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Basics EXAm 1 > Professional Code & patient Safety > Flashcards

Professional Code & patient Safety Flashcards

1
Q

What is Autonomy?

A

Respect for the patient’s right to self determination

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2
Q

What is Beneficence?

A

The Duty to “do good”

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3
Q

What is Non-Maleficence?

A

The duty to “not do bad”

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4
Q

What is Juctice?

A

Treat all people equally & equitably

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5
Q

What guides CRNA practice?

A

Federal & State Laws

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6
Q

CRNA’s are reimbursed by

A

Centers for Medical & Medicaid (CMS)

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7
Q

What is the AANA?

A

A professional organization that represents CRNA’s & students; provides advocacy

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8
Q

What is the COA?

A

Ensures the academic quality of nurse anesthesiology programs

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9
Q

CRNAs need to follow

A

Scope of Practice

Provided with a state, region or other jurisdiction

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10
Q

The Scope of Practice for CRNAs is determined by the

A

State laws that govern the practice

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11
Q

Informed consent is grounded int he

A

Ethical principle of respect for patient Autonomy

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12
Q

Autonomy means individuals should be

A

free to make choices without external interference

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13
Q

The provider must obtain consent & also provide information about

A

Risk/alternatives

The procedure

Potential Consequences

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14
Q

Autonomy relies on

A

Competence

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15
Q

Competence is a

A

Legal Determination

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16
Q

Capacity refers to the

A

Necessary skills & abilities required to participate in making medical decisions

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17
Q

What is DNR full suspension?

A

All provisions of the advance directive are suspended during anesthesia & the procedure for a specified period of time

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18
Q

The scope of an CRNA is determined by

A

Experience
Education
Local State/federal Laws

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19
Q

An avoidable but Unintentional medical mistake is referred to as medical

A

Negligence

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20
Q

medical malpractice is when a

A

Healthcare professional deviates from the accepted standard of care, resulting in harm/injury

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21
Q

Respecting autonomy involves disclosing

A

Medical mistakes that harm the patient

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22
Q

Documentation must be____________-, ensuring_______________

A

Timely, accurate, legible & comprehensive

Dignity, privacy & confidentiality

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23
Q

__________is recognized as the gold standard in healthcare

A

Patient centered care

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24
Q

Respect & responsiveness to health belief, practices & needs of a divers population is

A

Cultural Competence

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25
Q

Transmission of an infectious agent involves what 3 things?

A

Reservoir of Infectious Agent

Mode of Transmission

Susceptible Host

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26
Q

What makes a host susceptible?

A

Age

Co-morbid conditions

Medication Therapies

Nutritional Status

Preventive Actions

27
Q

What is the chain of Infection?

A

Infectious Agent

Reservoir

Portal of Exit

Mode of Transmission

Portal of Entry

Susceptible host

28
Q

What are the components of Standard Precautions

A

Hand Hygiene

Personal Protective Equipment

29
Q

What are the types of PPE?

A

Protective Clothing

Gloves

Masks

Eye protection

30
Q

Frequent hand hygiene occurs every

A

5-10 min

31
Q

What is the purpose of High-Quality heat & Moisture Exchange Filters (HMEFs)

A

Trap pathogens & prevent them from reaching the anesthesia machine & gas sample line

Filters out moisture & pathogens

32
Q

What filter is recommended for a COVID patient?

A

VFE of 99.99%

33
Q

When should an injection be prepared?

A

Close to the time of administration

34
Q

The AORN recommends disposing a drawn up medication in a syringe after

A

1 hour

35
Q

The ASA recommends medications be discarded within

A

24 hours

36
Q

What is a surgical site infection (SSI)?

A

Is acquired by a patient in a healthcare facility following a surgical procedure

Not present at the time of admission

Is preventable

37
Q

An SSI diagnosed at or =near the surgical site within

A

30 days of the procedure

38
Q

For procedures involving prosthetic implantation, an SSI may be diagnosed if occurrence happened within

A

90 days of the procedure

39
Q

What can contribute to SSI?

A

Anesthesia provider & their workspace

40
Q

What 4 dimensions should be considered with SSI?

A

Hand Hygiene

Safe Injection Practices

Airway Management

Environmental disinfectant

41
Q

What is destroyed with the use of Ultraviolet sanitizers?

A

Airborne & static microorganisms

(used with chemical disinfectants)

42
Q

When should cephalosporins be administered?

A

Within 30 min of incision

43
Q

When should vancomycin/fluoroquinolone be administered?

A

120min prior to incision

44
Q

Should weight based dosing be used?

A

Yes

2gm Ancef <120kg

3gm Ancef >120kg

45
Q

patient should maintain temp above

A

95 F
35 C

46
Q

Hypothermia can trigger

A

Vasoconstriction & tissue hypoxia

Impairs function of neutrophils, reducing protection against infection

47
Q

Hyperglycemia is associated with

A

SSI

48
Q

What is the recommended BS range?

A

<200

<180 for cardiac patients

49
Q

There are reduced infections at a FIO2 of

A

> .80

50
Q

Administering blood is associated with

A

Reduced Immune Function

51
Q

What procedures require Aseptic technique?

A

Central/Arterial Lines

Regional Blocks

Neuraxial Procedures (spinals/epidurals)

52
Q

Volatile Anesthetics can cause

A

Neurodevelopment in younger children

Post-Op cognitive dysfunction

Immune system suppression in all ages

Reproductive health

53
Q

Volatile exposure limits should not exceed

Nitrous Oxide?

A

2ppm

25ppm

54
Q

Surgical smoke from electrocautery may contain

A

Infectious & malignant cells

Carcinogenic compounds

55
Q

What helps reduce exposure risks of surgical smoke?

A

Proper evacuation & filtration equipment

56
Q

What should be used with lasers are being used?

A

Laser-specific surgical masks

57
Q

What is the Fire Triad?

A

Fuel (alcohol prep)

Oxidizer (open source of O2)

Ignition source (electrocautery)

58
Q

What should always be available when laser/electrocautery is in use?

A

Saline & fire extinguishers

59
Q

What is the annual exposure of ionizing radiation?

A

5,000 mrem/year

60
Q

What is the calculation of lifetime exposure to ionizing radiation?

A

A person’s age x 1,000 millirems

61
Q

What are the core Crisis Resource Management components?

A

Team Management

Resource Allocation

Situational Awareness

Dynamic Decision Making

62
Q

Cognitive aids can reduce errors by up to

A

75% during crisis situations

63
Q

What are the 8 elements of core cognitive process

A

Observation
Verification
Problem recognition
Prediction
Decision Making
Action
Evaluation
Start again at 1

64
Q

What are the 5 steps on attention management

A

Attention Sharing
Dynamic Attention Allocation
Developing Rhythms & patterns
Balancing Focus
Offloading Tasks

Basics EXAm 1 (4 decks)

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