Prof Meerans Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

Infective Endocarditis causative organism?

A

Strep Viridians

S. Aureus after IVDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infective Endocarditis signs?

Hand, eyes, chest, abdomen

A

Hand = Clubbing, petichiae, splinter haemorrhages, Jane ways lesions and Olsen nodes

Eyes = Roth spots

Chest = changing murmur

Abdomen = microscopic haematuria and splenomegaly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is acute rheumatic fever?

A

An immunological response to to strep pyogenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Major criteria for acute rheumatic fever?

A
Carditis
Arthritis
Sydenham chorea 
Erythema marginatum 
Subcutaneous nodules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever?

A
Fever
Arthralgia
Raised ESR
Leuocytosis
Prolonged PR on ECG
Hx of rheumatic fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mitral stenosis murmur?

A

Blowing mid diastolic murmur with presystolic accentuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clinical features of mitral stenosis?

A
Middle aged female
Malar flush 
AF
Tapping, non-displaced apex
Right ventricular heave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What murmur is mitral regurgitation?

A

Pansystolic murmur, radiating to the axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Examination findings of mitral regurgitation?

A

Displaced apex
Apical thrill
Quiet S1, but S3 present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is S1 loud in mitral stenosis?

A

Mitral valve can’t close properly, so force of the ventricles closes it loudly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What murmur is aortic regurgitation?

A

Early diastolic murmur at left sternal edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the clinical features of aortic regurgitation?

A
Collapsing pulse
Corrigans sign = visible neck pulses
De Mussets = head bobbing 
Dynamic apex
Quinckes = capillary pulsation in the nail bed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes of AF?

A

IHD
Thyrotoxicosis
Rheumatic Heart Disease

Also alcohol, PE, cardiomyopathy or lone AF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the different MI leads, and the artery supplying them?

A

II, III, aVF - inferior MI = right coronary

V1-V4 - anterior MI = LAD

I, V5 and V6 - lateral = circumflex artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of an acute MI?

A
Sit up and give oxygen if <94%
GTN
Aspirin 300mg and Clopidogrel 
Diamorphine IV 2.5-5mg
If no PCI = Streptokinase 1.5MU over 1 hour (tPA has clear mortality benefits)
If PCI = LMWH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Complications if MI?

A

Arrhythmia
Cardiac failure
Embolism
Rupture / aneurysmal dilation
Pericarditis: early = full thickness anterior MI
Late = Dressler’s at 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What would left ventricular aneurysm look like on CXR and ECG?

A

Like a bubble, vs the uniform enlargement of cardiomegaly

ST elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pulmonary embolism ECG?

A

Most common is normal or sinus tachycardia

S1Q3T3 = deep S and Q, with t wave inversion (in V1-V4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Signs of heart failure?

A

Tachycardia and tachypnoea
Wheeze and bilateral crepitations
3rd heart sound
Raised JVP and peripheral oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causes of S3?

A

Rapid ventricular filling
Can be normal in <35
Heart failure, MR and constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of S4?

A

Atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle

Hypertension and aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Heart failure vs cardiogenic shock ?

A

Heart failure is where CO is insufficient to meet tissue demands.

Cardiogenic shock is where heart failure is so severe that there is not enough pressure to perfume even the heart/brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of cardiogenic shock?

A

Dobutamine or dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is apex beat displaced by dilatation or hypertrophy?

A

Dilatation

Caused by volume overload;

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
ASD/VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What causes hypertrophy?
Pressure overload: Aortic stenosis HTN Coarctation of the aorta.
26
What to look for an an exercise ECG?
Enlarged V4/V5 = angina
27
Management of SVT?
Vasovagal manoeuvres | Then IV adenosine 6mg then 12 then 12.
28
What are the clinical examination findings in consolidation?
Decreased expansion ipsilaterally Dull to percuss Increased tactile vocal fremitus Bronchial breathing
29
Management of pneumonia?
Amoxicillin and clarithromycin
30
Are hand warm or cold in septic shock?
Warm | Due to severe endotoxins release = vasodilation
31
Treatment of septic shock?
Fluids | Noradrenaline to cause vasoconstriction.
32
Causes of respiratory clubbing?
``` Bronchogenic carcinoma Cystic fibrosis Bronchiectasis Empyema Fibrosis alveolitis ```
33
Signs of hypercapnoea?
``` Retention flap Bounding pulse Vasodilation = warm hands Papilloedema Mental changes Drowsiness ```
34
Types of obstructive airway disease?
Asthma = reversible Emphysema = irreversible, destruction of lung distal to terminal bronchiole Chronic bronchitis
35
Signs of acute severe asthma?
``` Not talking Peak flow <150 Cyanosis Tachycardia Silent chest Normal carbon dioxide Pulsus paradoxus = inspiratory systolic pressure fall >20mmHg. ```
36
Management of acute severe asthma?
High flow oxygen Nebulised salbutamol 5mg driven by oxygen Ipratropium bromide 0.5mg Steroids 100mg IV hydrocortisone and 40mg prednisolone If bad ITU and aminophylline 100-200mg IV bolus
37
Blood gases in asthma?
Oxygen and carbon stay normal until it hits severe Severe = low Oxygen and high carbon
38
Features of pancoasts tumour?
Horners syndrome = ptosis, mitosis and anhydrosis Thenar wasting
39
Endocrine manifestations of lung cancer?
Cushings = cortisol from oat cell carcinoma SIADH = ADH from oat cell carcinoma - high urine osmolality, low serum osmolality - low sodium PTH from squamous cell carcinoma = hypercalcaemic
40
Signs of obstructive airway disease?
``` Hyperexpansion Barrel chest = reduced cricosternal distance Tracheal tug Decreased expansion Resonant Expiration you wheeze ```
41
Signs of pleural effusion?
Decreases expansion Normal trachea Reduced air entry and vocal fremitus Stony dull to percuss
42
Signs of stable chronic liver disease?
Spider naevi >5, in distribution of SVC Palmar erythema Gyanecomastia Dupuytren’s
43
Signs of liver cell failure?
``` Jaundice Leuconychia = low protein Brushing = clotting deranged Ascites and oedema = hypoalbuminaemia Encephalopathy ```
44
Signs of portal HTN?
``` SAVE Splenomegaly Ascites Varices- oesophageal or caput medusa - blood goes away from the umbillicus Encephalopathy ```
45
Causes of ascites?
``` Portal HTN IVC / hepatic vein obstruction Constrictive pericarditis Malignancy / TB Meigs syndrome = ascites, pleural effusion and benign ovarian tumour ```
46
How do you clinically distinguish obstructive jaundice from hepatic?
``` Pale stool, dark urine and pruritic Urine negative for urobilinogen LFT’s cholestatic = ALP very high PBC = AMA+ve, with high IgM CAH = ANF+ve, high IgG ```
47
Distinguishing kidney mass vs spleen in LUQ?
Spleen: - moves across not just down like kidney - find a notch - dull to percuss - can’t get above the spleen - not ballotable
48
Cardiogenic vs Septic vs Hypovolaemic shock?
Blood pressure low in all of them JVP will be raised in cardiogenic, low in other two. Peripheries warm in septic shock, cold in other two Management: Cardiogenic = dobutamine Septic = noradrenaline Hypovolaemic = Blood
49
Erythema nodusum - what is it and causes?
Painful red lesions on shins ``` Sarcoid Sulphonamides Salicylates Streptococcal infection IBD ```
50
Erythema multiforme - what is it and what causes it?
Typical target lesion Usually in children or young adults, 7-14 days after herpes simplex virus Mycoplasma Drugs e.g. sulphonamides and sulphonylureas If severe = Stevens Johnson’s syndrome - associated mucosal ulceration - liver failure
51
Erythema ab igne - what is it and causes?
Brown pigment art discolouration caused by chronic heat over skin Often seen in cases with chronic pain.
52
Erythema marginatum - what is it and causes?
Annular eruption with well defined erythematous borders and central clearing Rheumatic fever
53
Diabetic ketoacidosis features?
No insulin = glucose cannot enter cells Blood glucose high as cannot enter cells Body makes ketones to fuel brain = high blood ketones Severe dehydration and air hunger
54
Diabetes glucose definitions?
Fasting > 7.0 - impaired 6.0 - 7.0 OGTT > 11.1
55
Is HONKC more likely to occur in type 1 or type 2?
Type 2 Significant hyperglycaemia in the absence of ketosis, as insulin is sufficient to suppress ketogenesis but not hyperglycaemia. Management: rehydrate slowly with normal saline
56
DKA management?
Rehydrate with normal saline and IV insulin infusion Replace total body potassium If pH falls below 7.0 May try small amount of bicarbonate 1.26%
57
Stages of diabetic retinopathy? What you see in each stage....
Background = venodilation, microaneurysms and hard exudates Pre-proliferative = soft exudates (cotton wool spots) Proliferative = new vessels
58
Hypertensive retinopathy stages ?
Grade 1 = arteriolar narrowing and silver wiring Grade 2 = AV nipping Grade 3 = Flame shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots Grade 4 = papilloedema
59
What is Graves ?
Systemic autoimmune disease involving several autoantibodies: - TSH - growth factor receptors in extra ocular muscles - one that stimulates growth in the pretibial region
60
Features of Graves?
Hyperthyroidism Exophthalmos Pretibial myxoedema Smooth goitre
61
Features of thyrotoxicosis
``` Weight loss with increased appetite SOB, palpitations Sweating Heat intolerance Diarrhoea Lid lag ```
62
Why does lid lag occur?
Sympathetic innervation to the eyelid is over activated by thyroxine = open eye lid
63
Management of hyperthyroidism?
Medical = beta blockers, carbimazole and propyluracil Radioiodine Surgical
64
Acromegaly instant things on walking in? Good acromegaly question for growth?
Shake hand = sweaty and doughy, large person Any change in hat size, ring size , shoe size.
65
Complications of acromegaly?
Bitemporal hemianopia Pituitary macroadenoma secreting GH - perform OGTT and measure GH, it should be suppressed.
66
Acromegaly management?
Transphenoidal hypophysectomy Pituitary irradiation Medical = octreotide 100-200mcg every 8 Hours, cabergoline
67
Cushing’s syndrome causes?
Pituitary dependant Disease = 85% Ectopic ACTH = 5% Adrenal adenoma secreting cortisol = 10%
68
Complications of cushings?
Proximal myopathy and centripetal obesity HTN Diabetes Osteoporosis
69
What is pagets?
Overactive osteoclasts.
70
Pagets clinical features?
Warmth and tenderness over bones Hearing loss - pagets of ossicles = conductive deafness - pagets of 8th nerve canal = neurosensory deafness Bowed legs Frontal bossing
71
Management of pagets?
None may be needed Simple analgesia Calcitonin injections can suppress osteoclasts IV pamindronate every 3 months Regular bisphosphonates .
72
Meningitis causative organisms?
Neonate = e.coli, GBS Adults = streptococcal Old = pneumococcal
73
What does blood in the CSF indicate?
Subarachnoid Can manage with nimodipine to maintain brain perfusion.
74
Someone hit on the head by cricket ball?
Extradural Has to have a skull fracture, which will tear middle meningeal vessels Clinically = lucid interval for an hour, then deteriorates. Lens shape on CT
75
Features of Parkinson’s disease?
Bradykinesia Cogwheel rigidity Pill rolling tremor
76
What is synkinesis?
In parkinsons, tone will increase on distraction
77
Features of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Thenar wasting Sensory loss over median distribution Pain at night, relieve by hanging hand out of bed Tinels tap test
78
Clinical signs of a cerebellar lesion?
``` Dysdiadokinesia Ataxia Nystagmus Intention tremor Staccato speech Hypotonia ```
79
Neurofibromatosis 1 features?
Autosomal dominant inheritance Axillary and inguinal freckling Optic glioma and brain tumours Iris hamartoma Small risk of phaeochromocytoma
80
INO: where is the pathology?
Lesion to the medial longitudinal fasiculus, a collection of neuronal fibres which co-ordinates occulomotor, trochlear and abducens.
81
INO: what are the clinical features?
Dissociated eye movements Impaired adduction ipsilaterally And nystagmus in the contralateral eye on abduction. I ADore NYC DUCks
82
INO: causes ?
MS Vascular brainstem lesions Encephalitis
83
Argyll Robertson clinical features?
Like a prostitute = accommodates but doesn’t react. So small irregular pupils that do not constrict to bright light
84
Where’s the lesion of Argyll Robertson pupil.
Lesion in the pretectal region
85
What is Argyll Robertson a classic sign of?
Neurosyphilis Also diabetes and MS.
86
What are the clinical features of Holmes Adie pupil?
Sudden onset blurred vision in a female. Pupils are large React very slowly to light and accommodation Dilation also slow Slow deep tendon reflexes
87
Is MS UMN or LMN?
Always UMN!!!
88
What are the clinical features of Marcus Gunn pupil?
RAPD Pupil will constrict consensually when light shone on good eye Pupil will dilate when light removes from other eye and moved to the blind eye.
89
Cause of Marcus Gunn pupil?
Multiple sclerosis
90
APTT, PT and bleeding time in: Haemophilia Vitamin K deficiency Von Willebrands
Haemophilia: APTT raised. Normal rest. Vit K = APTT, PT raised. Normal bleeding VWD = Prolonged bleeding, APTT raised. Normal PT