Professional Conduct Flashcards

1
Q

THREE ROLES OF LAWYER

A

Representative of clients; Officer of the Court; Public citizen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ATTORNEY DISCIPLINE PROCESS

A

Attorney Grievance Commission is the PR Court System; Bar Counsel - Prosecutor; Court of Appeals HAS review and final say

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

THE ATTORNEY-CLIENT RELATIONSHIP

A

The attorney-client relationship is contractual, but does not require consideration and exist even in the absence of a contract. The lawyer is the client’s agent and owed him fiduciary duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ATTORNEY’S FEES RULE:

A

Attorney fees and expenses must be reasonable, meaning non-excessive and clearly communicated to the client within a reasonable time after representative commences. Oral or written retainers are allowed. Fees and expenses greater than 50% of award, is excessive on the exam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

REASONABLENESS FEE FACTORS ON EXAM

A

Attorney Experience and Expertise, Length and Complexity of the Case, Affect of the Case on Attorney’s Business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CONTINGENCY FEE RULE

A

Contingency fees are permitted except in criminal and family law matters. All contingency fees must clearly communicated in writing and signed by the client. The lawyer must give a written statement to the client of the final outcome at the conclusion of the representation and a financial accounting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

FEE COLLECTION:

A

Attorney can collect fees before, during, or after representation. Advance Payments must be deposited in a trust account and withdrawn only as earned. Fee disputes must be settled via arbitration first, before bring suit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FEE SHARING:

A

Lawyers not in the same firm can share fees, if Client gives informed consent, confirmed in writing to joint representation. If fees are divided based on % of work each attorney does, each lawyer is liable for his own malpractice. If fee sharing is not based on work completed, attorney’s are jointly liable. Fee may not be shared with non lawyers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DUTIES OWED TO THE CLIENT: “A lawyer must be “C . . C.O.I.L.E.D.”

A
  • C = Confidentiality
  • C = Competence
  • O = Objectives
  • I = Information / Communication
  • L = Loyalty, a.k.a. conflicts of interest
  • E = End of Representation
  • D = Diligence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DUTY OF COMPETENCE

A

Lawyer must act with sufficient legal knowledge, skill, thoroughness and preparation. Level of sufficient competence is determined by the circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DUTY TO ABIDE BY OBJECTIVES / SCOPE OF REPRESENTATION & DECISIONS MAKING:

A

The client determines the objectives of the representation and the lawyer must obey, unless illegal or repugnant, in which case lawyer may withdrawal. Lawyer determines the means to achieve objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Decisions Specifically Allocated to the Client (T - POT):

A
  • T = Jury or Court Trial (criminal cases only)
  • P = Plea or settle
  • O = Objectives of the Representation
  • T = Testify or not (criminal cases only)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How to handle a client with Diminished Capacity:

A

Allow client to make any decisions he is competent to make and when deciding for the client, act in his best interest. Can seek appointment of guardian for client to make the decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DUTY OF INFORMATION / COMMUNICATION:

A

The lawyer has a duty to keep Client reasonably informed with provide prompt responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DUTY OF DILIGENCE:

A

Duty to act in a timely manner on the client’s behalf, because an unreasonable delay can hurt clients. On exam, slow lawyers = diligence issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DUTY OF CONFIDENTIALITY:

A

The lawyer must not disclose confidential information obtained from Client with limited exceptions. Generally, presence of a third person destroys confidentiality… unless it is someone the client reasonably expects confidentiality from, such as one that serves some lawyer-client interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MANDATORY CONFIDENTIALLITY EXCEPTIONS

A

Mandatory disclosure required if necessary to prevent/expose Litigation Fraud (perjury/doctored evidence) or to avoid assisting client’s future fraud or crime against a third person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Discretionary Confidentially Disclosures

A

Disclosure of Confidential Information is discretionary to benefit client, prevent substantial physical injury to someone, prevent economic harm, seek advice about RPC compliance, comply with a court order, or in suits between lawyer and client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DUTY OF LOYALTY:

A

No interest of the attorney’s can EVER interfere with his duty to his client. This often involves conflicts of interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Conflict of Interest Analysis:

A

Identify the client of clients. Determine if conflict is directly adverse or only potentially adverse. Determine is Conflict is consentable, if so obtain informed consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is a conflict consentable?

A

Only if lawyer subjectively and objectively believes that he will be able to provide competent and diligent representation to each affected client, despite the conflict. Directly adverse COI is not consentable, thus lawyer cannot represent one or more clients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Business Transactions Rule

A

Lawyer is prohibited from entering into a business, financial or property transaction with a client, unless it is fair and reasonable for the client, the terms are disclosed in plain English writing, the client gives informed consent after reasonable opportunity to seek advice from outside counsel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Big Gifts Rule

A

Lawyer can NOT solicit a substantial gift from a client, nor draft a document giving herself or a related person a substantial gift or bequests; unless the client is Lawyer’s close relative, or represent by independent counsel as to the gift giving. Unsolicited and solicited small gifts are ok.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Media Rights Rules:

A

A Lawyer cannot negotiate media / literary rights to herself concerning the subject of the representation until AFTER the representation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Financial Assistance Rule

A

Lawyer cannot provide Financial Assistance to a Client except the he is permitted to advance litigation expenses if operating on contingency fee, or pay litigation EXPENSES of a poor Client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Third Party Payment Fee Rule:

A

Third parties can’t pay a client’s fee unless client consents and third party not privy to decisions or information.

27
Q

Aggregate Settlement Rule:

A

A lawyer cannot aggregate a settlement to cover multiple clients unless all clients consent and settlement is fully disclosed to them.

28
Q

Legal Malpractice Liability Rule:

A

A lawyer cannot limit malpractice liability in advance, unless permitted by law and Client has independent counsel. Further, a lawyer cannot settle legal malpractice claims with an unrepresented client until he is advised to seek counsel in writing

29
Q

Interest in Litigation Rule

A

A Lawyer Can NOT Acquire an Interest in Litigation, except a lien or prospective judgment for unpaid fee or in contingency fee situation.

30
Q

COI Between Former & New Client:

A

If a new client’s interest conflict with a former client’s interest the representation of new client is prohibits if the client’s interest are materially adverse and the representation involves a substantially related matter.

31
Q

Former Firm’s Client Rule

A

A client can represent a client that was a customer of his former firm if the Lawyer did not actually represent the former client. But if lawyer did, he needs informed consent.

firm’s client, general conflict rule applies - reasonable belief / informed consent.

32
Q

Prospective Client Rule:

A

A lawyer shall not represent a client with interests materially adverse to those of a prospective client in the same or a substantially related matter, if the lawyer received significantly harmful information from the prospective client, without informed consent. Imputed to firm, unless attorney screened.

33
Q

Third Party Neutral Rule:

A

A lawyer must not represent anyone in a matter in which the lawyer participated personally and substantially as a third-party neutral, absent informed consent. Imputed to firm, unless screened.

34
Q

Imputed Disqualification rule:

A

A conflict for one lawyer is a conflict for the firm and all the firm’s lawyers. To get around this you must be screened from the new case and CANNOT receive any portion of the fee from it.

35
Q

Organizational Clients Rule:

A

If Lawyer rep’s an organization and knows an officer’s illegal acts will substantially injure the organization, Lawyer must act to protect the organization - dissuade the actor, report the matter to “higher-ups” in the org., even disclose proposed illegal behavior if highest authority will not act.

36
Q

SAFEKEEPING OTHER’S PROPERTY

A

An attorney keeping property or unearned fees for a client must Segregate it from his own property/accounts, label the property, and keep adequate records/inventory.

37
Q

Advance Payments:

A

Must deposit in trust account and withdraw only as earned and must return unearned fees (always on the exam)

38
Q

When can client fired attorney?

A

A client can fire you at any point with or without cause, even if unfair, or against the retainer. However, Court permission required if appearance entered in litigation.

39
Q

Mandatory Withdrawal:

A

A lawyer must withdraw if continued representation will violate RPC; or he can’t perform his duties; or he is discharged by Client .

40
Q

Permissive Withdrawal

A

A lawyer may withdraw if no adverse effect on client or for “good cause” such as illegal client behavior, unreasonable financial hardship, or client failed to pay after numerous warnings.

41
Q

Discharge By Court:

A

If lawyer’s appearance is entered in litigation, Lawyer can only withdraw if client has a substitute attorney and you file a Notice of Withdrawal or you otherwise file a “Motion to Withdrawal” in court.

42
Q

Responsibilities of a Withdrawing or Fired Lawyer:

A

Continue to protect client’s interest, give notice to client, return unearned fees and clients property.

43
Q

Candor to Tribunal:

A

Lawyer cannot knowingly make false representations, offer false evidence, fail to disclose material facts necessary to avoid assisting crime or fraud by client… OR fail to disclose directly adverse controlling legal authority. If lawyer fails, he must take reasonable remedial measures (duty ends at end of proceeding).

44
Q

FAIRNESS TO OPPOSING PARTY AND COUNSEL

A

Can’t interfere with right of adversary to investigate / obtain evidence.

45
Q

IMPARTIALITY AND DECORUM OF THE TRIBUNAL:

A

A lawyer cannot seek to improperly influence judge, juror, etc, thus no ex parte communications allowed. A lawyer must disclose breach of this duty to the court.

46
Q

TRIAL PUBLICITY RULE:

A

A lawyer is only allowed to make public statements about the trial schedule or sequence and information that is already public record.

47
Q

SPECIAL RESPONSIBILITIES OF A PROSECUTOR:

A

A prosecutor may only proceed with probable cause, must give defendant chance to retain counsel, and cannot seek to have an unrepresented defendant waive pretrial rights.

48
Q

LAWYER IN NON-ADJUDICATIVE PROCEEDINGS:

A

A lawyer representing another at a non-adjudicative proceeding must Disclose his “representative capacity.”

49
Q

TRUTHFULNESS IN STATEMENTS TO 3rd Party

A

A Lawyer shall not knowingly make a false statement of material fact to a third person.

50
Q

COMMUNICATIONS WITH PERSONS REPRESENTED BY COUNSEL:

A

A lawyer may not contract represented persons without consent of their attorney, even if the person initiates the conversation, unless authorized by law.

51
Q

COMMUNICATIONS WITH PERSONS UNREPRESENTED BY COUNSEL

A

A lawyer may speak to an unrepresented party but cannot imply she is disinterested or offer legal advice.

52
Q

RESPECT FOR RIGHTS OF 3rd PERSONS:

A

A lawyer cannot seek to embarrass, delay, or burden a third person not can he seek unwaived privileged information. An attorney you received protected must terminate the communication and notify the court.

53
Q

RESPONSIBILITIES OF A SUPERVISORY LAWYER:

A

Lawyer has a duty to properly train and supervise staff as well as create adequate policy to ensure compliance with RPC by subordinates. A supervisor is liable for staffs conduct if he order it, ratifies it, or fails to mitigate it.

54
Q

UNAUTHORIZED PRACTICE OF LAW:

A

The practice of law equal any action that calls for professional legal judgment. Attorney’s staff cannot practice law and an attorney cannot assist and unlicensed lawyer to practice.

55
Q

RESPONSIBILITIES REGARDING LAW-RELATED SERVICES:

A

RPC controls Lawyer providing law related services if not distinct from law practice and he should advise persons receiving law-related services that the services are not legal services and no client-lawyer protections exist.

56
Q

ADVERTISING GENERAL RULE

A

State can ban false or misleading ads. Thus, advertising cannot create unjustified expectionation, suggest results, or compare services with other lawyers, or cannot state success record, unless disclaimed. Actors cannot act as clients.

57
Q

ADVERTISING SPECIFIC RULES:

A

All ads must be kept for three years. Mailed ads by be stamped “Advertising Material” and contain the actual lawyer’s name. No fee ads MUST contain details regarding who pays expenses.

58
Q

SOLICITATION RULE

A

An attorney cannot directly solicit business from a person except friends and family. Must use written or recorded ads or robocalls. A lawyer may NEVER solicit from a mentally disable person or person that has told the stop not to contact him.

59
Q

COMMUNICATION OF FIELDS OF PRACTICE

A

An ad can NOT claim a specialty or expertise, except patent attorneys; CAN state “areas of practice…”

60
Q

FIRM NAMES AND LETTERHEADS

A

Jurisdictional limits must be stated and no public officials (including judges) not working for firm can be on letterhead. Further, the firm name cannot suggest government affliction.

61
Q

BAR COMMUNICATION RULE:

A

An attorney must respond promptly and completely to bar counsel if they receive notice of a complaint or inquiry from them.

62
Q

DUTY TO REPORT MISCONDUCT:

A

A catch all provision of RPC that requires attorney to report a violation of any rule, general bad conduct, or anything a lawyer does that reflects poorly on the profession.

63
Q

MISCONDUCT

A

(a violation of any other here is also a violation of this rule, as is any bad conduct generally… crime, lie, adultery, whatever… anything that “Reflects poorly on the profession.”)

64
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE AGC:

A

MD lawyers are subject to the MLRPC regardless of where conduct occurs. MD Lawyer handling case out of state is typically subject to RPC where they are handling case.