressure under NORMAL conditions;
A DIFFERENTIAL of 8.9PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 positions that control the environmental system?
How may this differ in modern aircraft?

A

OFF, NORMAL, RAM;

Modern have panels where TEMPERATURE may be SET and INDICATED along with DIFFERENT temperatures in CABIN and COCKPIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What instrumentation is connected to the control of the environmental system?

A 
Cabin PRESSURE CONTROLLER;
RATE SELECTOR;
LANDING ALTITUDE SELECTOR;
BAROMETRIC PRESSURE SELECTOR;
EMERGENCY CONTROLS;
WARNING LIGHTS;
APU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the safety features of the pressurisation system?

Briefly describe each one?

A

PRESSURE RELIEF valve: AUTOMATICALLY ensures PRESSURE does NOT build up beyond MAX OPERATING PRESSURE;
NEGATIVE PRESSURE valve: AUTOMATICALLY ensures PRESSURE OUTSIDE CABIN NEVER EXCEEDS INSIDE;
EMERGENCY DEPRESSURISATION valve: Operated by WOW or COCKPIT CONTROL panel when there is EMERGENCY CABIN ALTITUDE control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does vapour cycling work?

A

Refrigerant ABSORBS HEAT from the CABIN and CHANGES STATE from LIQUID to GAS WITHOUT changing TEMPERATURE;
HEAT is taken OUTSIDE of aircraft and given to OUTSIDE AIR then REFRIGERANT returns to LIQUID;
CYCLE is CONTINUOUSLY REPEATED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common material used as refrigerant?

What properties make it desirable?

A 
DICHLORODIFLUOROMETHANE/REFRIGERANT-12;
STABLE at HIGH and LOW TEMPERATURES;
Does NOT REACT with MATERIALS of AIRCON;
Does NOT ATTACK RUBBER HOSES or SEALS;
COLOURLESS and ODOURLESS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 types of oxygen systems?

Describe the features of each one? (3,5)

A 
CONTINUOUS FLOW: 
SIMPLEST;
AUTOMATICALLY ACTUATED; 
Oxygen IMMEDIATE and CONTINUOUS;
PRESSURE DEMAND: 
Has DILUTER DEMAND REGULATOR which operates due to the SUCTION from BREATHING and AUTOMATICALLY DILUTES with suitable amounts of ATMOSPHERIC AIR;
PROLONGS OXYGEN supply;
Can be SELECTED to 100% in case of SMOKE or other CONTAMINANT;
DILUTION LIMITED to 34000ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the chemical oxygen system compared to gaseous oxygen systems?

A

Advantages: LIGHTWEIGHT, LESS EQUIPMENT, LESS MAINTAINANCE;
Disadvantages: FIRE HAZARD higher, NOT TAMPERPROOF, WON’T TURN OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are large aircraft protected from fire?

A

OVERHEAT, SMOKE and FIRE PROTECTION systems;

Fire PROTECTION includes fire DETECTION and EXTINGUISHING systems

21
Q

What fire protection is used in the toilets of aircraft?

A

A EUTECTIC HEAD/SQUIB which MELTS at 70-75C allowing extinguishing agent to exit bottle

22
Q

What are the main extinguishing agents in aircraft?

A

WATER: COOLS fire and EXCLUDES OXYGEN NO ELECTRICAL fires;
CO2: DISPLACES OXYGEN in atmosphere FOR ELECTRICAL fires;
DRY CHEMICAL: SMOTHERS fire which EXCLUDES OXYGEN NO COCKPIT fires;
HALOGENATED HYDROCARBONS: CHEMICALLY INTERFERES with COMBUSTION

23
Q

What makes the halogenated hydrocarbon agent desirable?

A 
LOW TOXICITY;
Effective with LOWER CONCENTRATIONS (2% compared to 40% CO2);
EFFECTIVE on all 3 TYPE FIRES;
Can be USED in PERSONNEL COMPARTMENTS;
NO RESIDUE after use
24
Q

What is the operation of a single wire thermal switch?

A

28V DC is applied to BOTH parts of THERMAL LOOP;
If OVERHEAT occurs to the ALARM TEMP or FIRE occurs a SWITCH is CLOSED and GROUNDS the circuit completing it;
This causes INDICATION to be displayed in COCKPIT

25
Q

If a fire is detected at one point by a single wire thermal loop how will the rest of the system respond?

A

Still provides PROTECTION at other SURVEILLANCE points

26
Q

What does the test switch do in a single wire thermal loop?
What would a short in the circuit do?
Is the operation of the system different at night?

A

TESTS ENTIRE LOOP, will show if there is OPEN CIRCUIT in POWER INPUT LEAD of LOOP;
Causes a FALSE INDICATION;
DIMMING RELAY provides LOW VOLTAGE to the LIGHT

27
Q

What is the operation of a pneumatic fire detection system?

Is it a single-use system?

A

Contains various SENSOR TUBES and choice of ALARM TEMPS;
TUBE contains GAS which EXPANDS greatly when HEATED;
When trigger TEMP is reached PRESSURE overcomes CHECK VALVE and gas flow to RIGHT of DIAPHRAGM;
This forces DIAPHRAGM CONTACTS LEFT onto ALARM CONTACTS energising the CIRCUIT;
If HEAT is REMOVED and PRESSURE is DECREASED DIAPHRAGM forces GAS into TUBE effectively RESETTING it

28
Q

What is the operation of a flame detector system?

A

Uses INFRARED detectors to RECEIVE DIRECT or REFLECTED RAYS from flame;
LOCATED in ENGINE NACELLE;
Send SIGNAL to AMPLIFIER which POWERS an ALARM CIRCUIT in cockpit

29
Q

`What is the operation of a smoke detector system?

A

Uses PHOTOELECTRIC CELLS with LIGHT directed towards them;

If sufficient SMOKE is present the REFERENCE BEAM REFRACTS light to PHOTOELECTRIC CELLS and ALARM is POWERED

30
Q

What is the operation of engine nacelle fire extinguishing with 1 bottle?
Can it be controlled from cockpit?

A

BOTTLE is PRESSURISED to 500-600PSI;
RELIEF VALVE is FUSIBLE DISK which RUPTURES if bottle OVERHEATS;
To discharge from cockpit, ELECTRICAL CURRENT is applied to CONTACTOR which DENOTES EXPLOSIVE CARTRIDGE:
This SHATTERS DISK in bottle OUTLET and AGENT flows to ENGINE

31
Q

What is the problem when aircraft are fitted with split controls?

A

If AIRSPEED LOCKOUT system FAILS:
LOW-SPEED surfaces ENGAGED, after ACCELERATION to CRUISE speed there is TOO MUCH CONTROL authority must AVOID LARGE INPUT;
LOW-SPEED surfaces ENGAGED, after SLOWING there is LESS CONTROL authority must have LARGE INPUT;

32
Q

How are failures of the lockout system advised?

What should the crew do if an advisory is given?

A

RUDDER RATIO;
ALL LOCK;
Refer to FLIGHT MANUAL for actions

33
Q

What determines the effectiveness of a primary control?

A

AERODYNAMIC FORCE generated for a given DEFLECTION;

MOMENT ARM from CoG

34
Q

How does control effectiveness change with low and high speeds?
What effects can this have on the structure?

A

Low: Significantly LESS effective for a given DEFLECTION;
High: May be so GREAT that with necessary FLEXIBILITY of structure the RESULTANT FORCE may TWIST WING about TORSIONAL AXIS

35
Q

How is torsional twisting at high speeds minimised?

What is the operation of this system?

A

PRIMARY CONTROLS are SPLIT;
Operate in TANDEM at LOW SPEED;
Use LOCKOUT system at HIGH SPEED which is AUTOMATICALLY ACTUATED by signals from ADC ie: only INBOARD sections used

36
Q

What is the consideration of controls for swept wings?

A

Primary: SPLIT CONTROLS and MULTIPLE control SURFACES;
Secondary: Employ flying TAILPLANES and ALL MOVING WINGTIPS/TAILFINS

37
Q

What is the purpose of high lift devices?
When are they used?
What are some common examples?

A

CHANGE LIFT characteristics which REDUCE TAKEOFF and LANDING SPEED;
Only at LOW SPEEDS;
SLOT, SLAT, FLAP, LE/TE FOWLER FLAP

38
Q

What is the problem with a power-boosted control system?

A

During TRANSONIC FLIGHT, SHOCKWAVES form on CONTROL SURFACE which results in BUFFETING feeding a FORCE to CONTROL system;
This FORCE does NOT reach the PILOT due to POWER operated IRREVERSIBLE control system

39
Q

How do the flight controls in the cockpit move the control surfaces?
How can the pilot experience a feeling of the control surfaces?

A

ACTUATES control VALVES LOCATED by COCKPIT controls that directs HYDRAULIC FLUID to control surface ACTUATORS or POWER CONTROL UNITS;
ARTIFICIAL FEEL is built in to make STICK FORCE PROPORTIONAL to FLIGHT LOADS

40
Q

What do position transducers do?

What is the operation of position transducers?

A

CONVERT CREW COMMAND INPUTS to analogue ELECTRICAL signals;
Signals are CONVERTED to DIGITAL form and sent to PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS;
Signals ANALYSED and if OUTSIDE ENVELOPE it can be MODIFIED;
Can be operated via IFS providing AUTO FLIGHT control and FEED FLIGHT control POSITION DATA to FDR

41
Q

What are the main components of the auto land system?

A 
AUTOPILOT;
AUTOTHRUST;
RADIO ALTIMETER;
NOSE WHEEL STEERING;
Not integral but ATOBRAKE
42
Q

What are the limitations of autoland when doing a CAT I or CAT II/III approach?

A

CAT I: May NOT be suitable due to OFFSET LOCALISER or LOCALISER/GLIDESLOPE UNSTABLE SIGNALS;
CAT II/III: Cautious when LOW VISIBILITY procedures NOT in effect as LOCALISER/GLIDESLOPE signals compromised by traffic. Advise ATC for assistance

43
Q

What are the characteristics of a fail operational system?

A

ATLEAST 2 AP engaged;
Failure of 1 AP allows LANDING to CONTINUE;
No DECISION HEIGHT

44
Q

What are the characteristics of a fail passive system?

A

ATLEAST 1 AP;
Failure of AP will NOT cause immediate DEVIATION from PATH but PILOT must take CONTROL and UNLESS VISUAL conduct MISSED APPROACH;
50ft DECISION ALTITUDE

45
Q

What are the 2 categories of AFDS faults leading to non normal operations?

A

Faults ABOVE ALERT HEIGHT;

Faults AT or BELOW ALERT HEIGHT

46
Q

How does the sensitivity of the auto land change throughout the approach?

A

GLIDESLOPE sensitivity REDUCED at 300ft radio altimeter;
RUDDER/AILERON used to keep on CENTRELINE from 200ft RA;
ANGLE of ATTACK protection INHIBITED at 100ft RA for FLARE;
PITCH TRIM wound back to give ELEVATOR POWER for FLARE if AP disengaged here, 40lb of forward FORCE is REQUIRED to counter TRIM;
GA MODE INHIBITED at 5ft RA

47
Q

What is the relationship between auto pilot and auto trim?

A

CAN fly WITH AP and WITHOUT AUTO TRIM;

CANNOT fly WITH AUTO TRIM and WITHOUT AP

48
Q

What is the source air for cabin pressurisation?

A

BLEED AIR

Part 4 Systems (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions