Professionalism Flashcards

1
Q

What abilities does someone need in order to have capacity?

A

1) Understand the information given to them.
2) Retain the information.
3) Weigh up/ use the information.
4) Communicate their decision.

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2
Q

What are the three aspects of valid consent?

A

1) Informed.
2) Capacity.
3) Voluntary.

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3
Q

What information does a patient need in order to give informed consent to treatment?

A

Any potential benefits.
Any potential risks.
Any alternative treatments.

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4
Q

Name a measure of income inequality that can be used to compare a local population with others.

A

Gini coefficient.

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5
Q

What did the Black Report hypothesise were the possible determinants of health inequalities?

A

Artefact-healthy people move up the classes.
Natural selection (poor health pushes people into poverty).
Poverty causes ill health.
Life style differences.

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6
Q

Name some government initiatives that aim to reduce child poverty?

A
Increased child benefit.
Increased minimum wage.
Strategy to reduce teenage pregnancy.
Childcare tax credits, and free childcare for working parents.
National fruit scheme.
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7
Q

Why did child poverty indicators increase in the 1980s?

A
Increased unemployment, and more families without a member in unemployment.
Lower pay.
More single parent families.
Cuts in expenditure in some services.
More indirect taxation.
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8
Q

What 4 factors are used when making an evidence-based decision?

A

1) Evidence from research (and NICE guidelines).
2) Clinical expertise.
3) Available resources.
4) Patient preference.

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9
Q

What is opportunity cost?

A

The services/treatment that could be provided to a different patient using the money you are spending on your patient. Need to distribute resources fairly to reduce health inequality.

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10
Q

Where would you find evidence-based information to help make a decision?

A
NICE guidelines.
Evidence-based journals.
Cochrane library.
Search on Medline or Embase.
GP Update.
Clinical guidelines.
Individual journal articles.
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11
Q

What phrase is given to the cost of prescribing the drug in terms of the benefit lost from money that could be spent on other drugs or health services?

A

Opportunity cost.

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12
Q

Name three measures of the benefits of a drug.

A

Mortality rate.
Morbidity.
Quality of life measures.

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13
Q

What are the benefits of the NICE guidelines?

A

They are evidence-based.
They take into account the cost-effectiveness of a drug/treatment, as well as the clinical effectiveness (take into account the additional benefits of treatment compared to the additional costs).
There is a formal process of public consultation in the guideline development.
They reduce health inequality, so similar patients are treated equally across the UK.

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14
Q

What are the 4 ethical principles?

A

Autonomy.
Justice.
Beneficence.
Non-maleficence.

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15
Q

What is the decision making model used by more junior health professionals?

A

Hypothetico-deductive model.

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16
Q

What are the three theories of ethical decision making?

A

1) Deontological (actions are either right or wrong).
2) Consequential (is the consequences that justify actions).
3) Virtue (what decision would a virtuous person make).

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17
Q

What factors need to be considered when GPs implement opportunistic prevention in consultations?

A

Patient’s receptiveness.
Planning how much time can be allocated within the consultation.
Avoidance of preaching/victim blaming.
Respect for patient’s views.
Check that the health visitors are giving the same (evidence-based) information.
Planning how to involve practice nurse if no time left in GP consultation.
Planning how to reinforce message with posters/leaflets in waiting room.
Planning how to deal with complaints/distress.

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18
Q

List the three kinds of exception to the duty to always keep medical information confidential.

A

1) There is a public interest in you breaching confidentiality, other people will be at risk of harm if you don’t.
2) There is a court order (statute) saying you have to break confidentiality.
3) The patient had capacity and has given you consent to share the information.

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19
Q

How does confidentiality differ from privacy?

A

Confidentiality is a pledge or agreement which is implicit in the professional relationship, privacy is a qualified human right.

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20
Q

Name some statutes obliging physicians not to disclose confidential information about the patient.

A

Public Health (control of diseases) Act 1984.
Abortion Act 1967.
Births and Deaths Registration Act 1953.
Road Traffic Act 1988.
Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990.
NHS Venereal Diseases Regulations 1974.
Prevention of Terrorism Act 1989.

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21
Q

If you have decided to breach confidentiality, name one thing the GMC says you must do first.

A

Inform the patient.

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22
Q

Describe the 4 requirements for a patient to enter the Sick Role.

A

1) They must want to get better as soon as possible.
2) They should seek advice from a medical professional and cooperate with the doctor.
3) They may be expected to shed some normal activities and responsibilities (e.g employment and household tasks).
4) They are regarded as being in need of care, and unable to get better by his or her own decisions and will.

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23
Q

Describe the 4 requirements of a doctor, laid out in the Sick Role.

A

1) They must apply a high degree of skill and knowledge to the problems of illness.
2) They must act for the welfare of the patient and community, rather than for their own self-interest or desire or money or advancement.
3) They must be objective and emotionally detached (don’t judge the patient’s behaviour in terms of personal values system, or become emotionally involved with them).
4) They must be guided by the rules of professional practice.

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24
Q

Describe the 3 rights afforded to doctors by fulfilling the Sick Role.

A

1) Granted the right to physically examine patients, and to enquire into intimate areas of their physical and personal life.
2) Granted considerable autonomy in professional practice.
3) Occupy a position of authority in relation to patients.

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25
Q

What is the Prospect theory of decision making?

A

There are two phases in decision making.
Phase 1 = framing and editing (preliminary analysis of problem, influenced by context and wording)
Phase 2 = framed prospects evaluated, prospect with highest value selected (influenced by people’s different values)

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26
Q

What types of evidence can be used in clinical situations?

A
Available resources.
NICE guidelines.
Evidence from research.
Patient preference.
Clinical expertise.
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27
Q

What is the difference between expressed and implied consent?

A

Expressed consent can be verbal or written. Implied consent can be something like raising an arm to have blood taken, and is trickier as it is easier to misinterpret.

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28
Q

When do you need consent from a patient?

A

Before examining, treating, or caring for a patient.
Before taking part in research or teaching.
Before screening.
Before disclosing confidential information.

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29
Q

Why is consent important?

A

To maintain the patient’s trust in doctors and uphold the doctor-patient relationship.
To respect patient autonomy.
To avoid causing psychological/physical harm by treating without consent.
To acknowledge that patient’s know what is in their best interests.
To fulfil the professional requirement by the GMC, as part of the duty of a doctor.
To fulfil the legal requirement and avoid claims of battery and negligence.

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30
Q

What is battery?

A

Touching a person without his/her consent, even if no harm results.

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31
Q

What are the three criteria of negligence?

A

There is a duty of care owed to the patient
The duty of care has been breached
Breach has led to harm of the patient

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32
Q

What is the difference between Statute Law, Common/Case Law, Public Law, Private Law?

A

Statute Law = acts of Parliament
Common/Case Law = judgements/precedents from courts e.g GMC guidance
Public Law = criminal law (the state is the prosecutor)
Private Law = between private relationships (e.g hospital and patient)

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33
Q

What is the term for how much information is required to be given to a patient?

A

Reasonable Patient Standard (how much would a reasonable patient want, relevant to decision making).

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34
Q

What is the age above which capacity is presumed?

A

16.

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35
Q

What is Gillick competence?

A

Children under 16 who have consent can consent to treatment without their parents giving consent, but can’t refuse treatment.

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36
Q

Name some situations where you wouldn’t have to obtain consent.

A

In an emergency, when giving life-saving treatment to people sectioned under the mental health act, when patient’s lack capacity and it is in their best interests, under the Public Health act when patient has infectious disease (can be detained, not treated), disclosure of confidential information if non-disclosure puts others at risk.

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37
Q

What types of uncertainty are there in medical decisions?

A

People are different and so react to the same situation in different ways
Technical uncertainty - inadequate information for accurate diagnosis or estimation of treatment effects
Personal uncertainty - don’t know what the patient wants
Conceptual uncertainty - difficulty applying your knowledge (e.g guidelines) to specific patient

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38
Q

What are the benefits of evidence-based decision making?

A

Clinical care is improved by ensuring patients receive the most appropriate treatment, proven by research.
There is increased efficiency of health care services.
There is reduced variation in practice among health care professionals.

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39
Q

How is evidence based medicine implemented?

A

Evidence based clinical guidelines provided by NICE.
Summaries of evidence provided for practitioners.
Access provided to reviews of research.
Practitioners evaluate research for themselves.

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40
Q

In what way does patient-centred care enhance prevention and health promotion?

A

It contributes to:
Health enhancement
Risk avoidance and reduction (primary prevention)
Early identification (secondary prevention)
Complication reduction (tertiary prevention)

41
Q

In what way is patient-centred care realistic?

A

It is conscious of time and timing
It is about team building and teamwork
It has an awareness of resource constraints

42
Q

In what way does patient-centred car enhance the doctor-patient relationship?

A
It contributes to:
Caring
Feeling
Trust
Power
Sense of purpose
43
Q

What is justice?

A

Treating people in a way that is fair and equitable.

44
Q

What is distributive justice?

A

Distributing limited resources in a way that is just and fair.

45
Q

What is the difference between equality and equity?

A

Equality is ensuring everyone receives the exact same amount. Equity is fairness - ensuring most resources are directed to the most needy.

46
Q

What is the Veil of Ignorance?

A

When trying to imagine an equitable society, not knowing what your place in the society would be so not being able to pick the society that most benefits you. Leads to people designing societies where the worst off receive maximal resources.
This is called the Principle of Need.

47
Q

What is the Bottomless Pit objection?

A

If you prioritise improving the lives of the poorest in society, all your resources will be poured into a bottomless pit of suffering and the rest of society will be neglected.

48
Q

Describe some criteria for deciding which patients receive resources.

A

QALY (Quality Adjusted Life Years) - looking at morbidity and mortality
How long has the patient been on the waiting list?
What is the likelihood of the patient complying to the treatment, what is the likelihood they will benefit from it?
What lifestyle does the patient have?
What is the patient’s ability to pay? (US)
(Last 3 are controversial)

49
Q

Describe some arguments for prioritising patients based on their lifestyle choices.

A

They are less deserving of treatment because they have knowingly damages their health.
They have forfeited their right to healthcare by not looking after themselves.
By not prioritising them you deter them from further harmful behaviour.
The treatment is likely to have poorer outcomes, with the benefits being less substantial and shorter lived.

50
Q

Describe some arguments against prioritising patients based on their lifestyle choices.

A

People may not always be responsible for their lifestyle choices. It could be a result of peer pressure, or of lack of awareness of health consequences.
The threat of non-treatment may not actually be effective as a deterrent, particularly in the case of addiction.
It is not the role of healthcare professionals to use treatment decisions to deter lifestyle choices (coercion?), and it may affect the patient’s trust in doctors.

51
Q

When was the Declaration of Human Rights?

A

After WW2 in 1948.

52
Q

When was the European Convention onHuman Rights enforced in the UK?

A

In October 2000 as the Human Rights Act

53
Q

What are rights?

A

A justified claim on other people, where the other person has a duty to fulfil that right. Or something a person is entitled to.

54
Q

Why are rights important?

A

They provide security of expectations - people know where they stand and the social environment is predictable/secure.
They provide protective boundaries, can limit the actions of others in respect to the vulnerable.
They are conductive to dignity, respect and equality.
They provide minimum standards, represent the least a person can expect.
They pose ideal directives - showing what should be the case.
The 4 medical principles are only achievable if rights are respected.

55
Q

Name the three types of rights.

A

Legal rights - observed by the legal system
Moral rights - universal, no matter which legal system you live in
Human rights - moral/natural rights that are implemented legally

56
Q

Name the two theories that justify why people have rights.

A

Status theory - people have particular properties/characteristics which enable them to have rights
Instrumental theory - people have rights because in a society where rights are respected, people are happier/more peaceful (similar to utilitarianism)

57
Q

Name the four different types of rights.

A

Positive - a right to something, so someone is obliged to provide that
Negative - obligation on other people to leave you alone
Passive - obligation on other people to do/not do something
Active - your right to do something

58
Q

What are the two main aims of the Human Rights Act?

A

To bring most of the rights in the European Convention of Human Rights into UK law.
To bring about a new culture of respect for human rights in the UK.

59
Q

How does the Human Rights Act achieve its aims?

A
Regulating the relationships between individuals and public authorities.
Giving people (even non-citizens) the opportunity to enforce rights in UK courts.
UK legislation must be read in a way that is compatible with the Human Rights Act, otherwise it has t go back to parliament to be changed.
Doctors need to question whether their decision making contravenes human rights, and whether it is right in this case to interfere with the rights.
60
Q

Name some rights relevant to healthcare.

A

The right to life
Prohibition of torture
Right to liberty and security
Right to respect for private and family life
Freedom of thought, conscience and religion
Right to marry and found a family
Prohibition of discrimination

61
Q

What are the three types that the rights in the Human Rights Act are divided into?

A

Absolute - can never be withheld or taken away by the state (e.g prohibition of torture)
Limited - limited only under explicit and finite circumstances (e.g right to liberty, right to life)
Qualified - require a balance between the rights of the individual and the interests of the wider community or state (e.g right to respect for a private and family life, right to manifest religious beliefs, freedom of expression)

62
Q

What is professionalism?

A

A set of values, behaviours, relationships, which underpins the trust the public has in doctors.

63
Q

Describe 5 aspects of a profession.

A

Commitment to serve the public good
Presupposes generalised and systematic knowledge
Standards are set, and there is an element of self-regulation
Certification or licensing procedure
Regulatory/professional body e.g GMC

64
Q

Describe some of the values and standards expected of doctors and medical students by the GMC.

A

Resilience in coping with stress and challenges
Deal with doubt and uncertainty
Apply moral and ethical reasoning
Work effectively within a team
Manage own learning and development
Prioritise time well and ensure a balance
Ensure patient safety, raise concerns where appropriate
Work collaboratively
Deal with a mitigate against personal bias

65
Q

What is the purpose of the GMC?

A

To protect, promote and maintain the health and safety of the public by ensuring proper standards in the practice of medicine.
The GMC decides who can practice medicine in the UK.

66
Q

What are the main reasons medical students are refused provisional registration with the GMC?

A

Probity (honesty and integrity)
Absence of remediation (showing remorse and learning from mistakes)
Lack of insight/awareness of actions
Health of student

67
Q

Whilst mental health problems in themselves aren’t a fitness to practice issue, non-disclosure is, why is that?

A

Concealment of the mental health issue goes against probity.

68
Q

What are the 6 stages of fitness to practice issues at HYMS?

A

Stage 1 = MBBS Academic Phase Lead receives concerns about student and decides if case needs to be referred to Case Management Group
Stage 2 = Case Management Group reviews student case and makes appropriate referral. Appoints an Investigating Officer to report on the factual accuracy of the concern, then makes a collective decision on whether to make a direct referral to the Student Fitness to Practice Committee.
Stage 3 = Student Fitness to Practice Committee considers Investigating Officer’s report and recommends what action should be taken
Stage 4 = formal panel hearing by Fitness to Practice Panel
Stage 5 = notification of hearing outcome and opportunity to appeal
Stage 6 = the matter is recorded at the next full meeting of the Student Fitness to Practice Committee

69
Q

Describe some instances where withholding the requested treatment is appropriate.

A

There is provision in the law for conscientious objection e.g abortion
The treatment is not clinically appropriate so is contrary to the physician’s duty of care
The requested treatment is illegal e.g active euthanasia

70
Q

Describe the three ethical theories.

A

Consequentialism - an action is right is it promotes the best consequences (the best consequences are those in which happiness is maximised)
Deontology - an action is right if it is in accordance with a moral rule or principle (requires absolute adherence to rules, obligations, duties)
Virtue ethics - an action is right if it is what a virtuous person (someone who acts virtuously) would do in the circumstances

71
Q

What is a guideline?

A

Systematically developed statement to assist practitioner and patient decision making about appropriate healthcare in a specific clinical circumstance.

72
Q

What four things are guidelines important for?

A

Enabling care to be more consistent
Enabling care to be more evidence-based
Closing the gap between what clinicians do and what is supported by the evidence (which can occur when it’s hard to keep up with fast moving research)
Assist, but NOT dictate

73
Q

Who develops evidence based guidelines for the NHS in Scotland?

A

Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN)

74
Q

For what 4 reasons would practitioners not follow guidelines?

A

Lack of knowledge of the guideline
Conflicting guidelines for patients with multiple morbidities
Rapidly developing area of therapy, so guideline not up to date
The guideline is complex, so there is a failure to understand or agree responsibility for using the guideline

75
Q

What is the difference between traditional reviews and systematic reviews?

A

A traditional review is not systematic, and is a review of the subject by an expert in the field. It may be biased to reflect the views of the author, and it is unclear to the reader whether or not the review is objective. However with a systematic review you can tell it is objective and can see how it has been put together.

76
Q

What is a systematic review?

A

A review which evaluates and interprets all the available research evidence relevant to a particular question.

77
Q

What are the 7 steps in the process of a systematic review?

A

1) Well formulated question (PICOS)
2) Comprehensive data search
3) Unbiased selection and abstraction process
4) Critical appraisal of data
5) Synthesis of data
6) Objective interpretation of findings
7) Structured report with clearly reported methods and results

78
Q

What are the 5 inclusion criteria of the specific review question of a systematic review?

A
PICOS
Population
Intervention
Comparators
Outcomes
Study designs
79
Q

What are the 4 things you need to do when literature searching for the comprehensive data search of a systematic review?

A

Search all relevant databases, not just Medline.
Use an appropriate search strategy (e.g NICE use search specialists)
Check reference lists
Check all relevant sources for unpublished data

80
Q

What is the study protocol which systematic reviews are conducted according to, to ensure the validity of a review?

A

Clear inclusion criteria
Good strategy for literature searching
Selection of studies performed in duplicate by two reviewers to avoid unconscious bias
Assess the quality of the included studies
Data extraction performed according to a template

81
Q

Why is it important to assess the quality of included studies in a systematic review?

A

If the primary studies are of poor quality then you can’t trust the results.

82
Q

Which are the most commonly assessed factors of primary studies included in a systematic review?

A

Randomisation
Sufficient allocation concealment
Blinding
Withdrawals, and intention to treat analysis

83
Q

What is sensitivity analysis in a systematic review?

A

The results are presented with all the studies included, then you see what happens to the results if you remove the poor quality studies from the analysis.

84
Q

What are the key concepts in the data synthesis in a systematic review?

A

Descriptive data synthesis
Quantitative data synthesis (meta-analysis most useful but not always possible)
Heterogeneity
Sensitivity analysis
Publication bias (missing unpublished data?)

85
Q

What does the diamond in a forest plot represent?

A

The pooled result.

86
Q

What are the two types of heterogeneity in a systematic review?

A

1) Clinical diversity - differences between included studies in things like patient population, contact the treatment is given in
2) Statistical heterogeneity - differences in the results of the different studies

87
Q

What is publication bias?

A

When unpublished data (which may only be unpublished because it’s not headline-grabbing enough, but is no less relevant) is omitted which skews the results.

88
Q

What two things affect how useful a systematic review is?

A

Whether the specific review question is relevant to you

The available primary literature

89
Q

Why might guidelines draw on other sources of evidence (e.g expert opinion) as well as systematic reviews?

A

There is not enough time or evidence available for a systematic review to address every question in a guideline.

90
Q

What two things combine together to form graded recommendations in a guideline?

A

Synthesis of evidence from a systematic review, layered with considered judgement from the people compiling the guideline.

91
Q

What numbers can be assigned to sources by the Levels of Evidence?

A

1++ (high quality meta analyses, RCTs, systematic reviews)
1+
1-
2++ (cohort studies, case-control studies)
2+
2-
3
4 (non analytical studies e.g case series, case reports, expert opinion)

92
Q

What are the grades of recommendation that can be assigned to sources of evidence?

A

A (systematic reviews of RCTs directly applicable to target population)
B
C
D (evidence level 3 or 4, or extrapolated evidence from 2+ studies)

93
Q

For what two reasons might RCT evidence used in a guideline still be downgraded?

A

It has limited applicability to the relevant population.

It was based on surrogate outcomes.

94
Q

What are the requirements for good clinical guidelines?

A

Be based on systematic reviews.
Be developed by a knowledgeable multidisciplinary panel made up of experts and representatives from the key affected groups.
Consider important patient subgroups and patient preferences.
Be constructed through an explicit transparent process that minimises bias and conflict of interest.
Provide clear explanations of the logical relationship between alternative healthcare options and health outcomes.
Provide evidence on both the quality of evidence and the strength of the recommendations.
Be reconsidered and revised when important new evidence warrants modifications of recommendations.

95
Q

What six things should you assess a clinical guideline on?

A
Editorial independence
Applicabilty (is it relevant to your practice and patient groups)
Clarity of presentation
Rigor of development
Stakeholder involvement
Scope and purpose
96
Q

What is a clinical protocol?

A

Basically a small guideline, which is very specific and forms a straight forward plan to be followed in patient care.
May offer concise instructions on which diagnostic test to order, how to provide medical or surgical services, how long to hospitalise patients for…
Protocols are simpler and more prescriptive than a guideline.

97
Q

What are the two reasons good communication is needed in consultations?

A

Avoid complaints

Make a diagnosis

98
Q

Why is it crucial to set an agenda during a consultation?

A

Patients often bring more than one problem to a consultation, and they don’t raise their concerns in any order of importance so it is important to establish the MAIN reason for the visit.

99
Q

When finding common ground in a patient-centred consultation, what three things is it important for the patient and doctor to reach a mutual understanding about?

A

1) The nature of the problem
2) The goals of treatment
3) The priorities of treatment