Procedures Flashcards
CROSS-COCKPIT COMMUNICATION
Each time one flight crewmember adjusts or changes information and/or equipment on the flight deck, the other flight crewmember must be informed, and an acknowledgement must be obtained.
Such adjustments and changes include:
‐ FMGS alterations
‐ Changes in speed or Mach
‐ Tuning navigation aids
‐ Flight path modifications
‐ System selections (e.g. anti-ice system).
STERILE COCKPIT RULE
When the aircraft is below 10 000 ft, any conversation that is not essential should be avoided: This
includes conversations that take place in the cockpit, or between the flight crew and cabin crew.
It is important to adhere to STERILE COCKPIT RULE policy, in order to
facilitate communication between both of the flight crew, and to ensure the effective communication of emergency or safety-related information, between flight and cabin crew members.
Airbus highly recommends that the flight crews put and store all objects in their dedicated area in the
cockpit:
‐ Cups with lids in the cup holders
‐ Bottles with caps in the bottle holders
‐ Books and paper, if any, in the lateral stowage
‐ Trash in the waste bin in the lateral console
‐ Meal trays on the floor behind the flight crew. The flight attendants should collect the meal trays as
soon as possible
‐ Personal equipment properly secured in the various stowage areas
‐ Portable electronic devices properly secured in the flight document stowage, in the checklist
stowage or in the operation manual stowage
in TRANSIT STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the
PARKING C/L
in SECURED STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the
SECURING THE
AIRCRAFT C/L
The flight crew performs only the items indicated by an asterisk (*) in the Standard Operating Procedures (SOP’s) when
there is no flight crew change and after a TRANSIT STOP. Otherwise, the flight crew performs all the items of the SOP’s.
The objectives of the preliminary cockpit preparation are:
‐ To ensure that all safety checks are performed:
* The RCL pb is pressed for at least 3 s to display the cautions and warnings from the previous flight.
* The technical logbook and MEL are checked at this stage.
‐ To check the liquid levels i.e. oil, hydraulic and oxygen pressure using
* The HYD pb is pressed to check the hydraulic level
* The ENG pb is pressed to check engine oil level (Refer to FCOM/PRO-NOR-SOP-04 Before
Walkaround - ECAM Pages)
* The DOOR pb is pressed, to check the oxygen pressure level
‐ To check the position of surface control levers e.g. slats/flaps, parking brake.
During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the flight crew must also review all OEBs applicable to the aircraft. The flight crew must pay a particular attention to
red OEBs, and more particularly to the red OEBs that must be applied before the ECAM procedure.
Depending on the operational conditions and APU types, some odors may be perceived in the cabin, once the APU Bleed is set to ON. This is due to
possible presence of oil traces in the APU airduct.
further reduce potential odors in the Cabin, the APU Bleed may be selected ___ minutes after APU start.
3.
This APU warm-up time enables the seals to reach their optimum performance and eliminates oil traces in the APU airduct.
The ECAM DOOR/OXY SD page displays the oxygen pressure. When the oxygen pressure is below a defined threshold, _____ highlights the value. This advises the flight crew that the bottle should be refilled.
an amber half box
The flight crew performs the alignment or realignment of the IRS during the preliminary cockpit preparation. This action enables
IRS to operate in NAV mode and to provide continuously the aircraft position.
ADIRS OPERATIONS
The IRS alignment or realignment includes the following two steps:
‐ Alignment:
Gyro and accelerometers prepare for the NAV computation. ‐ Position Initialization:
Navigation starting point is set.
COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT
During a complete alignment, IRS use gravity and the earth’s rotation to determinate the _____ and true heading, and IRS estimate a _____
- aircraft attitude
- current aircraft latitude
COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT
The IR mode selectors must be OFF for more than
5 s.
Note: The ON BAT light comes on during 5 s.
FAST IRS ALIGNMENT
During a fast alignment, IRS reset the
ground speed and some internal filters to 0, but IRS do not estimate the aircraft position.
The flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to OFF then, back to the NAV mode within 5 s.
EXTERIOR WALKAROUND
To obtain a global assessment of the aircraft status. Any missing parts or panels will be checked
against the
Configuration Deviation List (CDL) for possible dispatch and any potential operational
consequences.
FMGS PROGRAMMING
Green fields are used for
FMS generated data, and cannot be changed
FMGS PROGRAMMING
Magenta characters identify
limits (altitude, speed or time), that FMS will attempt to meet
FMGS PROGRAMMING
Small font signifies
Large font signifies
that data is FMS computed
& manually entered data.
FMGS PROGRAMMING
INIT B should not be filled immediately after INIT A, because
the FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. These computations would slow down the entry procedure.
Manual Position Initialization of the IRS:
The most appropriate coordinates for the position initialization are
gate coordinates
Manual Position Initialization of the IRS:
Note: When the flight crew enters or modifies the origin airport (FROM) or the CO RTE, the MCDU INIT coordinates are reset to
the Airport Reference Point
The history wind is the vertical wind profile, that has been encountered during
the previous descent and should be entered at this stage if it is representative of the vertical wind profile for the next flight.
The SEC F-PLN should be used to consider
an alternate runway for take-off, a return to departure airfield or a routing to a take-off alternate.
If a NAVAID is reported on NOTAM as unreliable or unserviceable, it must be deselected on the
MCDU DATA/POSITION MONITOR/SEL NAVAID page
‐ INIT B
The flight crew:
* Inserts the expected _____ to initialize a F-PLN computation
ZFWCG/ZFW, and block fuel
The trip wind is an average wind component that may be extracted from the CFP. The trip wind facility is available if
the wind profile has not already been entered.
After engine start, the INIT B page is no longer available. The flight crew should use the _____ for weight and fuel data insertion
FUEL PRED page
The INIT B page should not be completed immediately after INIT A, because
the FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. This would slow down the entry procedure.
The thrust reduction altitude/acceleration altitude (THR RED/ACC) are set to default at
1 500 ft, or at a value defined by airline policy.
The engine-out acceleration altitude must:
- Be at least 400 ft above airport altitude
- Ensure that the net flight path is 35 ft above obstacles
- Ensure that the maximum time for takeoff thrust is not exceeded.
The flight crew uses the PERF CLB page to pre-select a speed. For example
“Green Dot” speed for a sharp turn after takeoff.
Symptoms of incorrect armrest adjustment include
over-controlling, and not being able to make small, precise inputs.
BRAKE CHECK
When the aircraft starts to move, the PF should check the efficiency of the normal braking system by
gently pressing the brake pedals, to ensure that the aircraft slows down.
CARBON BRAKE WEAR
Carbon brake wear depends on
the number of brake applications and on brake temperature. It does not depend on the applied pressure, or the duration of the braking.
TAXI SPEED AND BRAKING
On long, straight taxiways, and with no ATC or other ground traffic constraints, the PF should allow the aircraft to
accelerate to 30 kt, and should then use one smooth brake application to decelerate to 10 kt. The PF should avoid continuous brake applications.
BRAKE TEMPERATURE
The maximum brake temperature limitation for takeoff ensures that,
in the case of a hydraulic leak, any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.
BRAKING ANOMALIES
the ACCU PRESS drops below _____, the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can, quite suddenly, become less efficient.
1 500 PSI
When the fans are running, the difference between the indicated and the actual brake temperature can range from
50 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 100 °C) to 150 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 300 °C).
When the indicated brake temperature is above _____, takeoff must be delayed.
150 °C
Brake fans should not be used during takeoff, in order to
avoid Foreign Object Damage to fans and brakes.
FLIGHT CONTROLS
If this check is carried out during taxiing, it is essential that the PF
remains head-up throughout the procedure
TAXI ROLL AND STEERING
Before taxi, check that the amber “NWS DISC” ECAM message is off, to ensure
that steering is fully available.
TILLER AND RUDDER PEDALS USE
Pedals control nosewheel steering at low speed ( ___ with full pedal deflection).
± 6 °
If both pilots act on the tiller or pedals, their inputs are
added until the maximum value of the
steering angle (programmed within the BSCU) is reached.
When the seating position is correct, the cut-off angle is ___ , and the visual ground geometry provides an obscured segment of ___
20 ° / 42 ft (12.5 m)
In the event that one or more tires is/are deflated on the main landing gear, the maximum permitted steering angle will be limited by the aircraft speed. Therefore, with one tire deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering can be used. With two tires deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering angle should be limited to ___.
7 kt / 3 kt & 30 °
180 DEGREES TURN ON RUNWAY
IF THE PF IS THE CREWMEMBER IN THE LEFT HAND SEAT (CM1)
Taxi on the right hand side of the runway.
Maintain a ground speed between 5 kt and 8 kt during the entire maneuver.
Turn left, maintaining a 25 divergence from the runway axis.
Monitor the approaching runway edge.
When the CM1 is physically over the runway edge:
Turn right, up to full tiller deflection
If necessary, use asymmetric thrust (IDLE on ENG 2) and/or differential braking (more brake
pressure on the right side) to maintain a constant speed.
LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF
If the takeoff conditions change during the taxi phase, and if the previous performance computation
is no longer appropriate, the flight crew must update the takeoff data. This is the case for example in
the following conditions:
‐ The runway in use changes, or
‐ The runway condition deteriorates, or
‐ The use of a new intersection shortens the runway length, or ‐ The wind or the temperature changes
LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF
In order to compute and crosscheck the performance data, the PF should perform one of the
following:
‐ Stop the aircraft, or
‐ Transfer the control to the PM
ADIRS ALIGNMENT
During taxi, a good way to check a global consistency of FMGC entries (position and flight plan) is
to check the runway and the SID on the ND in comparison to the aircraft symbol, that indicates the current aircraft position. To do so, set the ND in ARC or NAV mode with a range 10 NM.
In case of APU auto shut down during takeoff, the engine thrust is
frozen till the thrust is manually reduced. The packs revert to engine bleed which causes an increase of EGT to keep N1/EPR.
If the takeoff is performed with one pack unserviceable, the procedure states to set the failed pack to OFF. this asymmetric bleed configuration, the N1 takeoff value is limited to the value corresponding to the
bleed ON configuration and takeoff performance must be computed accordingly.
The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) computer prevents the engine stabilizing between an approximate range of
60 to 74 % N1, in order to protect against fan flutter. This range is called
the Keep-Out-Zone, and the flight crew may notice a non-linear thrust response to thrust lever movement.
Once the thrust is set, the PF announces the indications on the FMA. The PM must check that the thrust is set by ___ and must announce “Thrust Set”.
80 kt
During the take-off roll, the PM monitors the ___ to ensure early detection and appropriate decision making in the case of malfunction.
PFD and ENG indications
On a normal takeoff, to counteract the ___, the PF should apply half forward or full forward sidestick (depending on wind conditions) at the start of the takeoff roll until reaching 80 kt. At this point, the input should be gradually reduced to be zero by 100 kt.
pitch up moment during thrust application
The nosewheel steering authority decreases at a pre-determined rate as the groundspeed increases (no more efficiency at ___) and the rudder becomes more effective.
130 kt
For crosswind takeoffs, routine use of into wind aileron is ___. In strong crosswind conditions, small lateral stick input may be used to maintain wings level, if deemed necessary due to into wind wing reaction, but avoid using large deflections, resulting in excessive spoiler deployment which increase the aircraft tendency to turn into the wind (due to high weight on wheels on the spoiler extended side), reduces lift and increases drag.
not necessary
The flight crew may be surprised during takeoff roll by unexpected lateral disturbance in conditions such as:
‐ The presence of thermals or thermal vortices that often develop in hot and dry countries. Sometimes, these thermal streams get stronger, and create small whirlwinds referred to as “dust devils”, or
‐ The jet blast of another aircraft close to the active runway, or
‐ The wind that accelerates between two buildings by “venturi” effect.
In case of low visibility takeoff, visual cues are primary means to track the runway centerline. The ___ provides an assistance in case of expected fog patches if ILS available.
PFD yaw bar
To initiate the rotation, the flight crew performs a positive backward stick input. When the rotation is initiated, the flight crew achieves a rotation rate of ___ resulting in a continuous pitch increase.
approximately 3 °/s
During the rotation, the aircraft liftoff occurs at ___ of pitch, typically around 4 to 5 s after the initiation of the rotation. After the liftoff, the PF targets the required pitch attitude.
approximately 10 °
A slow rotation rate or an under rotation (below takeoff pitch target) has an impact on takeoff performance
‐ The takeoff run and the takeoff distance increase
‐ The obstacle clearance after takeoff decreases
EARLY ROTATION
Early rotation occurs when the flight crew initiates the rotation below the appropriate VR. The possible reasons for this are:
- The computed VR is incorrect for the aircraft weight or flap configuration
- The PF commands the rotation below VR because of gusts, windshear or an obstacle on the
runway - The following factors or a combination of these factors may also lead to an aircraft auto
rotation before VR: - A bumpy runway
- A sudden release of forward sidestick input
- The use of TOGA thrust
- An aircraft not correctly trimmed.
The first degrees of flexible thrust have an impact on maintenance costs about ___ higher than the last one.
5 times
The first degrees of flexible thrust have an impact on maintenance costs about ___ higher than the last one.
5 times
The configuration that provides the maximum FLEX temperature varies with the ___.
runway length
On short runways, ___ usually provides the highest FLEX temperature, and the tail clearance at liftoff does not depend on the configuration.
CONF 3
On medium or long runways, ___ becomes the limiting factor, and CONF 2 or CONF 1+F becomes the optimum configuration, in term of FLEX temperature.
the second segment limitation
TAKEOFF PITCH TRIM SETTING
The main purpose of the pitch trim setting for takeoff is to provide ___.
consistent rotation characteristics
The aircraft performs a safe takeoff, provided that the pitch trim setting is:
within the green band on the pitch trim wheel.
However, the pitch trim setting significantly affects the aircraft behaviour during rotation:
‐ With a forward CG and the pitch trim set to the nose-down limit, the PF will feel an aircraft
“heavy to rotate” and aircraft rotation will be very slow in response to the normal takeoff stick
input
‐ With an aft CG and the pitch trim set to the nose-up limit, the pilots will most probably have to
counteract an early autorotation until VR is reached.
CROSSWIND TAKEOFF
In the TAKEOFF ROLL paragraph the PF should avoid using large deflection, which results in
excessive spoiler extension. A direct effect of the reduction in lift due to the extension of the spoilers on one wing will be a reduction in tail clearance and an increased risk of tail strike.
OLEO INFLATION
The correct extension of the main landing gear shock absorber (and thus the nominal increase in tail clearance during the rotation) relies on
the correct inflation of the oleos.
ACTION IN CASE OF TAIL STRIKE
If a tail strike occurs at takeoff,
flight at altitude requiring a pressurized cabin must be avoided and a return to the departure airport should be performed for damage assessment.
At the acceleration altitude, the FD pitch mode changes from
SRS to CLB or OP CLB mode
At the acceleration altitude, the speed target jumps:
- Either to the managed target speed e.g. speed constraint, speed limit or ECON climb speed * Or to the preselected climb speed (entered by the pilot on the MCDU PERF CLB page before
takeoff).
If green dot speed is higher than the managed target speed (e.g. speed constraint 220 kt) displayed by the magenta triangle on the PFD speed scale, the AP/FD will guide the aircraft to
green dot (as per the general managed speed guidance rule)
During takeoff phase, F and S speeds are the minimum speeds for retracting the surfaces:
- At F speed, the aircraft accelerating (positive speed trend): retract to 1.
- At S speed, the aircraft accelerating (positive speed trend): retract to 0.
If take-off is carried out at heavy weight, two protections may intervene:
‐ The Automatic Retraction System (ARS)
‐ The Alpha Lock function
THE AUTOMATIC RETRACTION SYSTEM
While in CONF 1+F and IAS reaches 210 kt (VFE CONF1+F is 215 kt or 225 kt on some A321, the ARS is activated. The ARS automatically retracts flaps to 0 °. The VFE displayed on the PFD change from VFE CONF1+F to VFE CONF 1. As the aircraft accelerates above S speed, the flap lever can be selected to 0. If IAS decreases below VFE CONF1+F, the flaps will not extend back to 1+F.
THE ALPHA LOCK FUNCTION
The slats alpha/speed lock function will prevent slat retraction at high AOA or low speed at the moment the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 0. “A. LOCK” pulses above the E/WD Slat indication. The inhibition is removed and the slats retract when both alpha and speed fall within normal values. This is a normal situation for take-off at heavy weight.
During the Slats/Flaps transition, the flight crew must respect the VMAX displayed on the PFD. The VMAX value displayed on the PFD speed scale is based on ___.
the Slats/Flaps control lever position
During Slats/Flaps transition, the dynamic acceleration of the airplane may lead to a temporary OVERSPEED WARNING even if the current speed is out of the red and black strip displayed on the PFD. The flight crew must:
report any type of overspeed event.
If the aircraft is required to level off below the acceleration altitude, ALT* engages and target speed goes to initial climb speed. The “LVR CLB” message flashes on the FMA. In this case, the crew should expect
a faster than normal acceleration, and be prepared to retract the flaps and slats promptly.
The AP/FD climb modes may be either:
‐ Managed, or
‐ Selected.
The managed AP/FD mode in climb is
CLB. Its use is recommended as long as the aircraft is cleared along the F-PLN.
The selected AP/FD modes in climb are
OP CLB, V/S and EXPED
If the crew selects a high V/S, it may happen that the aircraft is unable to climb with this high V/S and to maintain the target speed with Max Climb thrust, for performance reasons. In that case, the AP/FD will
guide to the target V/S, and the A/THR will command up to Max Climb thrust, in order to try to keep the target speed; but the aircraft will decelerate and its speed might reach VLS. When VLS is reached the AP will pitch the aircraft down so as to fly a V/S, which allows maintaining VLS. A triple click is generated.
Whenever V/S is used, pilots should pay particular attention to the speed trend as
V/S takes precedence over speed requirements.
The EXPED mode is used to climb with maximum vertical gradient i.e. the target speed becomes
green dot. Its use should be avoided above FL 250.
The crew should be aware that altitude constraints in the MCDU F-PLN page are observed only when
the climb is managed, i.e. when CLB is displayed on the FMA. Any other vertical mode will disregard any altitude constraints.
The use of low values of V/S, e.g. less than 1 000 ft/min, may be appropriate for small altitude changes as
it makes the guidance smoother and needs less thrust variation.
The climb speed may be either:
‐ Managed, or
‐ Selected.
The managed climb speed, computed by the FMGS, provides
the most economical climb profile as it takes into account weight, actual and predicted winds, ISA deviation and Cost Index (CI).
The managed climb speed also takes into account any speed constraints, e.g.
the default speed limit which is 250 kt up to 10 000 ft.
On ground, prior take-off, speed target at acceleration altitude can be pre-selected on the MCDU PERF CLIMB page. It is to be used when
the F-PLN has a sharp turn after take-off, when high angle of climb is required or for ATC clearance compliance.
The speed to achieve the maximum rate of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in the shortest time, lies between
ECON climb speed and green dot. As there is no indication of this speed on the PFD, a good rule of thumb is to use turbulence speed to achieve maximum rate.
The speed to achieve the maximum gradient of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in a shortest distance, is
green dot.
Avoid reducing to green dot at high altitude, particularly at heavy weight, as
it can take a long time to accelerate to ECON mach.
Pilots should be aware that it is possible to select and fly a speed below green dot but
there would be no operational benefit in doing this.
When selected speed is used, the predictions on the F-PLN page assume the selected speed is kept till
the next planned speed modification, e.g. 250 kt /10 000 ft, where managed speed is supposed to be resumed. Consequently, the FM predictions remain meaningful.
When IAS is selected in lower altitude, there is an automatic change to Mach at a specific
crossover altitude.
Finally, as selected speed does not provide the optimum climb profile, it should only be used when
operationally required, e.g. ATC constraint or weather.
The MCDU PERF CLB page provides predictions to a given FL in terms of time and distance assuming
CLB mode
The crew should keep in mind that the use of HDG mode e.g. following ATC radar vectors, will revert CLB to
OP CLB and any altitude constraints in the MCDU F-PLN page will not be observed unless they are selected on the FCU.
In some specific cases, the FMS Go-Around phase may be unduly activated. This situation may be encountered after takeoff if
the aircraft is above the ACC ALT and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to TOGA detent with at least CONF 1.
In UNDUE ACTIVATION OF GO-AROUND PHASE situation, the flight crew should do either of the following in order to activate the CLIMB phase:
‐ Insert a NEW DEST (different from the current DEST), or
‐ Select the ALTN destination.
If the aircraft is cleared to a lower cruise flight level than the pre-planned cruise flight level displayed on MCDU PROG page, the ___ will not be targeted.
cruise Mach number
When at cruise FL, the AP altitude control is soft. This means that
the AP will allow small altitude variation around the cruise altitude (typically ± 50 ft) to keep cruise Mach before a readjustment of thrust occurs. This optimizes the fuel consumption in cruise.
When reaching cruise FL, Wind entries should be made at waypoints when
there is a difference of either 30 ° or 30 kt for the wind data and 5 °C for temperature deviation. This will ensure that the FMS fuel and time predictions are as accurate as possible.
STEP CLIMB
If at the first waypoint beyond the step, the CFP provides the wind at FL 350 but not at FL 310, it is recommended to insert the same wind at FL 310 as the one at
FL 350. This is due to wind propagation rules, which might affect the optimum FL computation.
ETP function should be used to assist the crew in
making a decision should an en-route diversion be required.
Each time an ETP is sequenced, the crew should
insert the next suitable diversion airfield.
The ETP should be inserted in the SEC F-PLN as
PD (Place/Distance) and the route to diversion airfield should be finalized. By programming a potential en-route diversion, the crew would reduce their workload should a failure occur. This is particularly true when terrain considerations apply to the intended diversion route.
When an ETP is sequenced, the crew will:
‐ Access the ETP page
‐ Insert the next applicable diversion airfield with associated wind ‐ Read new ETP
‐ Insert new ETP as a PD
‐ Copy active on the SEC F-PLN
‐ Insert the new diversion as New Dest in the SEC F-PLN from new ETP.
CLOSEST AIRPORT
For diversion purpose, the crew can also use the CLOSEST AIRPORT page which provides valuable fuel/time estimates to the ___ closest airports from the aircraft position, as well as to an airport the crew may define. The fuel and time predictions are a function of the average wind between the aircraft and the airport.
four
If ATC gives a DIR TO clearance to a waypoint far from present position, the crew will use the ABEAM facility. This facility allows both
a better crew orientation and the previously entered winds to be still considered
The Cost Index (CI) is used to take into account the relationship between
fuel and time related costs in order to minimize the trip cost.
The CI is calculated by the airline for each sector. From an operational point of view, the CI affects
the speeds (ECON SPEED/MACH) and cruise altitude (OPT ALT). CI=0 corresponds to maximum range whereas the CI=999 corresponds to minimum time.
The CI is a strategic parameter which applies to the whole flight. However, the CI can be modified by the crew in flight for valid strategic operational reasons. For example, if the crew needs to reduce the speed for the entire flight to comply with curfew requirements or fuel management requirements (XTRA gets close to 0), then it is appropriate to
reduce the CI.
The ___ can be used to check the predictions associated with new CI.
SEC F-PLN
The cruise speed may be either:
‐ Managed, or
‐ Selected.
When the cruise altitude is reached, the A/THR operates in SPEED/MACH mode. The optimum cruise Mach number is automatically targeted. Its value depends on:
‐ CI
‐ Cruise flight level
‐ Temperature deviation
‐ Weight
‐ Headwind component.
The crew should be aware that the optimum Mach number will vary according to the above mentioned parameters, e.g.
it will increase with an increasing headwind, e.g. +50 kt head wind equates to M +0.01.
Should ATC require a specific time over a waypoint, the crew can perform
a vertical revision on that waypoint and enter a time constraint. The managed Mach number would be modified accordingly to achieve this constraint. If the constraint can be met within a tolerance, a magenta asterix will be displayed on the MCDU; if the constraint cannot be met, an amber asterix will be displayed. Once the constrained waypoint is sequenced, the ECON Mach is resumed.
At high altitude, the speed should not be reduced below GREEN DOT as this may create a situation where
it is impossible to maintain speed and/or altitude as the increased drag may exceed the available thrust.
FACTORS THAT CAUSE A SPEED DECAY DURING CRUISE
‐ A large and continuous increase in tailwind or decrease in headwind, in addition to an increase in the OAT, that results in a decrease of the REC MAX FL
‐ A large downdraft, when the flight crew flies (parallel and) downwind in a mountainous area, due to orographic waves. Without sufficient thrust margin, the flight crew may notice that aircraft speed decays, but the REC MAX FL is not modified.
THRUST MARGIN AND EXTERNAL PARAMETERS
The flight crew must be aware that at high altitude, the thrust margin ___ is limited.
(difference between the thrust in use and the maximum available thrust)
The REC MAX FL indicated in the PROG page of the MCDU ___ when the OAT increases.
decreases
The nearer the aircraft is to the REC MAX FL, the ___ the thrust margin.
smaller
GREEN DOT SPEED AS A REFERENCE
The optimum lift/drag speed is the ___.
GD speed
The GD speed uses the lowest quantity of thrust necessary to maintain ___
the required/desired altitude
If aircraft speed is below GD speed and continues to decrease, even with the maximum available thrust in use, if the flight crew maintains the current altitude, the angle of attack will ___
further increase.
The nearer the aircraft is to the REC MAX FL, the smaller is the thrust margin that the flight crew has to manage a speed decay during cruise.
If the aircraft speed goes below GD speed, with the maximum available thrust in use, the only way for the flight crew to avoid an increase in the angle of attack is to
descend
REC MAX FL reflects the present engine and wing performance and does not take into account the cost aspect. It provides a ___ buffet margin.
0.3 g
If the crew inserts a FL higher than REC MAX into the MCDU, it will be accepted only if it provides a buffet margin greater than ___.
0.2 g / Otherwise, it will be rejected and the message “CRZ ABOVE MAX FL” will appear on the MCDU scratchpad. This message may also be triggered in case of temperature increase leading the aircraft to fly above the REC MAX FL.
Unless there are overriding operational considerations, e.g. either to accept a cruise FL higher than REC MAX or to be held significantly lower for a long period, ___ should be considered as the upper cruise limit.
REC MAX
OPT FL displayed on the MCDU is the cruise altitude for
minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown and should be followed whenever possible. It is important to note that the OPT FL displayed on the PROG page is meaningful only if the wind and temperature profile has been accurately entered.
For each Mach number, there will be a different OPT FL. Should an FMGS failure occur, the crew should refer to the ___ to determine the OPT FL.
FCOM or QRH
From a cost point of view, it is better to climb to a higher cruise altitude when aircraft weight permits, because the ___ increases when fuel is consumed during the flight. This technique is referred to as a Step Climb.
optimum altitude
In order to determine the optimum location of the next FL change, the flight crew uses the OPTIMUM STEP POINT function on the MCDU STEP ALTS page which is either accessed from the
MCDU F-PLN/VERT REV page or the MCDU PERF CRZ page.
The OPT STEP computation is accurate if the flight crew accurately entered the
vertical wind profile.
It can be advantageous to request an initial cruise altitude above the OPT FL, if altitude changes are difficult to obtain on specific routes. This minimizes the possibility of
being held at a low altitude and in high fuel consumption condition for long periods of time. The flight crew should compare the requested/cleared cruise altitude to the REC MAX FL. Before the flight crew accepts an altitude above the OPT FL, they should determine if this FL will remain acceptable considering the projected flight conditions such as turbulence, standing waves or temperature changes.
Fuel freeze refers to the formation of wax crystals suspended in the fuel, which can accumulate when fuel temperature is below the ___ and can prevent proper fuel feed to the engines.
freeze point (-47 °C for jet A1)
Fuel temperature will slowly reduce towards TAT. The rate of cooling of fuel can be expected to be in the order of
3 °C per hour with a maximum of 12 °C per hour in the most extreme conditions.
If fuel temperature approaches the minimum allowed, the ECAM outputs a caution. Consideration should be given to achieving a higher TAT:
- Descending or diverting to a warmer air mass may be considered. Below the tropopause, a
4 000 ft descent gives a 7 °C increase in TAT. In severe cases, a descent to as low as 25 000 ft may be required. - Increasing Mach number will also increase TAT. An increase of M 0.01 produces approximately
0.7 °C increase in TAT.
In order to assess the landing performance, the flight crew should follow the two main steps:
- Identify the Braking Performance Level with the RCAM for RWY COND selection in the LDG
PERF application - Calculate the Landing Performance with the LDG PERF application. Consider a margin of
15 % (Factored In-Flight Landing Distance), except under abnormal operations.
USE OF REVERSE THRUST
When the runway is wet or contaminated, Airbus recommends the use of:
maximum reverse thrust.
To avoid landing with unduly high autobrake settings, the FLD with autobrake may exceed the LDA as long as all of the following conditions are satisfied:
‐ The RWYCC is 5 or 6
‐ The LD with autobrake is less than the LDA
‐ The FLD with maximum manual braking is less than the LDA.
When information is provided in the non-GRF SNOWTAM format, or any other local format, the flight crew should
use the RCAM to determine the appropriate input parameters for the performance computation.
The purpose of the RCAM is
to provide the flight crew with an identification method of an appropriate Braking Performance Level, if it is not provided by the airport.
The RCAM provides 6 Braking Performance Levels:
‐ 6 - Dry
‐ 5 - Good
‐ 4 - Good to Medium
‐ 3 - Medium
‐ 2 - Medium to Poor
‐ 1 - Poor
USE OF THE RCAM
The flight crew makes a primary assessment based on Runway Condition information (i.e. runway state, contaminant type, depth, temperature). This results in a primary Braking Performance Level.
Then, the flight crew downgrades this primary Braking Performance Level, if:
‐ A Special AIREP is available and this AIREP corresponds to a lower Braking Performance
Level
‐ A SNOWTAM includes a lower RWYCC, or the ESF corresponds to a lower Braking
Performance Level
‐ Complementary information is available and is related to a possible degradation of the Runway Condition or braking action.
In the following example, the reported Runway Condition is wet, and the AIREP is “Good to Medium”:
1. The primary assessment based on Runway Condition information results in ___
2. The downgrade based on Reported Braking Action results in ___
“5 - Good”
“4 - Good to Medium”
Operations on hail covered surfaces are not recommended due
to the risk of engine ingestion and airframe damage.
If the flight crew downgrades the braking performance assessment after they consider additional information, they should also downgrade the
maximum crosswind value.
In the case of strong or gusty crosswind above 20 kt, VAPP should be
at least VLS +5 kt; the 5 kt increment above VLS may be increased up to 15 kt at the flight crew’s discretion.
RISK OF DEGRADED RUNWAY CONDITIONS
If meteorological conditions may change, or under active precipitation, the flight crew should consider
a backup assessment of the in-flight landing performance. This assessment should take into account the worst probable Braking Performance Level.
The airport can downgrade any RWYCC to any lower RWYCC. It should not report any RWYCC 0, as in that case,
the runway must be closed.
In some situations, the airport may report a better RWYCC than the primary one obtained from the RCAM. The maximum upgraded RWYCC is ___.
3
The ___ should never upgrade an RWYCC on their own initiative.
flight crew
DIFFERENT RWYCC ON DIFFERENT THIRDS
The flight crew should use the ___ RWYCC for the landing performance assessment, unless a specific operator policy applies.
worst
EXAMPLES OF LANDING PERFORMANCE CODE - LEVEL ASSESSMENT
RUNWAY CONTAMINATED BY COMPACTED SNOW, OAT -10 °C
RUNWAY COVERED BY LESS THAN 3 MM (1/8 IN) OF WATER BUT HEAVY RAIN WITH STORM CELLS IN THE VICINITY ARE REPORTED
RUNWAY COVERED BY TREATED ICE (COLD AND DRY) WITH AN ESTIMATED SURFACE FRICTION GOOD OR RUNWAY CONDITION CODE 3
Two different factors affect the life of carbon brakes:
‐ The wear of the disks
‐ The oxidation of the disks.
The oxidation may degrade rapidly the carbon brakes and may cause the rupture of a brake disk. The main cause of oxidation is
the repetitive high temperature of the brakes (particularly above 400 °C). Therefore, the flight crew should preferably use autobrake LO when performance permits.
The flight crew should obtain the latest information for landing (weather, runway state, braking action, etc.) at the latest
15 min prior to descent.
T/D AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
The FMGS calculates the T/D point backwards from
a position 1 000 ft on the final approach with speed at VAPP. It takes into account any descent speed and altitude constraints and assumes managed speed is used. The descent path is computed as an idle segment.
T/D AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
If the STAR includes a holding pattern, it is not considered for T/D or fuel computation. This T/D is displayed on the ND track as
a white symbol
MANAGED DESCENT SPEED PROFILE
The managed speed is equal to:
‐ The ECON speed (which may have been modified by the flight crew on the PERF DES page
before entering DESCENT phase or, during DESCENT phase), or
‐ The speed constraint or limit when applicable.
TOD AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
The first segment of the descent will always be idle segment until the first altitude constraint is reached. Subsequent segments will be
“geometric”, i.e. the descent will be flown at a specific angle, taking into account any subsequent constraints
With Descent Profile Optimization option (DPO), the idle segment assumes
given managed speed flown at idle thrust. This gives less flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary.
TOD AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
The idle segment assumes a given managed speed flown with
idle thrust plus a small amount of thrust. This gives some flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary.
During idle segment, the A/THR commands THR IDLE or depending on FMGS standard, MACH/SPEED.
During geometric segment, the A/THR commands MACH/SPEED.
The managed DES mode guides the aircraft along the FMS pre-computed descent profile, as long as it flies along the lateral F-PLN: i.e. DES mode is available if NAV is engaged. As a general rule when DES mode is used, the descent is monitored using:
‐ The VDEV called “yoyo” on the PFD and the associated Latch symbol, and
‐ The VDEV digital value on the FMS PROG page, and ‐ The level arrow on the ND.
When OP DES or V/S modes are used, the descent is monitored using
the Energy Circle, (displayed if HDG or TRK modes and indicating the required distance to descend, decelerate and land from present position) and the level arrow on the ND. When the aircraft is not far away from the lateral F-PLN (small XTK), the “yoyo” on the PFD is also a good indicator.
MANAGED DESCENT MODE
The managed descent profile from high altitude is approximately ___
2.5 °
When in DES mode, the FMGS gives priority to the
vertical profile over the speed management.
Therefore, if the aircraft is on the profile and the speed increases with the engines already at
idle the aircraft will accelerate. In such situation, the flight crew should
use the speedbrakes as necessary to manage the aircraft speed, if required. The AP protection will prevent the aircraft from exceeding VMO/MMO. In such situation the aircraft will leave the vertical profile to decelerate.
To avoid overshooting the computed descent path, it is preferable to
push the FCU ALT selector a few miles prior to the calculated T/D. This method will ensure a controlled entry into the descent and is particularly useful in situations of high cruise Mach number or strong upper winds.
DESCENT INITIATION
If the descent is delayed, speed should be
reduced towards green dot, and when cleared for descent, the flight crew will push for DES and push for managed speed. The speed reduction prior to descent will enable the aircraft to recover the computed profile more quickly as it accelerates to the managed descent speed.
___ is automatically selected when HDG or TRK mode is selected by the flight crew, while in DES mode
V/S mode
In OP DES mode, the A/THR commands ___ and the speed is controlled by the ___.
THR IDLE / THS
If the flight crew wishes to increase the rate of descent, OP DES mode can be used, selecting a higher speed. Speedbrake is very effective in increasing descent rate but should be used with caution at high altitude due to
the associated increase in VLS.
DESCENT PROFILE
the DES mode operates within a speed range which can go up to ___ depending on the FMGS standard.
VMO-5 kt as upper limit and MANAGED SPD-20 kt as lower limit (limited by VLS).
Whenever holding is anticipated, it is preferable to
maintain cruise level and reduce speed to green dot, with ATC clearance, to minimize the holding requirement.
If a hold is to be flown, provided NAV mode is engaged and the speed is managed, ___ will occur to achieve the hold speed when entering the holding pattern.
an automatic speed reduction
HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION
The default hold speed is the lowest of the following:
‐ Maximum Endurance speed
‐ ICAO limit holding speed
‐ Speed constraint (if any).
HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION
When no specific speed limit applies, the default hold speed is
the Maximum Endurance speed, which is approximately equal to Green Dot and provides the lowest hourly fuel consumption.
If the Maximum Endurance speed is greater than the ICAO or state maximum holding speed, the crew should
select flap 1 below 20 000 ft and fly S speed.
HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION
Fuel consumption will be increased when holding in anything other than
clean configuration and Maximum Endurance speed
IN THE HOLDING PATTERN
The holding pattern is not included in the descent path computation since
the FMGS does not know how many patterns will be flown.
When the holding fix is sequenced, the FMGS assumes that
only one holding pattern will be flown and updates predictions accordingly.
the VDEV indicates the vertical deviation between current aircraft altitude and the altitude at which the aircraft should cross the exit fix in order to be on the descent profile.
The DES mode guides the aircraft down at ___ whilst in the holding pattern until reaching the cleared altitude or altitude constraint.
-1 000 ft/min
When in the holding pattern, LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is displayed on:
the MCDU HOLD page
LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL predictions are based upon the fuel policy requirements specified on the MCDU FUEL PRED page with
no extra fuel, assuming the aircraft will divert
The crew should be aware that LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is computed with defined assumptions e.g.:
‐ Aircraft weight being equal to landing weight at primary destination
‐ Flight at FL 220 if distance to ALTN is less than 200 NM, otherwise FL 310 performed at maximum
range speed.
‐ Constant wind (as entered in alternate field of the DES WIND page). ‐ Constant delta ISA (equal to delta ISA at primary destination)
‐ Airway distance for a company route, otherwise direct distance.
To exit the holding pattern, the crew should select either:
‐ IMM EXIT (The aircraft will return immediately to the hold fix, exit the holding pattern and resume
its navigation), or
‐ HDG if radar vectors, or
‐ DIR TO if radar vectors
DISCONTINUED APPROACH
The discontinued approach is an alternative technique to the GO AROUND procedure to interrupt an approach when
the aircraft is at or above the selected FCU altitude.
Contrary to the GO AROUND procedure, the discontinued approach technique does not require the flight crew to set the thrust levers to TOGA detent.
DISCONTINUED APPROACH
The flight crew should initiate the discontinued approach technique with the callout:
“CANCEL APPROACH”
DISCONTINUED APPROACH
The first action of the flight crew is to disengage and disarm any AP/FD approach mode, by pressing
APPR pb or LOC pb
When in NAV mode, the F-PLN will sequence automatically. In HDG/TRK mode, the F-PLN waypoints will sequence automatically only if
the aircraft flies close to the planned route.
If ATC provides radar vectors and automatic waypoint sequencing does not occur, the flight crew should use the DIR TO RADIAL IN function, or delete the FROM waypoint on the F-PLN page until
the next likely waypoint to be overflown is displayed as the TO waypoint on the ND. This ensures:
‐ A proper F-PLN sequencing
‐ A comprehensive ND display
‐ An assistance for lateral interception
‐ The VDEV to be computed on reasonable distance assumptions.
F-PLN SEQUENCING
‐ DIR TO RADIAL IN must not be used beyond the Final Descent Point, in order to ensure that
the vertical profile in final is unchanged.
DECELERATED APPROACH
This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches
1 000 ft in the landing configuration at VAPP. In most cases, this equates to the aircraft being in CONF 1 and at S speed at the FDP. This is the preferred technique for an approach using vertical managed guidance. The deceleration pseudo waypoint assumes a decelerated approach technique.
EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH
This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches the FDP in the landing configuration at VAPP. The pilot should enter VAPP as a speed constraint at the FDP to get
a valuable deceleration pseudo waypoint and to ensure a timely deceleration.
DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE
To achieve a constant deceleration and to minimize thrust variation, the crew should extend the next configuration when
reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt (IAS must be lower than VFE next), e.g. when the speed reaches green dot +10 kt, the crew should select CONF 1.
DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE
Next configuration when reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt technique, the mean deceleration rate will be approximately
10 kt/NM in level flight. This deceleration rate will be twice i.e. 20 kt/NM, with the use of the speedbrakes.
DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE
speed below the maneuvering speed of the present configuration may be selected provided it is
above VLS+ 5 kt
In certain circumstances, e.g. tail wind or high weight, the deceleration rate may be insufficient. In this case, the landing gear may be lowered, preferably below
220 kt (to avoid gear doors overstress), and before selection of Flap 2.
Speedbrakes can also be used to increase the deceleration rate but the crew should be aware of:
‐ The increase in VLS with the use of speedbrakes
‐ The limited effect at low speeds
‐ The speed brake auto-retraction when selecting CONF FULL (A320) or CONF 3 (A321only)
FINAL APPROACH
USE OF A/THR
The flight crew should use the A/THR for approaches as it provides accurate speed control. The PF should
keep the hand on the thrust levers so as to be prepared to react if needed.
FINAL APPROACH
USE OF A/THR
During final approach, the managed target speed moves along the speed scale as a function of
wind variation. If ATC gives a new wind for landing, the flight crew will update it on MCDU PERF APPR page.
If the PF uses manual thrust for landing, the PF should disconnect the A/THR at
1 000 ft AAL at the latest
The pilot should disconnect the autopilot early enough to resume manual control of the aircraft and to evaluate the ___. During crosswind conditions, the pilot should avoid any tendency to ___
drift before flare & drift downwind
During crosswind conditions, Some common errors include:
‐ Descending below the final path, and/or
‐ reducing the drift too early.
If the ATC clears for approach at a significant distance, e.g. 30 NM, the flight crew should be aware that the G/S may be perturbed and CAT 1 will be displayed on FMA till
valid Radio Altimeter signal is received.
GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE
In order to get the best rate of descent when cleared by ATC and below the limiting speeds, the flight crew should
lower the landing gear and select flaps as required (at least CONF 2 should be selected to ensure that the aircraft speed will not increase). Speedbrakes may also be used.
GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE
The following procedure must only be applied when
established on the localizer
GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE
When cleared to intercept the glide slope, the flight crew should:
‐ Press the APPR pb on FCU and confirm G/S is armed and LOC engaged, monitor the vertical interception
‐ Select the FCU altitude above aircraft altitude to avoid unwanted ALT* engagement
‐ Select V/S 1 500 ft/min initially. V/S in excess of 2 000 ft/min will result in the speed increasing
towards VFE.
The Decision Height (DH) is the
wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated unless appropriate visual reference has been established.
The DH is based on RA.
The Alert Height (AH) is the
height above the runway, based on the characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail-operational automatic landing system, above which a CATIII approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment.
The AH concept is relevant when ___ is displayed on FMA.
CAT 3 DUAL
On single aisle Airbus family, the AH =
100 ft
CAT 3 SINGLE is announced when the airborne systems are fail passive which means that
single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude. Manual flight is then required. This minimum DH is 50 ft.
CAT 3 DUAL is announced when
airborne systems are fail-operational. In case of a single failure, the AP will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system.
CAT 3 DUAL
In the event of a failure below the AH, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by
remaining part of the automatic system. In that case, no capability degradation is indicated. Such a redundancy allows CAT III operations with or without DH.
In addition to the normal flight preparation, the following preparation must be performed when CAT II or CAT III approach is planned:
‐ Ensure that destination airport meets CAT II or CAT III requirements
‐ Check aircraft required equipment for CAT 2 or CAT 3 in QRH
‐ Check that crew qualification is current
‐ Consider extra fuel for possible approach delay ‐ Consider weather at alternate
The failures that may affect the aircraft’s CAT 2 or CAT 3 capability are listed in the QRH. Most of these failures are monitored by
FMGS and the landing capability will be displayed on the FMA once the APPR pb is pressed
There are a number of failures which affect the aircraft’s landing capability which are not monitored by the FMGS and, consequently, not reflected on the FMA. It is very important, therefore, that the crew refer
QRH to establish the actual landing capability if some equipment are listed inoperative.
The crew must realise the importance of eye position during low visibility approaches and landing. A too low seat position may
reduce the visual segment
As a rule of thumb, an incorrect seating position which reduces the cut-off angle by 1 ° reduces the visual segment by
approximately 10 m (30 ft)
The use of landing lights at night in low visibility can be detrimental to the acquisition of visual reference. ___ may actually reduce visibility.
Reflected lights from water droplets or snow
Should a failure occur above 1 000 ft RA, all ECAM actions (and DH amendment if required) should be completed before reaching ___, otherwise a go-around should be initiated.
1 000 ft RA
The PF supervises the approach (trajectory, attitude, speed) and takes appropriate decision at DH or in case of failure.
The PF announces ___, when displayed on FMA.
“LAND”
The PM is head down throughout the automatic approach and automatic landing.
The PM monitors:
‐ The FMA and calls all mode changes below 350 ft as required (i.e. after PF calls “LAND”) ‐ The Auto call out
‐ The aircraft trajectory or attitude exceedance
‐ Any failures.
The PM should be go-around minded.
AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING
- Below ___, data coming from the FMS is frozen e.g.: ILS tune inhibit
‐ Below ___, the FCU is frozen
‐ At ___, LAND must be displayed on FMA. This ensures correct final approach guidance.
700 ft RA
400 ft RA
350 ft
AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING
‐ Below 200 ft, the AUTOLAND warning is triggered if:
- Both APs trip off
- Excessive beam deviation is sensed
- Localizer or glide slope transmitter or receiver fails
- A RA discrepancy of at least 15 ft is sensed.
AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING
‐ FLARE comes at ___
‐ THR IDLE comes at ___
‐ RETARD auto call out comes at ___ for autoland as an order (Instead of 20 ft for manual
landing as a reminder).
40 ft
30 ft
10 ft
If a failure occurs prior to reaching the AH, a go-around will be initiated. A go-around must nevertheless be performed if
AUTOLAND warning is triggered below AH.
A late go-around may result in ground contact. If touch down occurs after TOGA is engaged, the AP remains engaged in that mode and A/THR remains in TOGA. The ___ are inhibited.
ground spoilers and auto-brake
If visual references are lost after touch down, a go-around should
not be attempted. The roll-out should be continued with AP in ROLL OUT mode down to taxi speed.
For CAT II approaches, autoland is recommended. If manual landing is preferred, the PF will take-over at
80 ft at the latest. This ensures a smooth transition for the manual landing.
IDENTIFICATION OF FINAL DESCENT POINT
It is recommended to arm FINAL APP mode when
TO waypoint is the FDP
If the green solid line does not intercept the ___, APP NAV mode will not engage.
PRE NAV engagement path
VDEV becomes active and represents the vertical deviation, which may include a level segment. The VDEV/brick scale will only be displayed if
ILS or LS pb is not pressed. If the ILS or LS pb is pressed by mistake, the V/DEV will flash in amber on the PFD.
In some NPAs, the final approach flies an ___ segment from one altitude constraint to another, followed by a level segment. This is materialized by a magenta level off symbol on ND followed by a blue start of descent.
“idle descent”
When the aircraft reaches the minima, the PM either monitors or announces “MINIMUM”. The current altitude value becomes
amber
Keeping the AP/FD below minima when visual references are acquired is highly valuable in the following conditions:
‐ High minima above ground level
‐ Marginal weather conditions.
When the FINAL APP mode is used for approach, the FDs provide lateral and vertical managed guidance down to
MAP. The flight crew can keep the AP/FD engaged below minima.
When the FINAL APP mode is used for approach, the guidance may not be relevant especially in the following cases:
‐ MAP not at the RWY threshold and final segment not aligned with the runway track
(final segment does not cross the RWY threshold)
‐ Strong offset between final segment and runway track.
At the MAP or Minimum Use Height of the AP:
The FMS invalidates the vertical profile at
MAP. The FDs revert from FINAL APP to HDG V/S mode.
During NPA, the flight crew must disconnect the AP no later than
MAP or the Minimum Use Height of AP, whichever occurs first
COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum OAT. Below this temperature,
the error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in temperature.
COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
As it is not authorized to make these altitude corrections to the final approach segment of the FM
Flight Plan (F-PLN) through the MCDU, it is not possible to use FINAL APP when OAT is below this minimum OAT. The flight crew must then use
selected vertical guidance.
The Final Path Angle (FPA) should be preset on the FCU ___ prior to the FDP at the latest.
A smooth interception of the final approach path can be achieved by pulling the FPA selector ___ prior to the FDP.
1 NM
0.3 NM
LOC B/C approach should be flown using the TRK mode for lateral guidance and the FPA mode for vertical guidance. The approach is flown using
ND in ROSE LS/ILS mode as it shows the correct LEFT/RIGHT information for the beam deviation.
BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH
Back course localizer (LOC B/C) approach consists in using the LOC signal of the opposite runway for lateral approach management.
The preferred technique is
the early stabilized approach technique, using the AP/FD and A/THR.
BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH
The flight crew should manually enter the ILS in the MCDU RAD NAV page. The front course will be entered in
CRS field
BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH
The flight crew must not select ILS via the ILS/LS pb: doing so
makes the PFD show reverse deviations.
The flight crew must not arm the LOC or APPR modes.
VISUAL APPROACH
The flight crew will aim to get the following configuration at beginning of the downwind leg:
‐ Both AP and FDs will be selected off
‐ BIRD ON
‐ A/THR confirmed active in speed mode, i.e. SPEED on the FMA
‐ Managed speed will be used to enable the “GS mini” function
‐ The downwind track will be selected on the FCU to assist in downwind tracking ‐ The downwind track altitude will be set on FCU.
VISUAL APPROACH
Assuming a 1 500 ft AAL circuit, the base turn should be commenced
45 s after passing abeam the downwind threshold (3 s/100 ft +/- 1 s/1 kt of headwind / tailwind).
VISUAL APPROACH
The final turn onto the runway centreline will be commenced with
20 ° angle of bank. Initially the rate of descent should be 400 ft/min, increasing to 700 ft/min when established on the correct descent path.
VISUAL APPROACH
The pilot will aim to be configured for landing at VAPP by
500 ft AAL
ILS RAW DATA
The TRK index will be set to the ILS course and, once established on the LOC, the tail of the bird should be coincident with
the TRK index. This method allows accurate LOC tracking taking into account the drift.
ILS RAW DATA
Should the LOC deviate, the pilot will
fly the bird in the direction of the LOC index, and when re-established on the LOC, set the tail of the bird on the TRK index again. If there is further LOC deviation, check unwanted residual bank angle.
ILS RAW DATA
Slight IRS drift should be suspected as the bird is computed out of
IRS data.
ILS RAW DATA
When ___ below the G/S, the pilot should initiate the interception of the G/S by smoothly flying the FPV down to the glide path angle. Should the G/S deviate, the pilot will make small corrections in the direction of the deviation and when re-established on the G/S, reset the bird to the G/S angle.
1⁄2 dot
When the aircraft is close to the ground, the wind intensity tends to decrease and the wind direction to turn (direction in degrees decreasing in the northern latitudes). Both effects may reduce the head wind component close to the ground and ___ is there to compensate for this effect.
the wind correction to VAPP
Flare law technique is thus very conventional. When approaching the ground,
auto-trim ceases and the flare law activates. During flare, PF will have to apply a progressive and gentle back stick order until touchdown.
From stabilized conditions, the flare height is
about 30 ft.
Pilot need to be aware of factors that will require an earlier flare, in particular:
‐ High airport elevation (higher ground speeds)
‐ Steeper approach slope (compared to nominal 3 °)
‐ Tailwind (higher ground speeds)
‐ Increasing runway slope (misperception of being high)
If the flare is initiated too late then the pitch changes will not have sufficient time to allow
the necessary change to aircraft trajectory. Late, weak or released flare inputs increase the risk of a hard landing.
At ___, the “RETARD” auto call-out reminds the pilot to retard thrust levers. It is a reminder rather than an order. When best adapted, the pilot will rapidly retard all thrust levers: depending on the conditions, the pilot will retard earlier or later.
20 ft
The pilot must ensure that all thrust levers are at IDLE detent at the latest at touchdown, to ensure
ground spoilers extension at touchdown
The flare law is
a direct stick to elevator relationship
When approaching the ground, the ground effect will tend to ___. In addition, thrust reduction will add to ___ moment.
pitch the nose down
When approaching the ground, the ground effect will tend to ___. In addition, thrust reduction will add to ___ moment.
pitch the nose down
In order to assess the rate of descent in the flare, and the aircraft position relative to the ground, look
well ahead of the aircraft.
The typical pitch increment in the flare is approximately ___, which leads to ___ flight path angle associated with a 10 kt speed decay in the manoeuvre.
4 ° & -1 °
Prolonged float will increase both
the landing distance and the risk of tail strike.
After touch down, the pilot must “fly” the nosewheel smoothly, but without delay, on to the runway, and must be ready to counteract
any residual pitch up effect of the ground spoilers. However, the main part of the spoiler pitch up effect is compensated by the flight control law itself.
It is not recommended to keep the nose high in order to increase aircraft drag during the initial part of the roll-out, as
this technique is inefficient and increases the risk of tail strike. Furthermore, if auto brake MED is used, it may lead to a hard nose gear touch down.
In crosswind conditions, a ___ should be flown with the aircraft (cockpit) positioned on the extended runway centerline until the flare.
crabbed-approach wings-level
The objectives of the lateral and directional control of the aircraft during the flare are:
‐ To land on the centerline, and
‐ to minimize the lateral loads on the main landing gear.
The recommended de-crab technique is to use all of the following:
‐ The rudder to align the aircraft with the runway heading during the flare
‐ The roll control, if needed, to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline.
In the case of strong crosswind, in the de-crab phase, the PF should be prepared to
add small bank angle into the wind in order to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline.
The aircraft may be landed with a partial de-crab (residual crab angle up to about ___) to prevent an excessive bank. This technique prevents wingtip/sharklet (or engine nacelle) strike caused by an excessive bank angle.
5 °
In the case of strong crosswind, partial de-crab technique this may result in touching down with some bank angle into the wind (hence with the ___ landing gear first).
upwind
At high speed, directional control is achieved with rudder. As the speed reduces, the Nose Wheel Steering becomes active. However, the NWS tiller will not be used until
taxi speed is reached.
CROSSWIND CONDITIONS
Flight crew will avoid setting side stick into the wind as
it increases the weathercock effect.
The ___ have a destabilizing effect on the airflow around the rudder and thus decrease
the efficiency of the rudder.
reversers
Three systems are involved in braking once the aircraft is on the ground:
‐ The ground spoilers
‐ The thrust reversers
‐ The wheel brakes.
Explain the partial lift dumping function:
When the aircraft touches down with at least one main landing gear and when at least one thrust lever is in the reverse sector, the ground spoilers partially automatically deploy to ensure that the aircraft is properly sit down on ground. Then, the ground spoilers automatically fully deploy.
The ground spoilers contribute to aircraft deceleration by ___. Wheel braking efficiency is improved due to the increased load on the wheels. Additionally, the ground spoiler extension signal is used for ___
increasing aerodynamic drag at high speed
&
auto-brake activation.
Thrust reversers are more efficient at high speeds: The flight crew must select reverse thrust immediately after main landing gear touchdown.
Below ___, thrust reversers efficiency rapidly decreases.
70 kt
Below ___ with REV MAX selected, engine stall may occur. Therefore, it is recommended to reduce the reverse thrust to REV IDLE at 70 kt, and keep REV IDLE until taxi speed.
60 kt
In an emergency case, the flight crew must keep REV MAX until
full-stop of the aircraft. At taxi speed, and not above, stow the thrust reversers before leaving the runway, in order to avoid foreign object ingestion.
LANDING ON CONTAMINATED RUNWAYS
On contaminated runways, the flight crew must select
REV MAX.
Actual Landing Distance DEFINITIONS
distance used on a dry runway from the crossing of the runway threshold at 50 ft until full-stop of the aircraft, using maximum manual braking. No reverse thrust is considered for the calculation of the ALD. The ALD is demonstrated during flight test campaign for certification purpose.
RLD dry & RLD wet
RLD dry = ALD x 1.67
RLD wet = RLD dry x 1.15
(RLD wet = ALD x 1.92)
LANDING DISTANCE COMPUTATION AT DISPATCH
- Airline uses the RLD
- Runway slope is not considered
- On airport with multiple runways, the landing distance computation at dispatch may be performed on the longest landing runway with no wind.
The anti-skid system adapts pilot applied brake pressure to runway conditions by sensing
impending skid condition and adjusting the brake pressure to each individual wheel as required.
The anti-skid system maintains the skidding factor (slip ratio) close to the
maximum friction force point
Full pedal braking with anti-skid provides a deceleration rate of:
10 kt/sec.
The use of A/BRAKE is usually preferable because
it minimizes the number of brake applications and thus reduces brake wear
On very short runways, the use of pedal braking is to be envisaged since
pilot may apply full pedal braking with no delay after touch down.
In case of pedal braking, to minimize brake wear:
do not ride the brakes but apply pedal braking when required and modulate the pressure without releasing.
The green DECEL light comes on when
the actual deceleration is 80 % of the selected rate. (DECEL light might not appear when the autobrake is selected on a contaminated runway, because the deceleration rate is not reached with the autobrake properly functioning.)
DECEL light is not an indicator of the autobrake operation as such, but
that the deceleration rate is reached.
CROSS WIND CONDITIONS
The reverse thrust side force and crosswind component can combine to cause the aircraft to
drift to the downwind side of the runway if the aircraft is allowed to weathercock into wind after landing.
CROSS WIND CONDITIONS
To correct back to the centreline, the pilot must
reduce reverse thrust to REV IDLE and release the brakes.
Directional Control During Crosswind Landing
- Touchdown with partial decrab
- REV IDLE and brakes released
Directional control and centerline regained - Reverse thrust and pedal braking reapplied
Although most of tail strikes are due to deviations from normal landing techniques, some are associated with external conditions such as
turbulence and wind gradient.
Deviations from normal landing techniques are the most common causes of tail strikes. The main reasons for this are due to:
1‐ speed well below VAPP before flare (high angle of attack and high pitch attitude)
2‐ Prolonged hold off for a smooth touch down (pitch attitude increase beyond the critical angle)
3‐ Too high flare (decrease in airspeed and a long float & increase in pitch attitude)
4‐ Too high sink rate, just prior reaching the flare height (high pitch rate & resulting lift increase may be insufficient to significantly reduce the sink rate)
5‐ Bouncing at touch down (high pitch rate as pilot may be tempted to increase the pitch attitude to ensure a smooth second touch down)
A “PITCH-PITCH” synthetic voice sounds when the
pitch attitude becomes excessive.
The “PITCH-PITCH” synthetic voice sound takes into account the actual pitch value and the pitch trend.
A tail strike pitch limit indicator appears on the PFD to indicate the ___
maximum pitch attitude to avoid a tail strike.
BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN
In case of light bounce
maintain the pitch attitude and complete the landing, while keeping the thrust at idle. Do not allow the pitch attitude to increase, particularly following a firm touch down with a high pitch rate.
BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN
In case of high bounce
maintain the pitch attitude and initiate a go-around. Do not try to avoid a second touch down during the go-around.
A landing should not be attempted immediately after high bounce, as
thrust may be required to soften the second touch down and the remaining runway length may be insufficient to stop the aircraft.
The flight crew must consider to perform a go-around if any of the following alerts occur:
- GPWS, or
- TCAS, or
- Windshear, or
- ROW alerts
The PF must not initiate a go-around after the selection of the
thrust reversers.
Below ___ , when flare law is activated, PF may need to counteract the thrust effect during go-around.
100 ft
If the flight crew performs a go-around near the ground, they should take into account the following:
‐ The PF should avoid excessive rotation rate, in order to prevent a tailstrike.
‐ A temporary landing gear contact with the runway is acceptable.
If the aircraft is on the runway when the PF applies TOGA thrust, ___ may transiently trigger. The flight crew should disregard these alerts.
CONFIG ECAM red warning(s)
AP/FD GO-AROUND PHASE ACTIVATION
When the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, with the FLAPS lever not in 0, the following will occur:
1‐ If the autopilot or the flight director is in use, SRS and GA TRK (NAV) modes engage
2‐ If the autopilot and both flight directors are off, the PF will maintain 15 ° of pitch
3‐ The GA phase activates on the FMS:
* The missed approach becomes the active F-PLN
* At the end of the missed approach procedure, the FMS strings the previous flown approach in
the active F-PLN.
4‐ If not previously engaged, the FD automatically engages with the HDG/VS reference on the FCU. For the go-around, the appropriate flight reference is the attitude, because go-around is a dynamic maneuver
5‐ If extended, the speed brakes automatically retract.
To perform a soft go-around, the PF must set thrust levers to the TOGA detent to ensure
engagement of SRS GA mode. Then, the PF must set the thrust levers to the FLX/MCT detent to engage the GA SOFT mode. In this case, the FMA displays MAN GA SOFT, and the AP/FD vertical and lateral modes remain engaged.
In GA SOFT mode, the SRS GA mode remains engaged with a vertical target speed of
2 300 ft/min
If the thrust levers are not correctly set to the TOGA detent (i.e. the full forward thrust levers position), the following occur:
- The AP/FD remain engaged in approach or landing mode (e.g. G/S, LOC, LAND, FLARE on FMA)
- The FMS does not engage the GA phase, and remains in APPR phase
- LVR CLB flashes on FMA.
the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent with the FLAPS lever at 0, the following occur:
- The AP/FD remain engaged in approach or landing mode (e.g. G/S, LOC, LAND, FLARE on FMA)
- The FMS does not engage the GA phase, and remains in APPR phase
- LVR CLB flashes on FMA.
GO-AROUND WITH FD ON
The SRS mode guides the aircraft with the highest speed of VAPP or IAS at time of TOGA selection (limited to maximum of ___ with all engines operative or ___ with one engine inoperative with FMS 2) until the acceleration altitude where the target speed increases to ___
VLS +25
VLS +15
green dot
Some FMS misbehavior may prevent this automatic target speed increase. Should this occur, pulling the FCU ALT knob for OP CLB manually disengages SRS mode and allows the target speed to increase to
green dot
The target speed increases to green dot speed as soon as ___ engages when approaching the FCU clearance altitude.
ALT* mode
At TOGA selection, the missed approach F-PLN is immediately followed in
NAV mode, or will be followed after a transition in GA TRK mode with NAV armed.
The GA TRK mode guides the aircraft on ___. NAV mode engages as soon as the aircraft is aligned on the F-PLN.
the track memorized at the time of TOGA selection
Above the go-around acceleration altitude, or when the flight crew engages another vertical mode (CLB, OP CLB), the target speed is
green dot
When the pilot sets TOGA thrust for go-around, it takes some time for the engines to spool up due to
the acceleration capability of the high by pass ratio engines
Altitude Loss Following a Go-Around
When the pilot sets TOGA thrust for go-around, the aircraft will initially lose some altitude. This altitude loss will be greater if initial thrust is close to:
idle and/or the aircraft speed is lower than VAPP.
The purpose of leaving the go-around phase is to obtain the proper target speed and proper predictions depending upon the strategy chosen by the crew. During the missed approach, the crew will elect either of the following strategies:
‐ Fly a second approach
‐ Carry out a diversion.
If a second approach is to be flown, the crew will activate the approach phase in
MCDU PERF GO-AROUND page
If the crew has prepared the ALTN FPLN in the active F-PLN, a lateral revision at the ___ is required to access the ENABLE ALTN prompt.
TO WPT
USE OF BRAKE FANS
Delaying brake fans selection limits the:
oxidation of any possible transient hot spots of the brake disk surface.
The selection of the brake fans, before the aircraft reaches the gate, prevents:
blow carbon brake dust on the ground personnel. The brake fans blow dust during the first seconds of operation only.
Airbus SOP recommendation is to set the APU Bleed to ON just before engine shutdown, to minimize
odors in the air conditioning.
To reduce potential odors in the cabin, the APU Bleed may be set to ON after
engine shutdown. In such a case, operators should keep in mind that the number of pack starting cycles is increased, and the APU bleed is not immediately available in the case of an engine tailpipe fire.
Airbus normal checklists are of a “non-action” type i.e.
all actions should be completed from memory before the flight crew performs the checklist
The checklist actions are referred to as ___ type actions.
“challenge/response”
When the checklist is completed, the PM announces,
“___ CHECKLIST COMPLETE”
for example: “LANDING CHECKLIST COMPLETE”.
COCKPIT PREPARATION
Checklist trigger:
Departure briefing completed
COCKPIT PREPARATION
FUEL QUANTITY The PF announces:
“___ kilograms balanced”
e.g. “Fifteen thousand three hundred thirty kilograms balanced”
BEFORE START
Checklist trigger:
‐ Pushback clearance or start clearance received
‐ Before Start flow pattern completed.
BEFORE START
PARKING BRAKE
The PF checks the PARK BRK memo.
The PF announces:
e.g. “SET”
BEFORE START
T.O SPEEDS & THRUST
The PF announces:
“V1 One Two Five, VR One Two Five, V2 One Two Nine, Flex Fifty Two”.
AFTER START
Checklist trigger:
On hand signal from the ground personnel
AFTER START
PITCH TRIM
The PF announces:
“thirty two point four percent”
AFTER START
RUDDER TRIM
The PF checks the rudder trim is within the tolerance
±0.3 °
TAXI
Checklist trigger:
T.O CONFIG pb pressed and cabin report received
TAXI
ENG MODE SEL
The PF announces
“IGNITION” or “NORM”
LINE-UP
Checklist trigger:
‐ Line-up clearance received
‐ Before Takeoff flow pattern completed
APPROACH
Checklist trigger:
Below 10 000 ft AAL and barometric reference set
LANDING
Checklist trigger:
LDG CONF set and cabin report received
AFTER LANDING
Checklist trigger:
After Landing Flow pattern completed
PARKING
Checklist trigger:
SEAT BELTS sw OFF
PARKING
PARKING BRAKE OR CHOCKS
The PF announces
“PARKING BRAKE SET” or “CHOCKS SET”
SECURING THE AIRCRAFT
Checklist trigger:
After the last passenger left the aircraft (if securing the aircraft is intended)
When the wing is covered with ice, the airflow separates from the wing when the Angle-Of-Attack (AOA) increases. Therefore, the maximum lift-coefficient is reduced. As a result
the aircraft may stall at a lower AOA, and the drag may increase.
COCKPIT PREPARATION
The following systems may be affected in very cold weather:
‐ The EFIS/ECAM (when the cockpit temperature is very low)
‐ The IRS alignment (may take longer than usual, up to 15 min).
The probe and window heating may be used on ground.
Depending upon the severity of the weather, de-icing/anti-icing procedure must be applied either:
‐ In one step, via the single application of heated and diluted deicing/anti-icing fluid: The holdover time starts from the beginning of the application of the fluid.
‐ In two steps, by first applying the heated deicing fluid, then by applying a protective anti-icing fluid: The holdover time starts from the beginning of the application of the second fluid.
On contaminated runways, the taxi speed should be limited to ___, and any action that could distract the flight crew during taxiing should be delayed until the aircraft is stopped.
10 kt
Cold Weather Operations and Icing Conditions
The following factors should be taken into account (TAXI-OUT):
1‐ At speeds below 20 kt: Antiskid deactivates.
2‐ Engine anti-ice increases ground idle thrust.
3‐ To minimize the risk of skidding during turns: Avoid large tiller inputs.
4‐ On slippery taxiways: It may be more effective to use differential braking and/or thrust, instead of
nosewheel steering.
5‐ On slush-covered, or snow-covered, taxiways: Flap selection should be delayed until reaching the holding point, in order to avoid contaminating the flap/slat actuation mechanism.
6‐ When reaching the holding point: The Taxi checklist must be performed.
7‐ The flight crew must maintain the aircraft at an appropriate distance from the aircraft in front.
8‐ In icing conditions: When holding on ground for extended periods of time, or if engine vibration
occurs, thrust should be increased periodically, and immediately before takeoff, to shed any ice from the fan blades.
The use of FLEX thrust for takeoff on ___ runways is prohibited.
contaminated
A higher flap setting increases the runway limited takeoff weight, but
reduces second the segment limited takeoff weight.
For takeoff on contaminated runways, the flight crew must ensure that:
- airframe has no ice or snow.
- nosewheel is straight.
- engine thrust advances symmetrically to help minimize potential problems with directional control.
Although the TAT before entering clouds may not require engine anti-ice, flight crews should be aware that the TAT often decreases significantly, when:
entering clouds
If the recommended anti-ice procedures are not performed, ___ may occur.
engine stall, over-temperature, or engine damage
The ADIRS computes the FPA from
inertial data and barometric altitude. When the atmosphere differs from the ISA conditions, the altitude and FPA computed by the ADIRS, and the associated indications on PFD (altitude, VDEV, etc.) are not accurate.
BAROMETER INDICATIONS
When the temperature is lower than ISA:
‐ The true altitude of the aircraft is lower than the altitude that the ADIRS computes
‐ The FPA that the aircraft actually flies, is less steep than the FPA that the ADIRS computes.
When the temperature is lower than ISA, the FPA that the aircraft actually flies is
less steep than the FPA that the ADIRS (ISA referenced) computes.
During rollout, the sidestick must be centered. This prevents
asymmetric wheel loading, that results in asymmetric braking and increases the weathercock tendency of the aircraft.
Cold Weather Operations and Icing Conditions
During taxi-in, after landing, the flaps/slats should not be retracted. This is because
retraction could cause damage, by crushing any ice that is in the slots of the slats.
At the end of the flight at parking, in extreme cold conditions, ___ is requested when a longer stop over is expected.
cold soak protection
Windshear can result from a microburst. An aircraft that approaches a microburst will first encounter
strong headwind.
This may cause the aircraft to fly above the intended flight path and/or accelerate. With a fixed speed on approach, the flight crew’s reaction may be to reduce power. This will cause the aircraft to fly with reduced energy through the downburst. The wind will then become a tailwind. The indicated airspeed and lift will drop and the downburst may be sufficiently strong to force the aircraft to lose a significant amount of altitude. The degraded performance, combined with a tailwind encounter, may cause the aircraft to stall.
If a windshear encounter is likely, the takeoff or landing should be
delayed until the conditions improve, e.g. until a thunderstorm has moved away from the airport.
The flight crew should pay attention to the following deviations that may indicate a possible windshear condition:
‐ Indicated airspeed variations in excess of 15 kt
‐ Ground speed variations
‐ Wind indication variations on the ND: directions and velocity
‐ Vertical speed excursions of 500 ft/min
‐ Pitch attitude excursions of 5 °
‐ Glide slope deviation of 1 dot
‐ Heading variations of 10 °
‐ Unusual A/THR activity.
The windshear and microburst are hazardous phenomena for an aircraft at takeoff or landing. The strategy to cope with windshear is:
‐ Increasing flight crew awareness through the PWS
‐ Informing the flight crew of unexpected air mass variations through FPV and approach speed
variations
‐ Warning the flight crew of significant loss of energy through “SPEED, SPEED, SPEED” and
“WINDSHEAR” aural warnings (if available)
‐ Providing effective tools to escape the shear through ALPHA FLOOR protection, SRS pitch
order, high AOA protection and Ground Speed mini protection.
The PWS automatically operates, if the radar is ON or OFF, provided that the
PWS sw is in the AUTO position.
The radar can measure speed variations of the droplets, and as a result, assess wind variations. This predictive capability to assess wind variations is performed by
the PWS
The FPV associated with the ___ is an effective means for informing the flight crew of unexpected air mass variations:
approach speed variations (GS mini protection)
The “SPEED, SPEED, SPEED” low energy warning (if available) is based on the
aircraft speed, acceleration and flight path angle
Reactive windshear warning system triggers if the aircraft encounters windshear. In such a case, there is a ___ aural warning.
“WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR”
In windshear conditions, “SPEED, SPEED, SPEED” low energy warning is the first warning to appear, before
the activation of the alpha floor.
When the alpha floor protection is triggered, the A/THR triggers
TOGA on all engines. The FMA displays A.FLOOR, that changes to TOGA LK, when the aircraft AOA has decreased. TOGA/LK can only be deselected by turning the A/THR off.
WINDSHEAR
The SRS pitch mode ensures
best aircraft climb performance and minimize the loss of height.
WINDSHEAR
The high angle-of-attack protection enables the PF
to safely pull full aft stick, if needed, in order to follow the SRS pitch order, or to rapidly counteract a down movement. This provides maximum lift and minimum drag, by automatically retracting the speed brakes, if they are extended.
Predictive windshear warning
(“WINDSHEAR AHEAD” and “GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural alerts, associated with the W/S AHEAD that appears on the PFDs)
Reactive windshear warning
(“WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR” aural alert, associated with the WINDSHEAR that appears on the PFDs)
WINDSHEAR
The following recommendations apply for takeoff after V1 and when airbone (including approach and go around phases):
- The flight crew must set TOGA thrust and should follow SRS orders (if necessary, pull the sidestick fully back).
If the FD bars are not displayed, the flight crew should move toward an initial pitch attitude of 17.5 °. Then, if necessary, to prevent a loss in altitude, increase the pitch attitude. - If the AP is engaged, the flight crew should keep it engaged. The AP disengages if the angle of attack value goes above αPROT
Known cases of spurious predictive windshear alerts were reported at some airports either during takeoff or landing, due to the specific obstacle environment.
However, the flight crew must always rely on
all reactive windshear (i.e. WINDSHEAR) alerts.
When a predictive windshear aural alert (“WINDSHEAR AHEAD” or “GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD”) is triggered, the flight crew must carefully check that there is no hazard. If this is the case, the flight crew can disregard the alert, as long as both the following apply:
‐ There are no other signs of possible windshear conditions
‐ The reactive windshear system is operational.
Predictive windshear alerts are inhibited when the aircraft speed is
above 100 kt and up to 50 ft.
If a predictive windshear alert is triggered on the runway before takeoff, or in case of suspected windshear, the flight crew must
delay takeoff until conditions are better
WINDSHEAR
In order to evaluate takeoff conditions, the flight crew should apply both of the following:
‐ Use their observations and experience
‐ Check the weather conditions.
If a predictive windshear WARNING is triggered during the takeoff roll, the Captain must
reject takeoff.
If a predictive windshear CAUTION is triggered during the takeoff roll, it is the decision of the Captain according to the Captain’s situation assessment to either:
Continue with takeoff considering TOGA, or Reject takeoff.
If a predictive windshear alert is triggered during initial climb, the flight crew must:
- Set TOGA
- Closely monitor the speed and the speed trend
- Ensure that the flight path does not include areas with suspected windshears
- Change the aircraft configuration, provided that the aircraft does not enter windshear.
The Reactive Windshear Function detected a windshear.
During the takeoff roll, ___ alert is inhibited.
“WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR”
If the windshear occurs before V1, with ___ the Captain must initiate a rejected takeoff.
significant speed and speed trend variations
If the windshear occurs after V1, the flight crew must select TOGA. The flight crew must pay attention to the following:
‐ The flight crew should not change the configuration, until the aircraft is out of the windshear, because operating the landing gear doors causes additional drag
‐ The PF must fly SRS pitch orders rapidly and smoothly, but not aggressively, and must consider pulling full backstick, if necessary, to minimize height loss
‐ The PM should call out the wind variations from the ND and V/S and, when clear of the windshear, report the encounter to the ATC.
The Predictive Windshear Function detected a windshear. If the flight crew decides to continue the approach, they should:
‐ Assess the weather severity with the radar display
‐ Consider the most appropriate runway
‐ Select FLAPS 3 for landing, in order to optimize the climb gradient capability in the case of a
go-around
‐ Use managed speed, because it provides the GS mini function
‐ The flight crew may increase VAPP displayed on MCDU PERF APP page up to a maximum
VLS +15 kt, in case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 kt, use the LDG PERF
application of EFB for VAPP determination.
In the case of “GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural alert triggering, the PF must
TOGA for a go-around. The flight crew can change the aircraft configuration, provided that the windshear is not entered. Full backstick should be applied, if required, to follow the SRS, or to minimize the loss of height.
Severe turbulence is defined as turbulence that
causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in airspeed.
If severe turbulence occurs during a flight, the flight crew must
make a logbook entry in order to initiate maintenance action.
For takeoff in high turbulence, the flight crew must
wait for the target speed +20 kt (limited to VFE-5) before retracting the slats/flaps (e.g. the flight crew must wait for F+20 kt before setting Flaps 1).
Usually, the gain should be left in AUTO. However, selective use of manual gain may help to assess the general weather conditions. Manual gain is particularly useful, when
operating in heavy rain, if the radar picture is saturated. In this case, reduced gain will help the flight crew to identify the areas of heaviest rainfall, that are usually associated with active CB cells.
The decision to avoid a CB must be taken as early as possible, and lateral avoidance should, ideally, be
at 20 NM upwind
In turbulent conditions, CONF FULL provides ___, however, CONF 3 provides ___
better handling capability / more energy and less drag
To reduce the encounter of a wake turbulence, the flight crew must
comply with the aircraft separation minima.
During final approach, the flight crew should remain on the standard approach slope because
deviation does not guarantee avoidance of wake turbulence.
If the aircraft encounters wake turbulence, pilot input can amplify the effect of the vortices. All of the following is therefore recommended:
‐ Do not use the rudder
‐ Keep the AP ON
‐ If the AP was set to OFF by the flight crew or automatically disconnected, release the controls
and wait for a reasonable stabilization of the aircraft.
SINGLE FMGC FAILURE
Should a single FMGC failure occur
the AP, if engaged on the affected side, will disconnect. The flight crew can recover the AP by selecting the other AP. The A/THR remains operative.
SINGLE FMGC FAILURE
Flight plan information on the affected ND may be recovered by
using the same range as the opposite ND. The flight crew should consider a FMGC reset as detailed in QRH.
DUAL FMGC FAILURE
Should a dual FMGC failure occur, the AP/FD and A/THR will disconnect. The flight crew should try to recover both AP and A/THR by selecting them back ON (The AP and A/THR can be recovered if
FG parts of the FMGC are still available
DUAL FMGC FAILURE
If both AP and A/THR cannot be recovered, the thrust levers will have to be moved to recover
manual thrust. The flight crew should switch off the FDs and select TRK/FPA to allow the blue track index and the bird to be displayed. The RMPs can be used to tune the NAVAIDs.
The flight crew should refer to the QRH for system reset considerations and then Refer to FCOM/DSC-22_20-90-10 Automatic FMGC Reset and Resynchronization - FM Reset to reload both FMGCs as required.
DUAL FMGC FAILURE
If both FMGCs cannot be recovered and if the NAV B/UP function is installed, the MCDU features a NAV B/UP function which provides
simplified IRS based navigation
LOSS OF BRAKING
Unless required due to an emergency, it is recommended to avoid the use of high level of reverse thrust at low speed, in order to
avoid engine stall and excessive EGT
LOSS OF BRAKING
‐ If possible, delay the use of parking brake until low speed, to
reduce the risk of tire burst and lateral control difficulties.
The emergency electrical configuration is due to
loss of AC BUS 1 and 2
EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION
The RAT extends automatically. This powers
blue hydraulic circuit which drives the emergency generator. The emergency generator supplies both AC and DC ESS BUS.
EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION
Below 125 kt, the RAT stalls and the emergency generator is no longer powered. The emergency generation network is automatically transferred to
batteries and AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed.
Below 100 kt, the DC BAT BUS is automatically connected and below 50 kt, the AC ESS BUS is shed.
EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION
As only ___ is available, the ___ becomes PF. Once a safe flight path is established, and the aircraft is under control, ECAM actions will be carried out.
PFD1
left hand seat pilot
EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION
The handling of this failure is referred to as a “complex procedure”. A summary for handling the procedure is included in
QRH, which will be referred to upon completion of the ECAM procedure
The ELEC EMER CONFIG SYS REMAINING list is available in QRH.
The flight is to be completed manually in
alternate and then, when gear down, in direct law.
AP/FD and ATHR are lost.
ELEC EMER CONFIG
The approach speed must be at least
min RAT speed (140 kt) to keep the emergency generator supplying the electrical network.
ELEC EMER CONFIG
The BSCU are lost. Consequently, the NWS and anti skid are lost. Alternate braking with yellow hydraulic pressure modulation up to 1 000 PSI will be used. Additionally, reversers are not available. RA 1+2 are lost with their associated call out. Call out will be made by PM.
Approaching ___ during the landing roll, all display units will be lost.
50 kt
ENGINE ABNORMAL RESPONSE
If possible, the flight crew should keep the engine running in flight. Even at idle, the engine powers
hydraulic, electric, and bleed systems
The all engines failure can be identified by the
Flight Warning Computer (FWC)
Even if the ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE alert is not triggered, the flight crew must rapidly decide to apply either the ___ or the ___ depending on their assessment of the situation.
ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure,
EMER LANDING QRH procedure,
If the flight crew considers there is sufficient time to attempt an engine relight, they must apply the ___ procedure. However, if the flight crew considers there is not sufficient time to attempt an engine relight, they must apply the ___ procedure.
ALL ENG FAIL QRH
EMER LANDING QRH
An all engines failure situation mainly results in an emergency electrical configuration, and in the loss of the ___ hydraulic systems.
green and yellow
ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION
In the case of an all engines failure:
‐ All the AC busbars are lost
‐ The RAT automatically deploys to supply the emergency generator (EMER GEN or CSM/G).
The EMER GEN supplies both the AC ESS and the DC ESS bus bars.
The EMER GEN, that is connected to the network, remains connected even if
all the main generators are recovered (following engines relight), or if the APU generator is connected.
Below FL 250, if the flight crew can start the APU, the normal electrical configuration partly recovers.
If fuel remains, the flight crew should attempt an APU start regardless of the RAT type in order to recover
cabin pressurization, additional electrical power and have bleed available for a starter-assisted relight, if necessary.
APU start attempts use the aircraft batteries and reduce batteries load (each APU start attempt reduces flight time on batteries by about ___ ). Total flight time on batteries is more than ___ .
3 and a half minutes
30 min
HYDRAULIC GENERATION
When the hydraulic power is lost, the right aileron is lost and goes to
its zero hinge moment position. PF may use the rudder trim to generate sideslip and therefore compensate for this upfloating aileron. When the APU generator is connected, the control of the right aileron is restored due to the recovery of ELAC 2.
The ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE alert provides the first key steps of the procedure and then directs the flight crew to
ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure
Advantages of the Windmill relight
- available for a large altitude range,
- simultaneous relight attempts on all engines,
- relight attempts not dependent on the technical condition of the aircraft systems
If the all engines failure is subsequent to a flight through ___ , the situation may be associated to unreliable speed indications. Therefore, the QRH procedure includes complementary information compared to the ECAM and provides the pitch attitude that the PF must maintain to target the optimum relight speed.
volcanic ashes
ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure requests the flight crew to check the on-board fuel quantity in order to ensure
aircraft is not experiencing a fuel starvation issue that will prevent engines relight
ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure promotes windmill relight, However, if none of the engines relights after several attempts using windmill, ___ , the flight crew can take advantage of the APU bleed air, if available, to attempt starter-assisted engine relights
below FL 200
ALL ENG FAIL
The flight crew can reduce speed to the ___ to minimize the aircraft descent rate.
green dot speed
Green dot for all engines inoperative is displayed on the left PFD.
ALL ENG FAIL
Regardless of the relight procedure (Windmill, or using the APU bleed), engine master levers must be set to OFF for ___ in order to ventilate the combustion chamber of the engine between two relight attempts.
30 s
ALL ENG FAIL
As long as the engine parameters continuously increase and reach idle values without exceeding limits, the flight crew should not
abort the relight attempt
ALL ENG FAIL
IF ENGINE RELIGHT CANNOT BE ATTEMPTED
This section requires flying at green dot speed, that is the best lift-to-drag ratio speed in order to
maximize the remaining time for cabin preparation and distance flown.
ALL ENG FAIL
If fuel remains, the flight crew should start the APU below ___ to improve electrical power supply and recover CM2 display units.
FL 250
ALL ENG FAIL
The flight crew should also use APU bleed below ___ to recover the cabin pressurization.
FL 200
ALL ENG FAIL
If no engine relights and depending on the situation, the flight crew should prepare the aircraft either for a ditching, or for a forced landing, even if
a runway can be reached.
Ditching and forced landing procedures are very similar, except
for the landing gear that must be up for a ditching.
ALL ENG FAIL
For approach, only ___ are available.
slats
FORCED LANDING
For the PF, during the initial and final approach, the main concern is
the aircraft energy management.
FORCED LANDING
The PF should maintain aircraft path higher than in a normal approach because
there is no engine to manage energy.
FORCED LANDING
If the aircraft is too high to reach the landing area, PF may use
the remaining speed brakes to generate drag and increase the descent rate, if needed.
Just before ditching, the flight crew must set the DITCHING pb to ON in order to
close all valves under the aircraft.
ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE
When at least one engine is recovered, AC 1, DC 1, AC 2 and DC 2 are recovered and normal electrical configuration is restored except, that
AC ESS BUS bar and DC ESS BUS bars remain supplied by the emergency generator.
ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE
When at least one engine is recovered, green, yellow and blue hydraulic systems are restored:
‐ Green and yellow systems due to the engine and associated EDP recovery, and the other
hydraulic system by means of the PTU operation
‐ Blue hydraulic system is recovered as the electrical supply of the blue electric pump is restored.
ENGINE FAILURE
An engine flameout can be due to many reasons, for example:
‐ Fuel starvation
‐ Encounter with volcanic ash, sand or dust clouds
‐ Heavy rain, hail, or icing
‐ Bird strike
‐ Engine stall
‐ Engine control system malfunction.
The flight crew can detect an engine flameout without damage by
a rapid decrease of EPR/N1, N2, EGT and FF.
The flight crew can suspect engine damage, if the flight crew observes two or more of the following symptoms:
‐ Rapid increase of the EGT above the red line
‐ Important mismatch of the rotor speeds, or absence of rotation
‐ Significant increase of aircraft vibrations, or buffeting, or both vibrations and buffeting ‐ Hydraulic system loss
‐ Repeated, or not controllable engine stalls.
If an engine failure occurs at low speed, the resultant yaw may be significant, leading to
rapid displacement from the runway center line.
ENGINE FAILURE AT LOW SPEED (ON GROUND)
To regain or maintain directional control on the runway, it is necessary:
‐ To immediately reduce both thrust levers to IDLE, which will reduce the thrust asymmetry caused
by the failed engine
‐ To select both reversers irrespective of which engine has failed
‐ To use rudder pedal for directional control, supplemented by symmetrical or differential braking if
needed.
ENGINE FAILURE AT LOW SPEED (ON GROUND)
Below ___, the ground spoilers will not deploy and the auto brake will not activate.
72 kt
ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1
At VR, the flight crew should rotate the aircraft using a continuous pitch rate of approximately ___ towards an initial pitch attitude of ___.
3 °/s
12.5 °
ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1
WHEN SAFELY AIRBORNE:
The flight crew should then follow the SRS orders that may request a lower pitch attitude in order to obtain
the target speed. If an engine failure occurs after liftoff, the SRS targets the speed at which the failure occurred (limited between V2 and V2 +15 kt).
In the case of an engine failure at takeoff, the ___ appears instead of the usual sideslip indication on the PFD
blue beta target
The flight crew must adjust the rudder pedals as usual to center the beta target in order to
optimize the climb performance.
When the AP is engaged the rudder trim is managed via the AP, therefore:
- Manual rudder trim command is inhibited
- The flight crew should release any pressure on the rudder pedals.
If a rudder pedal deflection is maintained or applied after AP engagement, the AP may
disengage
If the climb and/or acceleration performance of the aircraft is less than expected, the flight crew should
confirm that the landing gear has been selected up and consider the use of TOGA thrust,
In CONF 1+F, F speed is not displayed on the PFD. F speed is displayed on the
PERF TAKEOFF page
“Secure the engine” means that the flight crew should continue the ECAM procedure until:
‐ “ENG MASTER OFF” in the case of an engine failure without damage, or
‐ “AGENT 1 DISCH” in the case of an engine failure with damage, or
‐ Fire extinguished or “AGENT 2 DISCH” in case of an engine fire.
At the EO acceleration altitude, when the flap lever is at zero, the beta target reverts to
normal sideslip indication.
The engine out maximum acceleration altitude corresponds to
maximum altitude that can be achieved with one engine out and the other engine operating at takeoff thrust for a maximum of 10 min.
ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1
When the speed trend arrow reaches the Green Dot speed,
pull the ALT knob to engage OP CLB. Set the thrust levers to MCT when the LVR MCT message flashes on the FMA (this message appears, when the speed index reaches Green Dot). Resume the climb phase with THR MCT. If the thrust levers are already in the FLX/MCT detent, move the thrust levers to CL and then back to MCT.
The acceleration altitude, enables the aircraft to fly with Flap 0 and at Green Dot speed that provides
the best climb gradient
ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1
Consider to relight the engine (if no damage), when
aircraft is established on the final takeoff flight path, the flight crew should continue the ECAM procedure until the STATUS page appears.
When an engine failure is detected, the FMGS produces predictions based on the engine-out configuration and ___ are deleted.
any pre-selected speeds entered in the MCDU
When an engine failure occurs during cruise, three possible strategies apply:
‐ The standard strategy
‐ The obstacle strategy
‐ The fixed speed strategy.
Pressing the EO CLR key on the MCDU restores
all engine operative predictions and performance. Reverting to one engine-out performance again is not possible.
As soon as the engine failure in cruise is recognized, the PF simultaneously:
‐ Sets all thrust levers to MCT
‐ Disconnects A/THR.
‐ Sets a HDG as appropriate and pulls
‐ Determines the engine out recovery altitude.
When ready for descent, the PF:
‐ Sets the SPEED and pulls
‐ Sets the engine out recovery altitude and pulls to engage for OPEN DES.
ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE
The flight crew should not delay to descent at high flight levels, because
close to the weight limits, the aircraft speed quickly reduces.
ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE
The A/THR is disconnected to
avoid any engine thrust reduction when selecting speed according to strategy or when pulling for OPEN DES to initiate the descent. With the A/THR disconnected, the target speed is controlled by the elevator when in OPEN DES.
ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE
STANDARD STRATEGY
The speed of ___ is chosen to ensure the aircraft is within the stabilized windmill engine relight in-flight envelope.
0.78/300 kt
ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE
The REC MAX EO Cruise altitude, which equates to LRC Engine-Out maximum FL with anti-icing off, is displayed on
MCDU PROG page (One engine out gross ceiling at long-range speed is also available in the performance application of the EFB in case of double FM failure).
ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE
STANDARD STRATEGY
When the V/S becomes less than 500 ft/min:
select V/S -500 ft/min and A/THR on. Once established at level off altitude, long-range cruise performance with one engine out may be computed with the performance application of the EFB.
ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE
OBSTACLE STRATEGY
To maintain the highest possible level due to terrain, the ___ must be adopted.
drift down procedure
The speed target in this case is green dot. The procedure is similar to the standard strategy, but as the speed target is now green dot, the rate and angle of descent are reduced.
ENGINE FAILURE DURING
CRUISE
OBSTACLE STRATEGY
The ___ page in EO condition displays the drift down ceiling
MCDU PERF CRZ
(One engine out gross ceiling at green dot speed is also available in the performance application of the EFB)
When clear of obstacles, revert to Standard Strategy.
An engine stall is
disruption of the airflow in a turbine engine
When the blades of the engine compressors stall, they are no longer able to
compress the air from the front to the rear of the engine
ENGINE STALL
In some cases, there may be a breakdown of the airflow, with the high pressure air at the end of the compressor reversing flow, and exiting from the front of the engine. If this occurs, it may result in
immediate and significant loss of thrust.
An engine stall can be due to any of the following reasons:
‐ An engine degradation (e.g. compressor blade rupture, or high wear)
‐ Ingestion of foreign objects (e.g. birds), or ice
‐ A malfunction of the bleed system
‐ A malfunction of the engine controls (e.g. fuel scheduling, or stall protection devices)
‐ A significant disturbance of the airflow (e.g. due to wake turbulence, non-appropriate use of the
thrust reverser after landing, or lightning strike).
During takeoff, and at high power settings, the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:
‐ One or more very loud bangs, usually compared to a shotgun being fired a few meters away
‐ An instant loss of thrust, or even a reverse thrust, that causes a yaw movement
‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2)
‐ An increase of the EGT
‐ Engine vibrations
‐ Flames may be visible from both ends of the engine (inlet / tail pipe)
‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.
During cruise, and at low power settings (e.g. at thrust reduction at the T/D), the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:
‐ One or more muffled bangs
‐ Slow or no thrust lever response
‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2)
‐ An increase of the EGT
‐ Engine vibrations
‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.
ENGINE STALL
Most of the FADECs have functions that:
‐ Regulate the airflow through the compressor, to prevent engine stalls
‐ Are able to detect engine stalls
‐ Try to recover from an engine stall, without flight crew action, by modifying the airflow.
The FADEC is not able to detect an engine stall in all cases. Therefore, if the flight crew detects one or a combination of the engine stall symptoms, the flight crew should
suspect an engine stall, and apply the QRH Engine Stall procedure.
If a stall occurs during the cruise phase, the flight crew shall take the time to assess the situation before applying the procedure, as most of the times the FADEC will
self-recover from the stall before any flight crew action
Engine Stall procedure (ECAM or QRH)
The flight crew first reduces thrust to idle on the affected engine.
This action reduces
differential pressure across the compressor. This helps the engine airflow to become more stable.
QRH Engine Stall
‐ The flight crew shuts down the engine if:
- The fluctuations of the engine parameters, or the high EGT, or the engine vibrations persist, or
- The symptoms of the engine stall persist at idle thrust.
QRH Engine Stall
If the engine parameters are normal:
* The flight crew selects the anti-ice on, in order to
increase the bleed demand.
This reduces the pressure at the exit of the compressor, and helps the airflow to circulate in the engine turbine from front to rear.
If the engine stall reoccurs, the flight crew keeps the engine thrust
below the stall threshold.
The flight crew should not shut down the engine if the engine stall can be avoided. The flight crew should manually control the thrust on the affected engine between idle and the identified stall threshold for the remainder of the flight.
ENGINE TAILPIPE FIRE
An engine tailpipe fire can only occur at
engine start or at engine shutdown
(excess of fuel in the combustion chamber, in the turbine or in the exhaust nozzle, that ignites)
A tailpipe fire is
internal fire in the engine, compared with an engine fire that occurs outside the engine core and gas path. No critical areas are affected in the engine in the case of a tailpipe fire.
The correct method to manage an engine tailpipe fire is to
stop the fuel flow, and to ventilate the engine
In the case of a tailpipe fire, there is no cockpit alert. The only indication can be
increasing EGT due to the fire in the turbine. Therefore, most of the time, the ground crew, cabin crew, or ATC visually detect the tailpipe fire.
In the case of a tailpipe fire, the flight crew must apply the QRH ENG TAILPIPE FIRE procedure, which requires the flight crew to:
‐ Shut down the engine, in order to stop the fuel flow
‐ Dry crank the engine, to remove the remaining fuel.
The flight crew should not use the ENG FIRE pb. This cuts off the electrical supply of the FADEC, and
stops the dry crank sequence performed by the FADEC.
The flight crew should not use the fire extinguisher, as
it does not extinguish an internal engine fire. As a first priority, the fuel flow must be stopped, and the engine must be ventilated.
If the tailpipe fire procedure does not stop the fire, or if bleed air is not easily available, the ground crew can use
a ground fire extinguisher as a last option. Ground fire extinguishing agent can cause serious corrosive damage to the engine and requires a maintenance action on the engine.
Engine vibrations are usually caused by an imbalance of the engine that can be due to many reasons such as:
‐ A deformation of one or several blades due to Foreign Object Damage (FOD), or a bird strike
‐ A rupture or a loss of one or several blades
‐ An internal engine failure (e.g. engine stall)
‐ A fan icing
High engine vibration alone does not require
engine in-flight shutdown. If the engine needs to be shutdown, other symptoms and certainly an ECAM alert will warn the flight crew, and request them to shut down the engine.
When the vibration level exceeds a certain threshold, an ECAM alert triggers and an ECAM advisory function automatically highlights the affected parameter. The ECAM alert guides the flight crew toward the
[QRH] HIGH ENGINE VIBRATION procedure
The flight crew should suspect icing if
N1 vibrations occur without variation on other engine parameters.
If the flight crew suspects icing, and if flight conditions permit, the flight crew should shed the ice with the following procedure:
‐ The flight crew disconnects the A/THR
‐ The flight crew performs several large thrust variations from idle to a thrust compatible with the flight phase.
ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE - GO-AROUND
Provided the flap lever is selected to Flap 1 or greater, ___ will engage
SRS
If SRS is not available, the initial target pitch attitude will be 12.5 °.
ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE - GO-AROUND
The lateral FD mode will be
GA TRK (or NAV if option installed)
The flight crew should trim to keep the slip indication centred. It remains yellow as long as the thrust on the remaining engine(s) is below a certain value.
With ___, the indicator becomes the blue beta target.
flap selected and above this threshold value
(This is a visual cue that the aircraft is approaching its maximum thrust capability.)
The ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT ECAM caution may be triggered after the reverser thrust is selected. This is to remind the flight crew that
one reverser is inoperative
no reversers are operative, the general recommendation is
to not select the reverser thrust during RTO and at landing.
Abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats may be due to one of the following problems:
‐ Double SFCC failure
‐ Double hydraulic failure (B+G or Y+G)
‐ Flaps/Slats jammed (operation of the WTB)
Abnormal operation of the flaps and slats has significant consequences since:
‐ The control laws may change
‐ The selected speed must be used
‐ An early stabilized approach should be preferred
‐ The approach attitudes change
‐ Approach speeds and landing distances increase ‐ The go-around procedure may have to be modified.
Should a flap/slat retraction problem occur at takeoff, the crew will
PULL the speed knob for selected speed to stop the acceleration and avoid exceeding VFE. The overspeed warning is computed according to the actual slats/flaps position.
The detection of a slat or flap failure occurs with the selection of flap lever during the approach. The crew will:
‐ Pull the speed knob for selected speed to avoid further deceleration
‐ Delay the approach to complete the ECAM procedure
‐ Refer to LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH procedure.
‐ Update the approach briefing.
LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH
In the QRH, the line, “SPD SEL…………VFE NEXT -5 kt” is designed to allow the crew to
configure the aircraft for landing whilst controlling the speed in a safe manner
LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED
The AP may be used down to ___. As the AP is not tuned for the abnormal configurations, its behavior can be less than optimum and must be monitored.
500 ft AGL
LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED
During the approach briefing, emphasis should be made of:
‐ Tail strike awareness
‐ The go-around configuration
‐ Any deviation from standard call out
‐ The speeds to be flown, following a missed approach
‐ At the acceleration altitude, selected speed must be used to control the acceleration to the
required speed for the configuration.
Consider the fuel available and the increased consumption associated with a diversion when flying with flaps and/or slats jammed. Additionally, when diverting with flaps/slats extended, cruise altitude is limited to ___.
20 000 ft
Fuel checks should be carried out when overflying a waypoint or at least every ___.
30 min
Any time an unexpected fuel quantity indication, an ECAM fuel message or an imbalance is noted, a ___ should be considered as a possible cause
fuel leak
The main steps of the [QRH] FUEL LEAK procedure are:
If the fuel leak is confirmed coming from the engine/pylon:
The affected engine is shut down to isolate the fuel leak and the fuel cross-feed valve may be used as required.
The main steps of the [QRH] FUEL LEAK procedure are:
If the fuel leak is not confirmed coming from the engine/pylon or if the leak is not located:
‐ Isolate each tank
- Associated engine is shut down in order to confirm if the leak comes from the wing tank or from the engine
‐ If the fuel quantity symmetrically decreases in both wing tanks and the fuel quantity in the center tank decreases, the fuel leak comes from the center tank or the APU feed line.
If the flight crew confirms that the fuel leak comes from the engine/pylon, the flight crew must shut down the engine in order to:
‐ Stop the leak
‐ Prevent fire hazard due to fuel leaking into the hot surfaces of the engine.
The flight crew must not use ___ in order to prevent contact between fuel and hot surfaces of engines or brakes.
the thrust reversers
The flight crew can suspect a fuel overread if:
‐ The sum of FOB and FU is significantly more than FOB at engine start, or is increasing
‐ There is an abnormal discrepancy between the fuel on board and the expected flight plan fuel
‐ The total fuel quantity abnormally increases
‐ The destination EFOB abnormally increases.
If the flight crew detects a fuel overread, or if the FUEL F.USED/FOB DISAGREE alert triggers to indicate a fuel overread, fuel management is affected. The flight crew should apply the
[QRH] FUEL OVERREAD procedure (Refer to FCOM/PRO-ABN-FUEL [QRH] FUEL OVERREAD).
FUEL OVERREAD
‐ The fuel low level ECAM alerts are still valid. These alerts are triggered by sensors that are
independent from the fuel quantity indications.
The aircraft has three continuously operating hydraulic systems:
green, blue and yellow. A bidirectional Power Transfer Unit (PTU) enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. Hydraulic fluid cannot be transferred from one system to another.
PTU PRINCIPLE
In flight, the PTU operates automatically if
differential pressure between green and yellow systems exceeds 500 PSI. This allows to cover the loss of one engine or one engine driven pump cases.
In case of reservoir low level, reservoir overheat, reservoir low air pressure, the PTU must be switched OFF as required by ECAM to avoid
PTU overheat which may occur two minutes later. Indeed, a PTU overheat may lead to the loss of the second hydraulic circuit.
When required by the ECAM, the PTU should be switched off without delay in case of:
‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR LO LVL
‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR LO AIR PR (Only if pressure fluctuates)
‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR OVHT
Single hydraulic failures have very little effect on the handling of the aircraft but will cause a degradation of the landing capability to
CAT 3 SINGLE
Dual hydraulic failures however, although unlikely, are significant due to the following consequences:
‐ Loss of AP
‐ Flight control law degradation
‐ Landing in abnormal configuration
‐ Extensive ECAM procedures with associated workload and task-sharing considerations
‐ Significant considerations for approach and landing.
DUAL HYDRAULIC FAILURES
The briefing will concentrate on safety issues since this will be a hand-flown approach with certain handling restrictions:
‐ Use of the selected speeds on the FCU
‐ Landing gear gravity extension
‐ Approach configuration and flap lever position
‐ Approach speed VAPP
‐ An early stabilized approach will be preferred
‐ Tail strike awareness
‐ Braking and steering considerations
‐ Go around call out, aircraft configuration and speed.
DUAL HYDRAULIC FAILURES
Direct law, the auto trim function is lost. However, the mean elevator position at that time is memorized, and becomes the reference for centered sidestick position. This is why, in order to ensure proper centered sidestick position for approach and landing, the procedure requires to
wait for stabilization at VAPP, before landing gear extension. If this procedure is missed, the flare and pitch control in case of go-around may be difficult.
In alternate law, the auto trim function is provided through the elevators.
To avoid unnecessary application of the L/G GRAVITY EXTENSION and the LDG WITH ABNORMAL L/G QRH procedures, the flight crew must check for the three landing gear green indications on the ECAM WHEEL SD page: at least
one green triangle on each landing gear is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked.
To confirm that the landing gear is downlocked; The flight crew must also rely also on
“LDG GEAR DN” green MEMO
If one landing gear is not downlocked, the flight crew must perform the
LDG WITH ABNORMAL L/G QRH procedure
LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G
With at least one main landing gear in the abnormal position, the ___ cannot be activated
autobrake
(ground spoilers not armed)
LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G
The anti-skid must be switched off to prevent permanent brake release because:
with one main landing gear not extended, the reference speed used by the anti-skid system is not correctly initialized
LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G
The engines should be shut down early enough to ensure that fuel is cut off prior to
nacelle touchdown, but late enough to keep sufficient authority on control surfaces in order to:
‐ Maintain runway axis
‐ Prevent nacelle contact on first touch down
‐ Maintain wing level and pitch attitude as long as possible.
The hydraulic power remains available up to approximately ___ after the shut down of the related engine.
30 s
If the Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) is lost for taxiing, the flight crew can steer the aircraft with
differential braking technique. If the flight crew does not have experience with this technique, he should preferably request a towing to return to the gate.
The COCKPIT WINDSHIELD/WINDOW CRACKED procedure requires the flight crew to check if the Inner ply is affected. To do so, the flight crew should
touch the affected glass with a pen or a finger nail to check if the crack(s) is(are) on the cockpit side (Inner ply):
‐ If there is no crack on the cockpit side: maximum flight level.
‐ If there are cracks on the cockpit side: descend to FL 230/MEA in order to reduce the ΔP to 5 PSI
The flight crew must rely on the ___ alert, even if not confirmed on the CAB PRESS SD page.
CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT
Alert can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the SD
The flight crew should perform the actions of the EMER DESCENT in two steps:
‐ First step: Apply the memory items
‐ Second step: Perform the read-&-do procedure (ECAM or QRH)
EMER DESCENT
At high flight levels, the flight crew should extend the speed brakes while monitoring the VLS. This is in order to avoid
activation of the angle of attack protection which may result in the retraction of the speed brakes and in AP disconnection.
EMER DESCENT
When in IDLE thrust, high speed and with speed brake extended, the rate of descent is approximately ___. To descend from FL 390 to FL 100, it takes approximately ___
7 000 ft/min
4 min and 40 NM.
EMER DESCENT
The flight crew should suspect structural damage in case of a loud bang, or high cabin vertical speed. If the flight crew suspects structural damage, apply both of the following:
‐ Set the SPEED/MACH pb to SPEED, to prevent an increase in the IAS, or to reduce the speed.
This action minimizes the stress on aircraft structure
‐ Carefully use the speed brakes, to avoid additional stress on aircraft structure.
If the cabin altitude goes above ___ , the flight crew must press the MASK MAN ON pb.
14 000 ft
EMER DESCENT
Finally, subsequent to an emergency descent, once the oxygen masks are removed, the flight crew should perform all of the following:
‐ Close the oxygen stowage mask compartment
‐ Press the PRESS TO RESET oxygen control slide, to deactivate the mask microphone, and to cut
off the oxygen.
EMER DESCENT
Below FL 100, the flight crew should limit the rate of descent to
approximately 1 000 ft/min, except during the approach phase.
The typical case, which may require an emergency evacuation, is
an uncontrollable on ground engine fire.
EMER EVAC
If fire remains out of control after ___ , the captain calls for the EMER EVAC procedure.
having discharged the fire agents
EMER EVAC procedure requires an additional Delta P check:
since the residual pressure sensor indicator (installed in the cabin door) is inhibited when slides are in the armed position
EVACUATION PROCEDURE
The Delta P check is therefore not applicable when:
automatic pressure control is operative, the flight crew can rely on the CPC
EMER EVAC
If the automatic pressure control systems fails during flight, the CAB PR SYS 1+2 FAULT ECAM alert requires to set the MAN V/S CTL sw to FULL UP position during final approach to cancel
any residual cabin pressure
Emergency evacuation following a rejected takeoff, the Delta P check does not apply because:
at least one automatic cabin pressure control system must be operative at departure
On ground with engines stopped, only the ___ light is operational, allowing the EMER EVAC procedure completion.
right dome
EMER EVAC procedure
When the aircraft is on battery power, the cockpit seats must be operated:
mechanically
FLIGHT CREW INCAPACITATION
Symptoms may indicate the beginning of incapacitation
incoherent speech, a pale and(or) fixed facial expression, or irregular breathing & absence of standard callouts at the appropriate time
In the case of flight crew incapacitation, the fit flight crewmember should apply the following actions:
‐ Take over and ensure a safe flight path:
‐ Inform the ATC of the emergency
‐ Take any steps possible to contain the incapacitated flight crewmember. These steps may involve cabin attendants
‐ In order to reduce the workload, consider:
* Early approach preparation and checklists reading
* Automatic Landing
* Use of radar vectoring and long approach.
‐ Land at the nearest suitable airport after consideration of all pertinent factors
‐ Arrange medical assistance onboard and after landing, providing as many details as possible
about the condition of the affected flight crewmember
‐ Request assistance from any medically qualified passenger, except for flight with only two flight
If the incapacitated flight crewmember causes interference with the handling of the aircraft,
press the sidestick pb for ___
40 seconds
includes the time necessary for AP deactivation (if AP engaged) and the time for offside sidestick deactivation
On all Airbus aircraft, engines are mounted under the wing. As a consequence a thrust increase
results in
pitch-up effect, and a thrust decrease results in a pitch-down effect
The ___ aural alert announces a low energy situation. This situation requires a flight crew action to increase the energy.
“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”
LOW ENERGY RECOVERY
This situation requires a flight crew action to increase the energy by:
Increase the thrust and/or adjust the pitch depending on the situation, until the aural alert stops.
During normal operations, the aircraft may temporarily exceed VMO/MMO due to
wind gradients.
Exceeding VMO/MMO requires maintenance inspection because:
in the case of overspeed, the aircraft may encounter vertical load factors that may exceed the aircraft limits
If the aircraft encounters significant speed variations close to VMO/MMO during flight, the following OVERSPEED PREVENTION TECHNIQUE apply.
- Keep the AP and A/THR engaged
- Select a lower target speed in order to increase the margin to VMO/MMO not below Green Dot
- Monitor the speed trend arrow on the PFD
- Use of speed brakes depending on the rate of acceleration. The length of the speed trend arrow is a good indication of the rate of acceleration.
OVERSPEED RECOVERY TECHNIQUE
The OVERSPEED alert is triggered if the speed/Mach exceeds ___, and lasts until the speed is below VMO/MMO
VMO +4 kt/MMO +M 0.006
OVERSPEED RECOVERY TECHNIQUE
In order to minimize overspeed, the flight crew should
- Extend the speed brakes
- If the A/THR is ON, keep it engaged and check that the thrust is reducing to idle
- If the A/THR is OFF, set all thrust levers to idle
In the case of severe overspeed, the AP automatically disengages and then
high speed protection activates in normal law. As a result, the aircraft encounters an automatic pitch up.
The AP does not automatically disengage as soon as the speed reaches the green bars (that represent the threshold when the high speed protection activates) on the PFD. The AP disengagement depends on
speed variations and the high speed protection logic
The flight crew must disregard the FD orders while the high speed protection is active because:
The FD orders do not take into account the high speed protection
OVERSPEED RECOVERY
The flight crew should keep the speed brakes because
use of the speed brakes is compatible with the high speed protection.
The significant speed variations near VMO/MMO and above VMO/MMO may be one of the first
indications of
possible severe turbulence
Should an overweight landing be required, a ___ , should be flown in order to configure the aircraft for an early stabilized approach.
long straight in approach, or a wide visual pattern
OVERWEIGHT LANDING
The speed will be reduced to reach ___ at runway threshold, to minimize the aircraft energy.
VLS
OVERWEIGHT LANDING
At very high weight, if VFE CONF 1 is below VLS, the flight crew must
disconnect the A/THR to decelerate to VFE CONF 1.
OVERWEIGHT LANDING
The crew will elect the landing configuration based on landing performance computation:
- If aircraft weight is below the maximum weight for go-around in CONF 3, landing will be performed
CONF full (and go-around CONF 3) as it is the preferred configuration for optimized landing
performance - If aircraft weight is above the maximum weight for go-around in CONF 3, landing will be performed
CONF 3 (and go-around CONF 1+F). The CONF 1+F meets the approach climb gradient requirement in all cases (high weights, high altitude and temperature).
The minimum go-around speed required by regulations is
1.13 VS1G
When the aircraft weight exceeds the maximum landing weight, structural considerations impose the ability to touch down at ___ without damage
360 ft/min
If vertical speed exceeds 360 ft/min at touch down, a maintenance inspection is required.
Some factors that can detract from a successful rejected takeoff are as follows:
‐ Tire damage
‐ Brakes worn or not working correctly
‐ Brakes not being fully applied
‐ Error in gross weight determination
‐ Incorrect performance calculations
‐ Incorrect runway line-up technique
‐ Initial brake temperature
‐ Delay in initiating the stopping procedure
‐ Runway friction coefficient lower than expected.
The line-up technique is very important. The pilot should use
over steer technique to minimize field length loss and consequently, to maximize the acceleration-stop distance available.
ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential from
80 kt to 1 500 ft (or 2 min after lift-off, whichever occurs first)
REJECTED TAKEOFF
To assist in the decision making process, the takeoff is divided into
low and high speeds regimes, with 100 kt being chosen as the dividing line
Above 100 kt, and below V1: the Captain should be “go-minded” and very few situations should lead to the decision to reject the takeoff:
- Fire warning, or severe damage
- Sudden loss of engine thrust
- Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will not fly safely
- Any red ECAM warning
- Any amber ECAM caution listed below:
‐ F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT
‐ ENG 1(2) FAIL
‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT
‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSE UNLOCKED
‐ ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT
In case of tire failure between V1 minus 20 kt and V1,
it is far better to get airborne, reduce the fuel load, and land with a full runway length available unless debris from the tires has caused serious engine anomalies.
Full reverse thrust may be used until coming to a complete stop. But, if there is enough runway available at the end of the deceleration, it is preferable to reduce reverse thrust when passing ___ .
70 kt
If the takeoff is rejected prior to 72 kt, the captain simultaneously reduces thrust and applies maximum pressure on both pedals because:
autobrake not active and no deployment of spoilers
After a rejected takeoff, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, release brakes prior to taxi by
disarming spoilers
RTO TECHNIQUE
Do not attempt to vacate the runway, until
It is absolutely clear that an evacuation is not necessary and that it is safe to do so.
TAKEOFF FOLLOWING RTO
In this case, the flight crew should:
‐ Reset both FDs and set FCU
‐ Restart SOP from the AFTER START checklist.
DEFINITION OF THE STALL
The stall is a condition in aerodynamics where
Angle of Attack (AOA) increases beyond a point such that the lift begins to decrease.
As per basic aerodynamic rules, the lift coefficient (CL) increases linearly with the AOA up to a point where
airflow starts to separate from the upper surface of the wing.
At and beyond CL MAX, the flight crew may observe:
‐ Buffeting, which depends on the slats/flaps configuration and increases at high altitude due to the high Mach number
‐ Pitch up effect, mainly for swept wings and aft CG. This effect further increases the AOA.
The stall will always occur at the same AOA for
given configuration, Mach number and altitude
Slats and Flaps have a different impact on the Lift coefficient obtained for a given AOA. Both Slats and Flaps create an increase in
maximum lift coefficient
INFLUENCE OF SPEED BRAKES AND ICING ON LIFT COEFFICIENT VERSUS ANGLE OF ATTACK
Speed brake extension and ice accretion ___ the maximum lift coefficient
reduce
The flight crew must apply the stall recovery procedure as soon as they recognize any of the following stall indications:
‐ Stall warnings
‐ Stall buffet
Stall warnings provide sufficient margin to alert the flight crew in advance of the:
actual stall even with contaminated wings
Buffet is recognized by airframe vibrations that are caused by
the non-stationary airflow separation from the wing surface when approaching AOAstall.
When the Mach number increases, both the AOAstall and CL MAX will:
decrease
STALL RECOVERY
‐ The immediate key action is to:
‐ The secondary action is to:
- reduce AOA
- increase energy
STALL RECOVERY
Immediate maximum thrust application upon stall recognition is not appropriate because:
for under wing mounted engines, the thrust increase generates a pitch up that may prevent the required reduction of AOA
STALL RECOVERY
If in clean configuration and below FL 200, during flight path recovery, the flight crew must
select FLAPS 1 in order to increase the margin to AOAstall.
STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
Spurious stall warnings at liftoff may be triggered in the case of:
‐ Damage to the AOA probes
‐ Ice Ridges degrading pitot and AOA
‐ Wake Vortex.
Each ADIRS has two parts ___ , that may fail independently of each other
ADR and IRS
IRS part may fail totally or may be available in ___
ATT mode
Single NAV ADR FAULT or NAV IRS FAULT are simple procedures, and only require action on the
switching panel as indicated by the ECAM.
Dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS failures will cause
loss of AP and A/THR and the flight controls revert to ALTN law.
The NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT warning is triggered and the ECAM procedure requires to switch OFF the 3 ADRs and to press the BKUP SPD/ALT pb in order to display
BUSS/DBUS and GPS altitude information.
To switch off an ADR, the flight crew must use the ADR pb. Do not use the rotary selector, because
this would also cut off the electrical supply to the IR part
The most probable reason for erroneous airspeed and/or altitude information is
obstruction of the pitot and/or static probes
The flight controls system and the flight guidance system both use this voting principle:
When the data provided by one source diverges from the average value, the systems automatically reject this source and continue
to operate normally using the remaining two sources.
Each ELAC receives speed information from
three ADRs and compares the three values. The ELACs do not use the pressure altitude.
Each FAC receives speed and pressure altitude information from
three ADRs and compares the three values.
ONE ADR OUTPUT IS ERRONEOUS AND THE TWO REMAINING ARE CORRECT
The ___ and the ___ eliminate the erroneous ADR.
ELACs & FAC and/or FMGC
The autoland capability is downgraded to CAT 3 SINGLE
TWO ADR OUTPUTS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT, AND THE REMAINING ADR IS CORRECT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT :
- AP and A/THR disconnect
- ELACs trigger the NAV ADR DISAGREE ECAM
- Flight controls revert to alternate law without high and low speed protection
- On both PFDs:
‐ The SPD LIMflag appears
‐ No VLS, no VSW and no VMAX are displayed
ONE ADR IS CORRECT, BUT THE OTHER TWO ADRS PROVIDE THE SAME ERRONEOUS OUTPUT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS PROVIDE CONSISTENT AND ERRONEOUS DATA :
The systems reject the correct ADR and continue to operate using the two erroneous but consistent ADRs
At high altitude, typically above FL 250, the cases of unreliable speed situation are mostly
temporary phenomenon.
typically disappears after few minutes, allowing to recover normal speed indications.
POTENTIAL EFFECTS ON THE BAROMETRIC ALTITUDE
If the barometric altitude is unreliable
- Flight Path Vector (FPV) and the Vertical Speed (V/S) are affected.
- ATC transponder may transmit an incorrect altitude
- Autopilot (AP) may not be able to maintain level flight.
When the DBUS is activated, ___ are still displayed so that the crew can visualize flight envelope boundaries
characteristic speeds
___ is also in charge of the Speed Monitoring Function and backup speed computation.
FAC
TWO ADR OUTPUTS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT, AND THE REMAINING ADR IS CORRECT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT :
The Speed Monitoring Function
- AP and A/THR disconnect
- Speed Monitoring Function rejects the erroneous ADR
- erroneous ADR are indicated as FAULT
- The flight controls revert to alternate law without high and low speed protection.
- FAC triggers the NAV AIR SPD STS CHANGED ECAM
ONE ADR IS CORRECT, BUT THE OTHER TWO ADRS PROVIDE THE SAME ERRONEOUS OUTPUT :
Speed Monitoring Function
- The Speed Monitoring Function rejects the two erroneous ADRs thanks to mutual comparison between speed sources and their individual monitoring
- NAV AIR SPD STS CHANGED ECAM
- two erroneous ADRs are declared FAULT
THREE ADRS PROVIDE CONSISTENT AND ERRONEOUS DATA :
Speed Monitoring Function
- detects the simultaneous and consistent fast decrease of speeds and rejects the three ADRs
- NAV AIR SPD STS CHANGED ECAM
- three erroneous ADRs are declared FAULT
- crew is advised to activate the DBUS
“UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION” QRH PROCEDURE
Rely on the STALL warning. Erroneous airspeed data does not affect the STALL warning,
because the STALL warning is based on
AOA data
“UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION” QRH PROCEDURE
The flight crew must apply the QRH procedure without delay, because flying with the memory pitch/thrust values for an extended period of time can lead to
exceed the aircraft speed limits.
When flying the aircraft with unreliable speed and/or altitude indications, it is recommended to
change only one flight parameter at a time (i.e. speed, altitude or configuration).
DIGITAL BACKUP SPEED
When DBUS is active:
The flight crew should change the aircraft configuration with wings level using back-up characteristic speeds displayed on
PFD (VMAX corresponds to VFE/VMO and VMIN corresponds to VSW).
“UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION” QRH PROCEDURE
Below FL 250, the flight crew uses the ___,
Above FL 250, the flight crew can use the ___
- reversible BUSS
‐ Pitch/Thrust tables of the QRH, See Pitch/Thrust Tables.
REVERSIBLE BACKUP SPEED SCALE (BUSS)
The flight crew adjusts the pitch and thrust to
Fly the green area of the speed scale.
The BUSS is directly based on the current AOA.
When flying with the BUSS, do not use the speed brakes because:
Speed brakes extended affects the relationship between the speed and AOA, and
therefore the BUSS may provide erroneous data.
When the reversible BUSS is active:
To retract or to extend flaps, apply the following technique:
‐ Before retracting the next flaps configuration, fly the upper part of the green band
‐ Before extending the next flaps configuration, fly the lower part of the green band.
DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE
The Radio Altimeters (RAs) provide inputs to a number of systems, including
GPWS and FWC for auto-callouts. They also supply information to the AP and A/THR modes, plus inputs to switch flight control laws at various stages
Instead of using RA information, the flight control system uses inputs from
LGCIU to determine mode switching
DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE
RA 1 + 2 FAULT
Mode switching is as follows:
‐ On approach, DIRECT LAW becomes active when the L/G is selected down and provided AP is
disconnected. At this point, “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” is displayed on the PFD.
‐ After landing, ground law becomes active when the MLG is compressed and the pitch attitude
becomes less than 2.5 °.
DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE
the consequences of the failure:
- not possible to capture the ILS using the APPR pb
- approach must be flown to CAT 1
- possible to capture the localiser using the LOC pb
- the final stages of the approach should be flown using raw data
- no auto-callouts on approach, and no “RETARD” call in the flare
- GPWS/EGPWS will be inoperative
- low energy warning is also inoperative
If the smoke or fumes are detected by the crew, without any ECAM alert, the flight crew will refer directly to
[QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure
If the AVIONICS SMOKE alert is activated, the flight crew can refer directly to
[QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure
or apply first the ECAM actions
SMOKE / FUMES DETECTION AND PROCEDURE APPLICATION
Key element is
Good coordination between cockpit and cabin crew
The [QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure implements a global philosophy that is applicable to both cabin and cockpit smoke/fumes cases. This philosophy includes the following main steps:
‐ Diversion to be anticipated
‐ Immediate actions.
The [QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure implements a global philosophy that is applicable to both cabin and cockpit smoke/fumes cases.
If smoke/fumes source not immediately isolated:
‐ Diversion initiation
‐ Smoke/fumes origin identification and fighting.
SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE Procedure Presentation in QRH
- LAND ASAP
- IMMEDIATE ACTIONS
- INITIATE DIVERSION
- BOXED ITEMS
- SOURCE IDENTIFICATION & FIGHTING
IMMEDIATE ACTIONS are common to all cases of smoke or fumes, whatever the source.
Their objectives are:
‐ Flight crew protection
‐ Avoiding any further contamination of the cockpit/cabin
‐ Communication with cabin crew.
SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING
If smoke/fumes initially come out of the cockpit’s ventilation outlets, or if smoke/fumes are
detected in the cabin, the crew may suspect
AIR COND SMOKE/FUMES
SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING
Following an identified ENG or APU failure, smoke/fumes may emanate from the faulty item through the bleed system and be perceptible in the cockpit or the cabin. In that case, it will be re-circulated throughout the aircraft, until
completely disappears from the air conditioning system.
SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING
According to the source he suspects, the crew will enter one of the 3 paragraphs:
- IF AIR COND SMOKE/FUMES SUSPECTED…
- IF CAB EQUIPMENT SMOKE/FUMES SUSPECTED…
- IF AVNCS/COCKPIT SMOKE/FUMES SUSPECTED…
SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING
___ is the most critical case
electrical fire
the flight crew must consider setting the Emergency Electrical Configuration, to shed as much equipment as possible. This is in order to attempt to isolate the smoke/fumes source.
the procedure for attempting to partially shed the electrical system was removed from the smoke/fumes procedure. This change in the procedure is to enable the flight crew to
recover the normal electrical configuration for landing, particularly to recover normal braking.
In ELEC EMER CONFIG following AVIONICS SMOKE case, the ECAM displays a specific procedure taking into account smoke detection: flight crew has voluntarily set the ELEC EMER CONFIG, the purpose of procedure is not to try to restore the generators, but to remain in electrical emergency configuration, and restore generators before landing to perform the landing in
normal electrical configuration.
[QRH] REMOVAL OF SMOKE / FUMES procedure will be completed reaching
FL 100
CARGO SMOKE
The crew should be aware that, even after successful operation of the cargo fire bottle, the CARGO SMOKE warning might persist due to
smoke detectors being sensitive to the extinguishing agent
CARGO SMOKE
If SMOKE warning is displayed on ground with the cargo compartment door OPEN,
- do not initiate an AGENT DISCHARGE
- Request the ground crew to investigate and eliminate the smoke source
CARGO SMOKE
On ground, the warning may be triggered due to
high level of humidity
