Professional Responsibilities & Federal Tax Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Can tax practitioner charge contingent fees?

A

Circular 230 provides that practitioners are prohibited from charging an unconscionable fee and are only allowed to charge a contingent fee in certain circumstances. One situation in which a contingent fee is allowed is for a claim solely for a refund of interest and/or penalties assessed by the IRS but not for a claim for any refund of income tax paid to the IRS.

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2
Q

When will a CPA result in incurring an IRS penalty?

A

CPA will result in incurring an IRS penalty in the following:
- CPA did not sign the client’s tax return as preparer.
- CPA failing, without reasonable cause, to provide the client with a copy of an income tax return
- CPA negotiating a client’s tax refund check when CPA prepared the tax return
- CPA’s failure to furnish the tax preparer’s tax identification number with a tax return prepared for a taxpayer-client
- CPA’s failure to keep a copy of the taxpayer’s client tax return for the period ending three years after the close of the return period

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3
Q

What is the penalty fee if the tax preparer failed to sign the tax return?

A

Failure to sign the tax return is penalized for:
-$60 for each failure of a preparer to sign a tax return;
- maximum penalty of $31,500 per calendar year (2024)

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4
Q

Does the CPA need to examine the supporting documents to verify the information provided by the taxpayer?

A

In preparing or signing a return, a CPA may in good faith rely without verification upon information furnished by the client or by third parties.

A tax preparer need not examine all underlying documents to assure that the client is properly representing expenses.

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5
Q

What are the due diligence requirements for the earned income credit?

A

The due diligence requirements for the earned income credit address eligibility checklists, computation worksheets, record retention, and also reasonable inquiries to the taxpayer.

The penalty for failure to comply with the IRS’ “due diligence” requirements with respect to determining a client’s eligibility for the earned income credit is a penalty of $635 (2024) for each such failure.

The penalty for failure to be diligent will not apply if the tax return preparer can demonstrate that the preparer’s normal office procedures were reasonably designed and routinely followed to ensure due diligence compliance and the failure to meet the due diligence requirements was isolated and inadvertent. Both aspects are necessary.

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6
Q

What are the powers of the State Boards of Accountancy?

A

State boards of accountancy - have the sole power to:
- license CPAs
- sole responsibility for determining the CPE requirements for CPA practicing in their states
- has authority to suspend or revoke a CPA’s license to practice public accounting

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7
Q

What does AICPA determine?

A

AICPA determines the following:
- technical content of the Uniform CPA examination
- passing score of the Uniform CPA exemption
- structure of the Uniform CPA exam

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8
Q

What are the scenarios that the membership in the AICPA can be suspended or terminated without a hearing for certain offenses?

A

Membership in the AICPA can be suspended or terminated without a hearing for certain offenses. These offenses include but are not limited to:
(1) proof of conviction of a crime punishable by imprisonment for more than one year,
(2) proof of conviction for willful failure to file any income tax return,
(3) proof of conviction for filing a false or fraudulent income tax return or aiding in the preparation of a false or fraudulent income tax return of a client.

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9
Q

How do you determine if there would be a penalty for underpayment of estimated taxes for corporations?

A

For a NOT large corporation (taxable income is less than $1,000,000 in any of the three preceding tax years), the required annual payment is the lesser of:
(1) 100% of the current year tax, or
(2) 100% of the prior year tax (as long as the prior year tax is not zero)

For a large corporation (taxable income is $1,000,000 or more in any of the three preceding tax years), the required annual payment is:
(1) 100% of the current year tax.

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10
Q

What is failure-to-file penalty?

A
  • The extension was filed TIMELY and the return was filed during the extension period. It was not filed late, so there is NO failure-to-file penalty.
  • Penalty Rate - The penalty is 5% of the amount of tax due for each month (or partial month) the return is late, up to a maximum of 25% of unpaid taxes
  • Minimum Penalty - if the return is more than 60 days late, the minimum penalty increases to the lesser of $510 (2024) or 100% of the tax due
  • if no tax is due, then there is no failure-to-file penalty
  • Combined Penalty - if both he failure-to-file penalty and the failure-to-pay penalty are due, the failure-to-file penalty is reduced by the amount of the failure-to-pay penalty
  • The penalty for failure to file a partnership or S corporation tax return is $245 (2024) for each month or partial month (up to a maximum of 12 months) the return is late
    (or required information is missing) times the number of persons who are partners in the partnership at any time during the year
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11
Q

What is failure-to pay penalty?

A

Any payment made after the initial due date of the return is subject to the failure-to-pay penalty.
Failure-to-pay penalty is 0.5% of each month or fraction of a month up to a maximum aggregate failure-to-file and failure-to-pay penalties of 25% of unpaid tax.
- there is NO penalty if at least 90% of the tax is paid in by the unextended due date, and the balance is paid by the extended due date.

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12
Q

What is negligence penalty with respect to an understatement of tax (Accuracy-Related Penalty when Understatement is NOT substantial)?

A

Negligence Penalty with Respect to an Understatement of Tax
- Penalty Rate - The penalty is equal to 20% of the understatement of tax

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13
Q

What is penalty for substantial understatement of tax (accuracy-related penalties)?

A

Penalty for Substantial Understatement of Tax (Accuracy-Related Penalty)
- Penalty Rate - the penalty is 20% of the understatement tax
*An understatement is SUBSTANTIAL if it EXCEEDS the greater of 10% of the correct tax (5% of the correct tax if the understatement is due to the taxpayer overstating the QBI deduction) or $5,000.
*For C corporation other than personal holding corporations, an understatement is substantial if the amount of the understatement exceeds the lesser of (a) $10,000,000; or (b) the greater of $10,000 or
10% of the correct tax.

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14
Q

What is interest in relation to unpaid taxes?

A

Interest
All amounts paid after the initial due date are subject to interest.

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15
Q

How does accuracy-related penalties apply?

A

Accuracy-related penalties apply to the portion of tax underpayments attributable to negligence or disregard of tax rules and regulations as well as to any substantial understatement of income tax.

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16
Q

What is a negligence penalty?

A

The negligence penalty with respect to understatement of tax is an accuracy-based penalty for negligence or for disregard of tax rules and regulations.

The negligence penalty with respect to understatement is computed as 20% of the understatement of tax.

A penalty of 20 percent of the understatement is assessed for a substantial understatement of tax. This penalty can be avoided if the taxpayer has a reasonable basis for taking the position, the taxpayer has disclosed the position on the tax return, and the position does not pertain to a tax shelter.

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17
Q

What is the difference between the following:
- More-likely-than-not standard;
- Substantial authority standard; and
- Reasonable basis standard?

A

More-likely-than-not standard - a position that has more than 50% chance of succeeding.

Substantial authority standard - a position that has a more than 40% chance but a less than 50% chance of succeeding. Reports issued by the US Congress, IRS regulations, rules and releases, and US court case decisions constitute substantial authority for the substantial authority standard.

Reasonable basis standard - a position that is arguable but fairly unlikely to prevail in court. A numerical statement of this standard has at least 20% chance of succeeding

18
Q

What is a 30-day letter?

A

If an individual taxpayer rejects the IRS examiner’s findings in an audit of the taxpayer’s tax return, the IRS will issue the taxpayer a 30-day letter (preliminary notice) notifying the taxpayer of the right to appeal.

The taxpayer has 30 days to request an administrative appeals conference with the IRS Office of Appeals.

19
Q

What is a 90-day letter?

A

The IRS issues a statutory notice of deficiency (90-day letter) if the taxpayer does not request an administrative appeals conference after receipt of the 30-day letter or if the taxpayer and the IRS still do not agree on the revenue agent’s proposed adjustment after the appeals conference.

Upon receipt of a notice of deficiency from the IRS, the taxpayer has 90 days to pay the deficiency or file a petition with the Tax Court for a redetermination of the deficiency.
The taxpayer does not have to first pay the deficiency and file a claim for a refund with the IRS to file a petition with the US Tax Court.

A claim for a refund can be filed with the IRS after the taxpayer pays the deficiency. To file a petition for the case to be heard in the U.S. District Court or U.S. Court of Federal Claims, the taxpayer must first pay the deficiency and file a claim for a refund, then sue the IRS for a refund if the refund claim is denied.

20
Q

What can you file in the Small Cases Division?

A

A taxpayer can file a petition in the Small Cases Division if the amount in dispute does not exceed $50,000 for any one tax year.

21
Q

How can a taxpayer avoid penalties?

A

The taxpayer can generally avoid penalties if he/she:
- acted in good faith
- there was a reasonable basis to support the tax position
- taxpayer did not have willful neglect

22
Q

What is Private Letter Ruling (PLR)?

A

Private letter ruling (PLR)
- requested by taxpayer on guidance on the tax treatment of a proposed trasaction (typically one with significant tax consequences)
- IRS uses a PLR in response to taxpayer’s request
- PLR can be relied on by the taxpayer to whom it is issued
- CANNOT be relied on as precendent by other taxpayers

23
Q

What is General Counsel Memorandum (GCM)?

A

General counseel memorandum (GCM)
- Internal advice issued by IRS chief counsel to provide guidance to IRS attorneys and agents
- CANNOT be relied on as precedent by other taxpayers

24
Q

What is a Revenue Ruling?

A

Revenue ruling
- Official pronouncement by IRS on how the tax law applies to a specific transaction or fact pattern
- NOT issued at the request of one specific taxpayer
- published by IRS
- CAN be relief on as precedent by taxpayers

25
Q

What is a Technical Advice Memorandum (TAM)?

A

Technical advice memorandum (TAM)
- requested by an IRS agent during an audit and involves a completed, rather than a proposed, transaction
- IRS uses a TAM in response to IRS agent’s request
- CANNOT be relied on as precedent by other taxpayers

26
Q

What is a Temporary Regulation issued by the Treasury Department?

A

Temporary regulation issued by the Treasury Department
- primary authority because it is official tax law issued by a branch of the federal government, the administrative branch
- regulations are the Treasury Department’s official interpretation of the Internal Revenue Code and have the highest authoritative weight of the administrative sources of tax law
- A temporary regulation has the same authoritative weight as a final regulation

27
Q

What is “Ultramares limits”?

A

Ultramares limits the accountant’s liability for negligence to: (i) parties in privity and (ii) intended third party beneficiaries; parties who are merely “foreseen” cannot recover.

28
Q

What happens when there is a reckless departure from standards of due care that constitutes gross negligence?

A

Reckless departure from standards of due care constitutes gross negligence, which is also called constructive fraud. A CPA who commits constructive fraud is liable to all plaintiffs, not just those with whom the CPA dealt or of whom the CPA knew.

29
Q

What should plaintiff show to make a case for negligence against a CPA?

A

Negligence - evolves around the concept of a professional duty of care and the consequences of breaching that duty.

Plaintiff MUST show for FOUR elements to make a case for NEGLIGENCE against a CPA.
- Duty - plaintiff MUST show the defendant owed a duty of care to the plaintiff
- Breach of Duty - defendant breached that duty by failing to act with due care
- Injury - breach caused the plaintiff’s injury and damages
- Causation - negligence was the proximate cause of plaintiff’s losses

30
Q

What are the elements of “Actual Fraud”?

A

Fraud - intentional wrongdoing or deceit by the tax preparer with the aim of causing harm or loss to the client or a third party
Five Elements of “Actual Fraud”
- Misrepresentation of a material fact - false statement or a misleading omission was made. The person making the representation MUST know that the statement is FALSE or MUST make the statement recklessly without knowing whether it’s true or false.
- Scienter (Intent to Deceive) - the party making the misrepresentation must have an intention to deceive the other party. This element distinguishes actual fraud from innocent misrepresentation where there’s no intent to deceive.
- Actual and Justifiable Reliance on the Misrepresentation - the deceived party must have relied on the false statement or misleading omission when making a decision.
- Justifiable Reliance - Reliance on the misrepresentation must be justifiable. If it’s obvious that the statement was false or if the deceived party was reckless in their reliance, this element may not be satisfied.
- - Intent to induce the plaintiff’s reliance of the misrepresentation made by the practitioner.
- Damages - the deceived party MUST have suffered some hard or loss as a result of their reliance on the misrepresentation.

31
Q

What is Gross Negligence?

A

Gross negligence is a tort that arises when a CPA recklessly departs from the standards of due care. There is no requirement of privity in a gross negligence case.

The CPA can be held liable by anyone who relied on the resulting misinformation.

32
Q

What is Breach of Contract?

A

Liability for breach of contract typically extends only to those in privity of contract with the CPA and would not extend to unknown third parties.

33
Q

What is Strict Liability?

A

Strict liability does not depend on a CPA acting recklessly. If liability is strict, the CPA would be liable whether reckless or careful.

34
Q

What is Negligence?

A

Liability under a negligence theory arises from ordinary negligence rather than gross negligence. Liability is limited to clients and, at most, third parties who will foreseeably rely on the information.

35
Q

Does constructive fraud (negligence) NOT require intent?

A

Constructive fraud (negligence) does NOT require intent. Constructive fraud only requires reckless disregard for truth or falsity. Actual fraud, on the other hand, requires intent in making a material misstatement, upon which the plaintiff justifiably relies (and that the plaintiff suffers damages).

36
Q

What is Restatement rule?

A

The Restatement rule is the rule followed by a majority of jurisdictions providing that if a CPA performs an audit negligently, the CPA is liable to the client and to any foreseeable class of persons whom the CPA knows will be relying on the audit. Because the CPA firm knew that it was performing an audit so the company could obtain a bank loan, the bank’s reliance was foreseeable. Therefore, the CPA can be found liable to both the bank and the company.

37
Q

What are five elements of fraud?

A

Fraud has five elements:

  • A misrepresentation of material fact by the defendant;
  • Defendant’s intent to deceive (knowing the statement was false or recklessly making a statement without knowing whether it is true or false);
  • Actual and justifiable reliance by the plaintiff on the misrepresentation;
  • Defendant’s intent to induce the plaintiff’s reliance on the misrepresentation; and
  • Damages.
38
Q

What is Tax Practitioner Privilege (in the IRC)?

A

Tax practitioner privilege (in the IRC) - same common law protections of confidentiality that apply to a communication between a taxpayer and an attorney shall also apply to a communication between a taxpayer and any federally authorized tax practitioner.
- can ONLY be asserted in a NONcriminal tax matter before the IRS; or
- NONcriminal tax proceeding in federal court brought by or against the US

39
Q

What is Attorney-client Privilege?

A

Attorney-client privilege - privilege that protects the confidentiality of communications between an attorney and the attorney’s client, not a CPA and client.

40
Q

What is Work Product Privilege?

A

Work product privilege - protects tangible materials produced by a CPA in preparation for litigation as requested by an attorney but not communications between the attorney and the accountant about the product.

41
Q

An accountant is prohibited from showing the workpapers to anyone without the client’s permission, except:

A

An accountant is prohibited from showing the workpapers to anyone without the client’s permission, except:

  • Lawful subpoena.
  • Prospective purchasers, as long as the prospective purchasers do not disclose the confidential information.
  • Quality control panel.
  • AICPA/State Trial Board.
  • Court proceedings.
  • When GAAP requires disclosure of such information in the financial statements.