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GCSE Design and Technology > Product Design OCR > Flashcards

Product Design OCR Flashcards

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1
Q

what is one off production also called?

A

job production

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2
Q

what is one off/ job production?

A

made to specific user requirements. Can be bespoke by skilled experts

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3
Q

what is batch production?

A

a series of the same product, can be small or large quantities. This item is finished before the next lot of goods

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4
Q

what are 2 positives and 2 negatives of one off/ job production?

A

+ customised
+ unique
- long time to produce
- skills/ training required

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5
Q

what are 2 positives and 2 negatives of batch production?

A

+ cost per item is lower (than 1 off)
+ flexibility for variations of a product
- can be repetitive and boring work
- machinery has to be reset and cleaned between products

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6
Q

what is mass/ high volume production?

A

large amounts of standardised products. The product changes regularly so production cannot be continuous.

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7
Q

what are 2 positives and 2 negatives of mass production?

A

+ efficient
+ consistent quality
- inflexible production line
- repetitive work may lead to less motivated staff

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8
Q

what is continuous flow production?

A

difference between this and mass is that the production line is kept running to eliminate the expense of stopping and starting

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9
Q

what are 2 positives and 2 negatives of continuous flow production?

A

+ high volume of goods
+ low production costs
- machinery costs are high
- inflexible production line

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10
Q

what is just in time manufacture?

A

The company only has enough stock to cover immediate needs. Ensures the right amount of material arrives. Items are created to meet demand

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11
Q

what are 2 positives and 2 negatives of just in time production?

A

+ minimal storage space
+ reduces waste
- risk of running out of stock
- lack of control of time frame - from suppliers to supplying

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12
Q

what is another name for mass production?

A

high volume production

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13
Q

what is total quality management production?

A

a long term approach through customer satisfaction. The idea of TQM means that everyone participates in improving processes.

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14
Q

what are 2 positives and 2 negatives of total quality management?

A

+ customer focused
+ production is constantly checked on to see how it can be improved and changes are made quickly
- long term commitment
- expensive to ensure quality

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15
Q

what is cell production?

A

flow production line split into a number of self-contained units. Each cell is responsible for a part of the product. Team members are often skilled at a number of roles

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16
Q

what are 2 positives and 2 negatives of cell production?

A

+ quality improvement - take responsibility for each part
+ workers become multi skilled at different roles
- May mean the machinery isn’t used as intensively as if in flow production
- greater investment is required for stock ordering

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17
Q

what is another name for cell production?

A

lean production

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18
Q

what are 2 benefits and 2 negatives of standardised parts?

A

+ reduction in costs (make in large quantities)
+ better quality
- work is repetitive and boring
- small margin for errors

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19
Q

what are 3 factors which products are produced depending on?

A
  1. type of product being made
  2. quantity required
  3. labour costs
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20
Q

what is fully automated manufacturing?

A

factories which do not need human presence on-site and can run unattended. This means there is a lower upkeep cost.

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21
Q

what are bought in goods?

A

goods supplied from an outside company.

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22
Q

what are 3 benefits of bought in goods?

A

+ reduces storage costs
+ cost benefits through economies of scale
+ Quality assured by the component manufacture

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23
Q

what are three examples of CAD systems?

A

computer
scanner (flat and 3D)
2D and 3D software

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24
Q

what are three examples of CAM systems?

A

CNC lathe, miller, router
laser cutter
3D printer

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25
Q

what are 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of CAD?

A

+ greater accuracy
+ greater consistency
- more expensive than manual machines
- can take a long time to write the program to operate them

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26
Q

what are 2 advantages of CAM?

A

+ CAM is faster as the maintaining speeds are higher

+ Able to run different machine shapes - sophisticated

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27
Q

What are the four ways that layers are built up when 3D printing?

A
  1. laminated object manufacturing
  2. stereo lithography
  3. laser sintering
  4. 3D printing
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28
Q

what is laminated object manufacturing?

A

building up of layers of adhesive coated sheet material

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29
Q

what is stereo lithography?

A

a laser traces the shape of a layer onto a bath of liquid resin. This cures the resin. The platform is lowered and another layer is traced until the whole object is created. The typical layer thickness is 0.1mm

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30
Q

what is laser sintering?

A

(similar to stereo lithography) - the laser traces the shape onto fine heat fusible powder (plastic, metal or ceramic). The powder becomes solid, another layer of powder is laid on top of the fused layer and the process is repeated until the object is completed.

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31
Q

what is 3D printing?

A

prints a thermoplastic material (ABS) in successive layers on top of other layers to build up a 3D shape.

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32
Q

what is electronic data interchange?

A

a way in which information can be exchanged between computers in a company or between companies. it is often used in stock control systems. it is an automatic process

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33
Q

what are 2 benefits and 2 negatives of computerised stock control?

A

+ lower costs
+ quick system
- initial cost of set up and training
- software failure or virus attack

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34
Q

what are 2 benefits of electronic data interchange? (EDI)

A

+ eliminating error

+ reducing lead time through effective stock control

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35
Q

what are 2 benefits and 2 negatives of automated systems?

A

+ low labour cost
+ low production cost through economies of scale
- expensive initial layout
- a system breakdown is costly

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36
Q

what is a marketing mix?

A

the basic components of a marketing plan or strategy, often referred to as the four Ps: product, price, place and promotion

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37
Q

what are 2 benefits and 1 negative of primary market research?

A

+ precise data, meets exact needs of company
+ collected first hand using different methods
- can be expensive

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38
Q

what are 2 benefits and 1 negative of secondary primary research?

A

+ uses data already available - cheaper
+ provides information like population trends and regional statistics
- can be out of date or incorrect

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39
Q

what are 7 common thermoplastics?

A
  1. PET
  2. High density polyethylene - HDPE
  3. PVC - polyvinyl chloride
  4. Low density polyethylene - LDPE
  5. Polypropylene
  6. Polystyrene - PS
  7. Perspex/ other
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40
Q

whats the difference between a thermoplastic and a thermosetting plastic?

A

The main difference is that thermoplastics can be remelted back into a liquid, whereas thermoset plastics always remain in a permanent solid state.

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41
Q

what are 5 common thermosetting plastics?

A
  1. Melamine formaldehyde
  2. urea formaldehyde
  3. epoxy resin
  4. phenol formaldehyde
  5. phenol resins
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42
Q

what is the definition of intellectual property?

A

Creations of the mind. It has to be something which you physically create

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43
Q

what are the 5 types of intellectual property?

A
  1. design rights
  2. trade marks
  3. registered designs
  4. patents
  5. copyright
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44
Q

what are design rights?

A

applies to shape and configuration. Graphics which you need to register. only applies to drawings

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45
Q

what are trade marks?

A

word, name, song or symbol. A TM symbol is used. it must be renewed every 10 years, but no registration is required.

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46
Q

what are registered designs?

A

ownership rights for the appearance, protecting shape and pattern.

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47
Q

what are patents?

A

protection against copying of technical or functional aspects. they are expensive and difficult to get. you don’t have to be the first to invent but the first to patent

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48
Q

what is copyright?

A

given to the creators of the original ideas. It protects your work and prevents others from using it. You don’t have to apply for this

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49
Q

what is the CE mark and what is put on?

A

It conforms with EU standards. Showing the product meets health and safety standards. It is put on a wide range of products from electrical items to toys

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50
Q

what is the lion mark?

A

For the toy and hobby association. shows quality and safety of toy

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51
Q

what is the sales of goods act 1979?

A

ensuring goods work in the way they should. Goods must conform to the description given

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52
Q

what was the sale of goods act 1979 replaced with?

A

consumer rights act 2015

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53
Q

what is the consumer rights act 2015?

A

it replaces 3 major pieces of consumer legislation. ensures satisfactory quality and that the product is fit for purpose. There are 30 days to return faulty goods from the date bought

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54
Q

what is the trade descriptions act 1968?

A

by verbal, writing or illustration. This makes it an offence for a trader to make false statements about a product or service.

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55
Q

what is product labelling?

A

the label has to include accurate information to ensure products can be used correctly and safely.

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56
Q

what is the food labelling regulations act 1996?

A

must state particular information which must be included on the label. Must be clear and easy to read, permanent and must not be misleading

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57
Q

what is textiles product labelling regulation 2012?

A

provides the public with information (e.g. how to wash and care for)

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58
Q

what is consumer protection act 1987?

A

gives right to claim compensation against producer/ defective products which have caused damage, death or personal injury.

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59
Q

what are fire safety regulations?

A

protect the public against poor quality furniture which may pose a fire hazard. It stops the sale of furniture that is easily set alight and which gives off toxic fumes

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60
Q

what is a warranty?

A

a written guarantee issued to a consumer promising to repair or replace if necessary within a specified time period

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61
Q

what is BSI British standards?

A

the national standards body for the UK, working with Governments, the industry, businesses and consumers to produce British, European and international standards.

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62
Q

what is the health and safety at work act 1974? Give 3 examples (HASAW)

A

states that employers have a duty to ensure that employees and other visitors are protected at work. This includes providing first aid arrangements, having appropriate safety signs and employees using the PPE given to them (Personal protective equipment)

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63
Q

what is COSHH?

A

control of substances hazardous to health.

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64
Q

what are 8 steps to ensure a business complies with COSHH regulations?

A
  1. assess the risks
  2. decide what precautions are needed
  3. prevent exposure
  4. ensure the control measures are used
  5. accurately monitor
  6. carry out appropriate health checking
  7. prepare accident, incident and emergency procedures
  8. ensure all employees are properly informed, trained and supervised
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65
Q

what are 4 other important health and safety regulations?

A
  1. workplace (health, safety and welfare) regulations 1992
  2. personal protective equipment at work regulations 1992
  3. provision and use of work equipment regulations 1998
  4. reporting of injuries, diseases and dangerous occurrences regulations 1995 (RIDDOR)
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66
Q

what is a hazard?

A

anything which could cause harm. e.g. working at height or using machinery

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67
Q

what is a risk?

A

the chance that someone may be harmed by a particular hazard.

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68
Q

what are the 5 steps to carry out a risk assessment?

A
  1. identify the hazards
  2. identify who may be harmed and the nature of harm
  3. evaluate the risks and decide on control measures
  4. record findings and implement actions
  5. set a fixed period for a review of risk assessment.
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69
Q

what is a primary footprint?

A

measures our direct emissions of CO2 from buying fossil fuels, domestic energy consumption and transportation

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70
Q

what is a secondary footprint?

A

a measure of indirect CO2 emissions from the products we use

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71
Q

what are the 6 R’s?

A 
Rethink
Reduce
Reuse
Repair
Recycle
Refuse
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72
Q

what is eco labelling?

A

it is voluntary, and identifies products and services which are a better choice for the environment

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73
Q

describe nuclear energy:

A

nuclear fission generates heat, heats water to generate steam, steam turns turbines, turbines turn generators, and electricity is distributed

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74
Q

describe gas/ oil/ coal energy?

A

fuel is burnt to generate heat, heats water to generate steam, steam turns turbines, turbines turn generators, and electricity is distributed

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75
Q

describe hydroelectric dams?

A

dam is used to trap water, water released turns turbines, turbines turn generators, electricity is distributed

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76
Q

describe wind energy?

A

blades designed to catch wind, blades turn turbines using gears, turbines turn generators, electricity is distributed

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77
Q

describe solar photovoltaic?

A

photovoltaic cells convert light to energy

78
Q

describe tidal barriers?

A

barrage built across river estuary, turbines turn as tide enters (and when the tide leaves), turbines turn generators, electricity is distributed

79
Q

describe wave energy?

A

motion of waves forces air up cylinder to turn turbines, turbines turn generators, electricity is distributed

80
Q

describe geothermal energy?

A

cold water pumped underground through heated rocks, steam turns turbines, turbines turn generators, and electricity is distributed

81
Q

describe biomass energy?

A

fuel (wood, sugar cane) is burnt to generate heat heats water to generate steam, steam turns turbines, turbines turn generators, and electricity is distributed

82
Q

definition of strength:

A

the materials ability to withstand applied stress without failure

83
Q

definition of toughness?

A

ability to withstand impact without fracture

84
Q

definition of ductility?

A

capable of having it shape changed permanently by means of an applied force

85
Q

definition of malleability:

A

the property of something that can be worked or hammered or shaped without breaking

86
Q

definition of durability:

A

capable of withstanding wear and tear and decay

87
Q

definition of thermal conductivity

A

Rate at which heat will flow through a material.

88
Q

definition of Electrical conductivity

A

measure of a material’s ability to conduct an electric current

89
Q

definition of hardness

A

A measure of the resistance of a material to surface indentation or abrasion

90
Q

definition of brittleness

A

it is liable to fracture when subjected to stress. That is, it has little tendency to deform (or strain) before fracture.

91
Q

definition of tensile strength

A

the maximum stress that a material can withstand without breaking

92
Q

definition of plasticity

A

the property of being physically malleable; the property of something that can be worked or hammered or shaped without breaking

93
Q

definition of compressive strength

A

the property of a material that relates to its ability to resist compression loads

94
Q

definition of sheer strength

A

The maximum stress a material will bear when it is twisted or otherwise deformed without stretching or compression

95
Q

definition of strength to weight ratio

A

The specific strength is a material’s strength (force per unit area at failure) divided by its density

96
Q

definition of chemical resistance

A

The ability of a coating to resist damage by chemicals

97
Q

definition of elasticity

A

the tendency of a body to return to its original shape after it has been stretched or compressed

98
Q

definition of stiffness

A

the physical property of being inflexible and hard to bend

99
Q

definition of impact resistance

A

The characteristic of resistance to fracture under the sudden application of an exerted force

100
Q

definition of flexibility

A

easily bent or shaped

101
Q

what are the three types of plastic and briefly describe them:

A
  1. thermoplastic - can be remoulded
  2. thermosetting plastic - once set is permanently in that shape
  3. Elastomers - very flexible and springy materials like latex
102
Q

Give three examples of elastomers:

A
  1. silicon rubber
  2. latex
  3. elastic
103
Q

what is urea formaldehyde used for?

A

light switches as it doesn’t melt over the circuit

104
Q

what are three ways to waste plastic in manufacture?

A
  1. Laser cutter
  2. File
  3. Belt sander
105
Q

what are two ways of finishing plastic?

A

Wet and dry

Buffing

106
Q

what are 4 examples of modern glues which can join plastics?

A

Tensol Cement
Contact adhesive
Super glue
A glue gun

107
Q

what is tensor cement used for?

A

Joins plastics such as Perspex and acrylic together permanently.

108
Q

what is contact adhesive used for?

A

Can be used to join plastics. The adhesive is applied to both surfaces and when the surfaces appear to be dry they are pushed together. If the two pieces of material are left for a number of hours, they are virtually impossible to take apart.

109
Q

what is super glue used for?

A

Is another adhesive that joins plastics together, very quickly. Great care must be taken when using this type of glue as it
will just as easily glue fingers together.

110
Q

what is a glue gun used for?

A

Can be used to join a variety of plastics. This glue usually gives a semi-permanent joint as surfaces glued together can
sometimes come apart. The glue is a type of plastic that melts when hot and solidifies when it cools.

111
Q

what are 4 common adhesives for plastic?

A

Tensol cement (for acrylic)
Screw thread (top of a mild bottle)
Nut and bolt
Screw (a thread would need to be in one piece of plastic, with a hole in the other)

112
Q

what are two examples of composite materials?

A
  1. kevlar

2. carbon fibre

113
Q

what is kevlar used for?

A

in armour

114
Q

what is carbon fibre used for?

A

used in high performance bikes

115
Q

give 2 properties of PVC?

A

wide range of colours.
stiff, hard
lightweight

116
Q

give 2 properties of polystyrene?

A

not tough. comes in wide range of colours

117
Q

give 2 properties of ABS?

A

stiff, strong and tough.
comes in wide range of colours.
impact resistance

118
Q

give 2 properties of nylon?

A

hard, tough. high melting point.

119
Q

give 2 properties of polyester resin:

A

good electrical insulator

stiff, hard, brittle.

120
Q

give 2 properties of low density polyethylene?

A

wide range of colours
tough
good chemical resistance

121
Q

give 2 properties of high density polyethylene?

A

wide range of colours
fairly stiff and hard
good chemical resistance

122
Q

give 2 properties of acrylic?

A

stiff. very durable outdoors.

good electrical insulator

123
Q

uses of PET/ PETE?

A

Soft drink, water and salad dressing bottles; peanut butter and jam jars

124
Q

uses of HDPE:

A

Water pipes, Hula-Hoop (children’s game) rings,
Milk, juice and water bottles; the occasional shampoo
/ toiletry bottle

125
Q

uses of PVC:

A

Juice bottles; cling films; PVC piping

126
Q

uses of LDPE:

A

Frozen food bags; squeezable bottles, e.g. honey, mustard; cling films; flexible container lids.

127
Q

uses of polypropylene:

A

Reusable microwaveable ware; kitchenware; yogurt containers; margarine tubs; microwaveable disposable take-away containers; disposable cups; Legos and plates.

128
Q

uses of polystyrene:

A

Egg cartons; packing peanuts; disposable cups, plates, trays and cutlery; disposable take-away containers

129
Q

uses of number 7 (often polycarbonate or ABS)

A

Beverage bottles; baby milk bottles; electronic casing

130
Q

uses of urea formaldehyde:

A

used in many manufacturing processes. Handles, electronic fittings

131
Q

uses of phenol formaldehyde:

A

dark coloured electrical fittings

132
Q

uses of melamine formaldehyde:

A

laminating work surfaces, kitchen utensils

133
Q

uses of epoxy resin:

A

casting adhesives.

134
Q

uses of polyester resin:

A

casting. bonding of other materials

135
Q

give 8 examples of hardwoods:

A
  1. beech
  2. oak
  3. ash
  4. teak
  5. mahogany
  6. maple
  7. jelutong
  8. sycamore
136
Q

uses of beech:

A

furniture, floors, veneers and wooden toys

137
Q

uses of oak:

A

Boat building, garden furniture, quality furniture and gate posts.

138
Q

uses of elm:

A

Turnery, garden furniture when correctly treated. some furniture.

139
Q

uses of teak:

A

Ships decks, garden furniture, veneers.

140
Q

uses of mahogany:

A

Shop fittings, furniture, veneers.

141
Q

give 5 examples of softwoods?

A
  1. Scots pine/ pine/ fir
  2. parana pine
  3. Douglas fir
  4. whitewood spruce
  5. cedar
142
Q

uses of Scots pine/ pine/ fir:

A

Suitable for all types of inside work. Used for wood turning. Can be used outside with suitable preservatives.

143
Q

uses of parana pine:

A

Staircases and furniture

144
Q

uses of Douglas fir:

A

Outside construction. Ladders and masts.

145
Q

uses of whitewood spruce:

A

general outside use

146
Q

what are the three types of man-made woods:

A
  1. veneered boards
  2. particle boards
  3. block boards
147
Q

give an example of a veneered board:

A

plywood/ laminates. Made from thin sheets of wood stuck together. The number of veneers is always uneven

148
Q

give an example of particle board:

A

MDF/ Chipboard. they are basically wood dust or chips which are bonded together using special adhesives

149
Q

give an example of a block board:

A

block board. boards made up from strips of wood glued together.

150
Q

what are the 8 stages of converting and seasoning wood:

A
  1. tree is felled
  2. logs are stacked for about a year
  3. taken by lorry to saw mill where they are cut to size
  4. cut into planks so more useful size
  5. cut up planks are stacked with spacers between
  6. put into a kiln and left for 3 months to dry
  7. once seasoned, can be cut into more useful shapes
  8. can now be sold
151
Q

what are machine routers:

A

versatile machines. used often to cut grooves in wood, the cutter rotates at high speed.

152
Q

how is wood laminated:

A

layers of wood. put together at alternate directions to each other.

153
Q

what are 6 finishes for wood?

A
  1. paint
  2. wax
  3. oil
  4. stain
  5. laminates
  6. plastic finish
154
Q

give an example of a finish which is plastic used on wood:

A

polyurethane varnish. the finish may be matt or gloss. shows the grain and colour of the wood. can be used externally and internally

155
Q

paint finish:

A

suitable for internal and external use. wood needs to be sanded down, primed, undercoated and painted with lots of coats.

156
Q

wax finish:

A

a dull finish, shows the natural grain of the wood

157
Q

stain finish:

A

on its own it darkens the woof. cannot lighten wood

158
Q

laminate finish:

A

covers the wood with a thin piece of wood which is already finished.

159
Q

what is steam bending? and how does it work?

A

where strips of wood are steamed to make them pliable and then they are bent around a mould. It can use various jigs that allow pressure to be applied until the wood cools or dries.

160
Q

what is the difference between ferrous metals and non ferrous metals:

A

ferrous metals - contain some iron (steel) in them.

non-ferrous metals- don’t contain any iron or steel.

161
Q

examples of ferrous metals: (3)

A

mild steel
stainless steel
high speed steel

162
Q

use of mild steel?

A

used to make everyday items

163
Q

use of high speed steel?

A

used to make hard cutting tools

164
Q

use of stainless steel?

A

used to make cutlery and work surfaces

165
Q

examples of non ferrous metals: (3)

A
  1. aluminium
  2. copper
  3. brass
166
Q

use of aluminium:

A

used to make lightweight aircraft parts

167
Q

use of copper:

A

used to make pipes for plumbing

168
Q

use of brass:

A

used to make bullet cases and ornaments

169
Q

2 properties of mild steel

A

tough

high tensile strength

170
Q

2 properties of stainless steel:

A

tough

resistance to rust

171
Q

2 properties of carbon steel:

A

tough

can be hardened and tempered.

172
Q

2 properties of cast iron:

A

strong but brittle

compressive strength

173
Q

uses of cast iron:

A

castings, manhole covers

174
Q

uses of carbon steel:

A

cutting tools such as drills

175
Q

properties of copper:

A

ductile, can be beaten into shape.

conducts electricity and heat

176
Q

use of copper:

A

electrical wiring, tubing, kettles, bowls and pipes

177
Q

give 6 examples of different shaped beams:

A
  1. I-section
  2. T-section
  3. L-section
  4. U-section
  5. Circular section
  6. square section
178
Q

what are two reasons for using a tube instead of solid metal:

A
  1. lighter than solid material

2. less expensive

179
Q

what is annealing metals:

A

a heat process where a metal is heated to a specific temperature and then allowed to cool slowly. This softens the metal which means it can be cut and shaped more easily.

180
Q

what is hardening and tempering metals:

A

heating it , and then cooling it quickly in cold water (hardening). Then it is heated again, and instead slowly cooled (tempering)

181
Q

explain turning the lathe on the CNC lathe:

A

have numerous cutting tools on a rotating turret.

182
Q

what are 3 of the operations with are used on the turning lathe?

A
  1. facing off - remove material from front of work piece
  2. turning down - removes material along the length of the work piece
  3. centre drilling - pilot hole must be drilled first.
183
Q

explain CNC milling:

A

the work piece is held firmly to the milling machine table. The machine head moves vertically up and down to position the rotating miller cutter for depth of cut. The table then moves horizontally against the milling cutter

184
Q

what is the 6 steps involves in sand casting:

A
  1. Place a pattern in sand to create a mold.
  2. Incorporate the pattern and sand in a gating system.
  3. Remove the pattern.
  4. Fill the mold cavity with molten metal.
  5. Allow the metal to cool.
  6. Break away the sand mold and remove the casting.
185
Q

what is bending (metal:

A

process which produces V-shape, U-shape or channel shape, usually in sheet metal

186
Q

what is the difference between blanking and piercing:

A

both have the same tooling processes, only in blanking, the punched out piece is used (work piece) and in piercing, the punched out piece is scrap.

187
Q

what is kaizen?

A

an approach to work, where workers are told they have 2 jobs to do, firstly carrying out their existing task, and secondly coming up with ways of improving the task

188
Q

what are 5 types of internal economies of scale?

A
  1. bulk buying economies
  2. Technical economies
  3. Financial economies
  4. Marketing economies
  5. Managerial economies
189
Q

what are 2 external economies of scale?

A
  1. Transport and communication links improve

2. Training and education becomes more focused on the industry

190
Q

what is the definition of quality assurance?

A

means making sure that a product is of the best quality that can be achieved. At all stages from the designer to the user, checks will be made to ensure that everything is of the highest possible quality.

191
Q

what is quality control?

A

means checking during the making of a product to make sure that it is being made to the required standard.

GCSE Design and Technology (2 decks)

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