Procedures

Question 1

CROSS-COCKPIT COMMUNICATION

Each time one flight crewmember adjusts or changes information and/or equipment on the flight deck, the other flight crewmember must be informed, and an acknowledgement must be obtained.
Such adjustments and changes include:

Answer 1

‐ FMGS alterations
‐ Changes in speed or Mach
‐ Tuning navigation aids
‐ Flight path modifications
‐ System selections (e.g. anti-ice system).

Question 2

STERILE COCKPIT RULE

Answer 2

When the aircraft is below 10 000 ft, any conversation that is not essential should be avoided: This
includes conversations that take place in the cockpit, or between the flight crew and cabin crew.

Question 3

It is important to adhere to STERILE COCKPIT RULE policy, in order to

Answer 3

facilitate communication between both of the flight crew, and to ensure the effective communication of emergency or safety-related information, between flight and cabin crew members.

Question 4

Airbus highly recommends that the flight crews put and store all objects in their dedicated area in the
cockpit:

Answer 4

‐ Cups with lids in the cup holders
‐ Bottles with caps in the bottle holders
‐ Books and paper, if any, in the lateral stowage
‐ Trash in the waste bin in the lateral console
‐ Meal trays on the floor behind the flight crew. The flight attendants should collect the meal trays as
soon as possible
‐ Personal equipment properly secured in the various stowage areas
‐ Portable electronic devices properly secured in the flight document stowage, in the checklist
stowage or in the operation manual stowage

Question 5

in TRANSIT STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the

Answer 5

PARKING C/L

Question 6

in SECURED STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the

Answer 6

SECURING THE
AIRCRAFT C/L

Question 7

The flight crew performs only the items indicated by an asterisk (*) in the Standard Operating Procedures (SOP’s) when

Answer 7

there is no flight crew change and after a TRANSIT STOP. Otherwise, the flight crew performs all the items of the SOP’s.

Question 8

The objectives of the preliminary cockpit preparation are:

Answer 8

‐ To ensure that all safety checks are performed:
* The RCL pb is pressed for at least 3 s to display the cautions and warnings from the previous flight.
* The technical logbook and MEL are checked at this stage.
‐ To check the liquid levels i.e. oil, hydraulic and oxygen pressure using
* The HYD pb is pressed to check the hydraulic level
* The ENG pb is pressed to check engine oil level (Refer to FCOM/PRO-NOR-SOP-04 Before
Walkaround - ECAM Pages)
* The DOOR pb is pressed, to check the oxygen pressure level
‐ To check the position of surface control levers e.g. slats/flaps, parking brake.

Question 9

During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the flight crew must also review all OEBs applicable to the aircraft. The flight crew must pay a particular attention to

Answer 9

red OEBs, and more particularly to the red OEBs that must be applied before the ECAM procedure.

Question 10

Depending on the operational conditions and APU types, some odors may be perceived in the cabin, once the APU Bleed is set to ON. This is due to

Answer 10

possible presence of oil traces in the APU airduct.

Question 11

further reduce potential odors in the Cabin, the APU Bleed may be selected ___ minutes after APU start.

Answer 11

3.
This APU warm-up time enables the seals to reach their optimum performance and eliminates oil traces in the APU airduct.

Question 12

The ECAM DOOR/OXY SD page displays the oxygen pressure. When the oxygen pressure is below a defined threshold, _____ highlights the value. This advises the flight crew that the bottle should be refilled.

Answer 12

an amber half box

Question 13

The flight crew performs the alignment or realignment of the IRS during the preliminary cockpit preparation. This action enables

Answer 13

IRS to operate in NAV mode and to provide continuously the aircraft position.

Question 14

ADIRS OPERATIONS

The IRS alignment or realignment includes the following two steps:

Answer 14

‐ Alignment:
Gyro and accelerometers prepare for the NAV computation. ‐ Position Initialization:
Navigation starting point is set.

Question 15

COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT

During a complete alignment, IRS use gravity and the earth’s rotation to determinate the _____ and true heading, and IRS estimate a _____

Answer 15

• aircraft attitude
• current aircraft latitude

Question 16

COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT

The IR mode selectors must be OFF for more than

Answer 16

5 s.
Note: The ON BAT light comes on during 5 s.

Question 17

FAST IRS ALIGNMENT

During a fast alignment, IRS reset the

Answer 17

ground speed and some internal filters to 0, but IRS do not estimate the aircraft position.
The flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to OFF then, back to the NAV mode within 5 s.

Question 18

EXTERIOR WALKAROUND

To obtain a global assessment of the aircraft status. Any missing parts or panels will be checked
against the

Answer 18

Configuration Deviation List (CDL) for possible dispatch and any potential operational
consequences.

Question 19

FMGS PROGRAMMING

Green fields are used for

Answer 19

FMS generated data, and cannot be changed

Question 20

FMGS PROGRAMMING

Magenta characters identify

Answer 20

limits (altitude, speed or time), that FMS will attempt to meet

Question 21

FMGS PROGRAMMING

Small font signifies
Large font signifies

Answer 21

that data is FMS computed
& manually entered data.

Question 22

FMGS PROGRAMMING

INIT B should not be filled immediately after INIT A, because

Answer 22

the FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. These computations would slow down the entry procedure.

Question 23

Manual Position Initialization of the IRS:
The most appropriate coordinates for the position initialization are

Answer 23

gate coordinates

Question 24

Manual Position Initialization of the IRS:
Note: When the flight crew enters or modifies the origin airport (FROM) or the CO RTE, the MCDU INIT coordinates are reset to

Answer 24

the Airport Reference Point

Question 25

The history wind is the vertical wind profile, that has been encountered during

Answer 25

the previous descent and should be entered at this stage if it is representative of the vertical wind profile for the next flight.

Question 26

The SEC F-PLN should be used to consider

Answer 26

an alternate runway for take-off, a return to departure airfield or a routing to a take-off alternate.

Question 27

If a NAVAID is reported on NOTAM as unreliable or unserviceable, it must be deselected on the

Answer 27

MCDU DATA/POSITION MONITOR/SEL NAVAID page

Question 28

‐ INIT B The flight crew: * Inserts the expected _____ to initialize a F-PLN computation

Answer 28

ZFWCG/ZFW, and block fuel

Question 29

The trip wind is an average wind component that may be extracted from the CFP. The trip wind facility is available if

Answer 29

the wind profile has not already been entered.

Question 30

After engine start, the INIT B page is no longer available. The flight crew should use the _____ for weight and fuel data insertion

Answer 30

FUEL PRED page

Question 31

The INIT B page should not be completed immediately after INIT A, because

Answer 31

the FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. This would slow down the entry procedure.

Question 32

The thrust reduction altitude/acceleration altitude (THR RED/ACC) are set to default at

Answer 32

1 500 ft, or at a value defined by airline policy.

Question 33

The engine-out acceleration altitude must:

Answer 33

* Be at least 400 ft above airport altitude * Ensure that the net flight path is 35 ft above obstacles * Ensure that the maximum time for takeoff thrust is not exceeded.

Question 34

The flight crew uses the PERF CLB page to pre-select a speed. For example

Answer 34

"Green Dot" speed for a sharp turn after takeoff.

Question 35

Symptoms of incorrect armrest adjustment include

Answer 35

over-controlling, and not being able to make small, precise inputs.

Question 36

BRAKE CHECK When the aircraft starts to move, the PF should check the efficiency of the normal braking system by

Answer 36

gently pressing the brake pedals, to ensure that the aircraft slows down.

Question 37

CARBON BRAKE WEAR Carbon brake wear depends on

Answer 37

the number of brake applications and on brake temperature. It does not depend on the applied pressure, or the duration of the braking.

Question 38

TAXI SPEED AND BRAKING On long, straight taxiways, and with no ATC or other ground traffic constraints, the PF should allow the aircraft to

Answer 38

accelerate to 30 kt, and should then use one smooth brake application to decelerate to 10 kt. The PF should avoid continuous brake applications.

Question 39

BRAKE TEMPERATURE The maximum brake temperature limitation for takeoff ensures that,

Answer 39

in the case of a hydraulic leak, any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.

Question 40

BRAKING ANOMALIES the ACCU PRESS drops below _____, the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can, quite suddenly, become less efficient.

Answer 40

1 500 PSI

Question 41

When the fans are running, the difference between the indicated and the actual brake temperature can range from

Answer 41

50 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 100 °C) to 150 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 300 °C).

Question 42

When the indicated brake temperature is above _____, takeoff must be delayed.

Answer 42

150 °C

Question 43

Brake fans should not be used during takeoff, in order to

Answer 43

avoid Foreign Object Damage to fans and brakes.

Question 44

FLIGHT CONTROLS If this check is carried out during taxiing, it is essential that the PF

Answer 44

remains head-up throughout the procedure

Question 45

TAXI ROLL AND STEERING Before taxi, check that the amber "NWS DISC" ECAM message is off, to ensure

Answer 45

that steering is fully available.

Question 46

TILLER AND RUDDER PEDALS USE Pedals control nosewheel steering at low speed ( ___ with full pedal deflection).

Answer 46

± 6 °

Question 47

If both pilots act on the tiller or pedals, their inputs are

Answer 47

added until the maximum value of the steering angle (programmed within the BSCU) is reached.

Question 48

When the seating position is correct, the cut-off angle is ___ , and the visual ground geometry provides an obscured segment of ___

Answer 48

20 ° / 42 ft (12.5 m)

Question 49

In the event that one or more tires is/are deflated on the main landing gear, the maximum permitted steering angle will be limited by the aircraft speed. Therefore, with one tire deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering can be used. With two tires deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering angle should be limited to ___.

Answer 49

7 kt / 3 kt & 30 °

Question 50

180 DEGREES TURN ON RUNWAY IF THE PF IS THE CREWMEMBER IN THE LEFT HAND SEAT (CM1)

Answer 50

Taxi on the right hand side of the runway. Maintain a ground speed between 5 kt and 8 kt during the entire maneuver. Turn left, maintaining a 25 divergence from the runway axis. Monitor the approaching runway edge. When the CM1 is physically over the runway edge: Turn right, up to full tiller deflection If necessary, use asymmetric thrust (IDLE on ENG 2) and/or differential braking (more brake pressure on the right side) to maintain a constant speed.

Question 51

LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF If the takeoff conditions change during the taxi phase, and if the previous performance computation is no longer appropriate, the flight crew must update the takeoff data. This is the case for example in the following conditions:

Answer 51

‐ The runway in use changes, or ‐ The runway condition deteriorates, or ‐ The use of a new intersection shortens the runway length, or ‐ The wind or the temperature changes

Question 52

LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF In order to compute and crosscheck the performance data, the PF should perform one of the following:

Answer 52

‐ Stop the aircraft, or ‐ Transfer the control to the PM

Question 53

ADIRS ALIGNMENT During taxi, a good way to check a global consistency of FMGC entries (position and flight plan) is

Answer 53

to check the runway and the SID on the ND in comparison to the aircraft symbol, that indicates the current aircraft position. To do so, set the ND in ARC or NAV mode with a range 10 NM.

Question 54

In case of APU auto shut down during takeoff, the engine thrust is

Answer 54

frozen till the thrust is manually reduced. The packs revert to engine bleed which causes an increase of EGT to keep N1/EPR.

Question 55

If the takeoff is performed with one pack unserviceable, the procedure states to set the failed pack to OFF. this asymmetric bleed configuration, the N1 takeoff value is limited to the value corresponding to the

Answer 55

bleed ON configuration and takeoff performance must be computed accordingly.

Question 56

The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) computer prevents the engine stabilizing between an approximate range of

Answer 56

60 to 74 % N1, in order to protect against fan flutter. This range is called the Keep-Out-Zone, and the flight crew may notice a non-linear thrust response to thrust lever movement.

Question 57

Once the thrust is set, the PF announces the indications on the FMA. The PM must check that the thrust is set by ___ and must announce "Thrust Set".

Answer 57

80 kt

Question 58

During the take-off roll, the PM monitors the ___ to ensure early detection and appropriate decision making in the case of malfunction.

Answer 58

PFD and ENG indications

Question 59

On a normal takeoff, to counteract the ___, the PF should apply half forward or full forward sidestick (depending on wind conditions) at the start of the takeoff roll until reaching 80 kt. At this point, the input should be gradually reduced to be zero by 100 kt.

Answer 59

pitch up moment during thrust application

Question 60

The nosewheel steering authority decreases at a pre-determined rate as the groundspeed increases (no more efficiency at ___) and the rudder becomes more effective.

Answer 60

130 kt

Question 61

For crosswind takeoffs, routine use of into wind aileron is ___. In strong crosswind conditions, small lateral stick input may be used to maintain wings level, if deemed necessary due to into wind wing reaction, but avoid using large deflections, resulting in excessive spoiler deployment which increase the aircraft tendency to turn into the wind (due to high weight on wheels on the spoiler extended side), reduces lift and increases drag.

Answer 61

not necessary

Question 62

The flight crew may be surprised during takeoff roll by unexpected lateral disturbance in conditions such as:

Answer 62

‐ The presence of thermals or thermal vortices that often develop in hot and dry countries. Sometimes, these thermal streams get stronger, and create small whirlwinds referred to as "dust devils", or ‐ The jet blast of another aircraft close to the active runway, or ‐ The wind that accelerates between two buildings by "venturi" effect.

Question 63

In case of low visibility takeoff, visual cues are primary means to track the runway centerline. The ___ provides an assistance in case of expected fog patches if ILS available.

Answer 63

PFD yaw bar

Question 64

To initiate the rotation, the flight crew performs a positive backward stick input. When the rotation is initiated, the flight crew achieves a rotation rate of ___ resulting in a continuous pitch increase.

Answer 64

approximately 3 °/s

Question 65

During the rotation, the aircraft liftoff occurs at ___ of pitch, typically around 4 to 5 s after the initiation of the rotation. After the liftoff, the PF targets the required pitch attitude.

Answer 65

approximately 10 °

Question 66

A slow rotation rate or an under rotation (below takeoff pitch target) has an impact on takeoff performance

Answer 66

‐ The takeoff run and the takeoff distance increase ‐ The obstacle clearance after takeoff decreases

Question 67

EARLY ROTATION Early rotation occurs when the flight crew initiates the rotation below the appropriate VR. The possible reasons for this are:

Answer 67

* The computed VR is incorrect for the aircraft weight or flap configuration * The PF commands the rotation below VR because of gusts, windshear or an obstacle on the runway * The following factors or a combination of these factors may also lead to an aircraft auto rotation before VR: * A bumpy runway * A sudden release of forward sidestick input * The use of TOGA thrust * An aircraft not correctly trimmed.

Question 68

The first degrees of flexible thrust have an impact on maintenance costs about ___ higher than the last one.

Answer 68

5 times

Question 69

The first degrees of flexible thrust have an impact on maintenance costs about ___ higher than the last one.

Answer 69

5 times

Question 70

The configuration that provides the maximum FLEX temperature varies with the ___.

Answer 70

runway length

Question 71

On short runways, ___ usually provides the highest FLEX temperature, and the tail clearance at liftoff does not depend on the configuration.

Answer 71

CONF 3

Question 72

On medium or long runways, ___ becomes the limiting factor, and CONF 2 or CONF 1+F becomes the optimum configuration, in term of FLEX temperature.

Answer 72

the second segment limitation

Question 73

TAKEOFF PITCH TRIM SETTING The main purpose of the pitch trim setting for takeoff is to provide ___.

Answer 73

consistent rotation characteristics

Question 74

The aircraft performs a safe takeoff, provided that the pitch trim setting is:

Answer 74

within the green band on the pitch trim wheel.

Question 75

However, the pitch trim setting significantly affects the aircraft behaviour during rotation:

Answer 75

‐ With a forward CG and the pitch trim set to the nose-down limit, the PF will feel an aircraft "heavy to rotate" and aircraft rotation will be very slow in response to the normal takeoff stick input ‐ With an aft CG and the pitch trim set to the nose-up limit, the pilots will most probably have to counteract an early autorotation until VR is reached.

Question 76

CROSSWIND TAKEOFF In the TAKEOFF ROLL paragraph the PF should avoid using large deflection, which results in

Answer 76

excessive spoiler extension. A direct effect of the reduction in lift due to the extension of the spoilers on one wing will be a reduction in tail clearance and an increased risk of tail strike.

Question 77

OLEO INFLATION The correct extension of the main landing gear shock absorber (and thus the nominal increase in tail clearance during the rotation) relies on

Answer 77

the correct inflation of the oleos.

Question 78

ACTION IN CASE OF TAIL STRIKE If a tail strike occurs at takeoff,

Answer 78

flight at altitude requiring a pressurized cabin must be avoided and a return to the departure airport should be performed for damage assessment.

Question 79

At the acceleration altitude, the FD pitch mode changes from

Answer 79

SRS to CLB or OP CLB mode

Question 80

At the acceleration altitude, the speed target jumps:

Answer 80

* Either to the managed target speed e.g. speed constraint, speed limit or ECON climb speed * Or to the preselected climb speed (entered by the pilot on the MCDU PERF CLB page before takeoff).

Question 81

If green dot speed is higher than the managed target speed (e.g. speed constraint 220 kt) displayed by the magenta triangle on the PFD speed scale, the AP/FD will guide the aircraft to

Answer 81

green dot (as per the general managed speed guidance rule)

Question 82

During takeoff phase, F and S speeds are the minimum speeds for retracting the surfaces:

Answer 82

* At F speed, the aircraft accelerating (positive speed trend): retract to 1. * At S speed, the aircraft accelerating (positive speed trend): retract to 0.

Question 83

If take-off is carried out at heavy weight, two protections may intervene:

Answer 83

‐ The Automatic Retraction System (ARS) ‐ The Alpha Lock function

Question 84

THE AUTOMATIC RETRACTION SYSTEM

Answer 84

While in CONF 1+F and IAS reaches 210 kt (VFE CONF1+F is 215 kt or 225 kt on some A321, the ARS is activated. The ARS automatically retracts flaps to 0 °. The VFE displayed on the PFD change from VFE CONF1+F to VFE CONF 1. As the aircraft accelerates above S speed, the flap lever can be selected to 0. If IAS decreases below VFE CONF1+F, the flaps will not extend back to 1+F.

Question 85

THE ALPHA LOCK FUNCTION

Answer 85

The slats alpha/speed lock function will prevent slat retraction at high AOA or low speed at the moment the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 0. "A. LOCK" pulses above the E/WD Slat indication. The inhibition is removed and the slats retract when both alpha and speed fall within normal values. This is a normal situation for take-off at heavy weight.

Question 86

During the Slats/Flaps transition, the flight crew must respect the VMAX displayed on the PFD. The VMAX value displayed on the PFD speed scale is based on ___.

Answer 86

the Slats/Flaps control lever position

Question 87

During Slats/Flaps transition, the dynamic acceleration of the airplane may lead to a temporary OVERSPEED WARNING even if the current speed is out of the red and black strip displayed on the PFD. The flight crew must:

Answer 87

report any type of overspeed event.

Question 88

If the aircraft is required to level off below the acceleration altitude, ALT* engages and target speed goes to initial climb speed. The "LVR CLB" message flashes on the FMA. In this case, the crew should expect

Answer 88

a faster than normal acceleration, and be prepared to retract the flaps and slats promptly.

Question 89

The AP/FD climb modes may be either:

Answer 89

‐ Managed, or ‐ Selected.

Question 90

The managed AP/FD mode in climb is

Answer 90

CLB. Its use is recommended as long as the aircraft is cleared along the F-PLN.

Question 91

The selected AP/FD modes in climb are

Answer 91

OP CLB, V/S and EXPED

Question 92

If the crew selects a high V/S, it may happen that the aircraft is unable to climb with this high V/S and to maintain the target speed with Max Climb thrust, for performance reasons. In that case, the AP/FD will

Answer 92

guide to the target V/S, and the A/THR will command up to Max Climb thrust, in order to try to keep the target speed; but the aircraft will decelerate and its speed might reach VLS. When VLS is reached the AP will pitch the aircraft down so as to fly a V/S, which allows maintaining VLS. A triple click is generated.

Question 93

Whenever V/S is used, pilots should pay particular attention to the speed trend as

Answer 93

V/S takes precedence over speed requirements.

Question 94

The EXPED mode is used to climb with maximum vertical gradient i.e. the target speed becomes

Answer 94

green dot. Its use should be avoided above FL 250.

Question 95

The crew should be aware that altitude constraints in the MCDU F-PLN page are observed only when

Answer 95

the climb is managed, i.e. when CLB is displayed on the FMA. Any other vertical mode will disregard any altitude constraints.

Question 96

The use of low values of V/S, e.g. less than 1 000 ft/min, may be appropriate for small altitude changes as

Answer 96

it makes the guidance smoother and needs less thrust variation.

Question 97

The climb speed may be either:

Answer 97

‐ Managed, or ‐ Selected.

Question 98

The managed climb speed, computed by the FMGS, provides

Answer 98

the most economical climb profile as it takes into account weight, actual and predicted winds, ISA deviation and Cost Index (CI).

Question 99

The managed climb speed also takes into account any speed constraints, e.g.

Answer 99

the default speed limit which is 250 kt up to 10 000 ft.

Question 100

On ground, prior take-off, speed target at acceleration altitude can be pre-selected on the MCDU PERF CLIMB page. It is to be used when

Answer 100

the F-PLN has a sharp turn after take-off, when high angle of climb is required or for ATC clearance compliance.

Question 101

The speed to achieve the maximum rate of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in the shortest time, lies between

Answer 101

ECON climb speed and green dot. As there is no indication of this speed on the PFD, a good rule of thumb is to use turbulence speed to achieve maximum rate.

Question 102

The speed to achieve the maximum gradient of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in a shortest distance, is

Answer 102

green dot.

Question 103

Avoid reducing to green dot at high altitude, particularly at heavy weight, as

Answer 103

it can take a long time to accelerate to ECON mach.

Question 104

Pilots should be aware that it is possible to select and fly a speed below green dot but

Answer 104

there would be no operational benefit in doing this.

Question 105

When selected speed is used, the predictions on the F-PLN page assume the selected speed is kept till

Answer 105

the next planned speed modification, e.g. 250 kt /10 000 ft, where managed speed is supposed to be resumed. Consequently, the FM predictions remain meaningful.

Question 106

When IAS is selected in lower altitude, there is an automatic change to Mach at a specific

Answer 106

crossover altitude.

Question 107

Finally, as selected speed does not provide the optimum climb profile, it should only be used when

Answer 107

operationally required, e.g. ATC constraint or weather.

Question 108

The MCDU PERF CLB page provides predictions to a given FL in terms of time and distance assuming

Answer 108

CLB mode

Question 109

The crew should keep in mind that the use of HDG mode e.g. following ATC radar vectors, will revert CLB to

Answer 109

OP CLB and any altitude constraints in the MCDU F-PLN page will not be observed unless they are selected on the FCU.

Question 110

In some specific cases, the FMS Go-Around phase may be unduly activated. This situation may be encountered after takeoff if

Answer 110

the aircraft is above the ACC ALT and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to TOGA detent with at least CONF 1.

Question 111

In UNDUE ACTIVATION OF GO-AROUND PHASE situation, the flight crew should do either of the following in order to activate the CLIMB phase:

Answer 111

‐ Insert a NEW DEST (different from the current DEST), or ‐ Select the ALTN destination.

Question 112

If the aircraft is cleared to a lower cruise flight level than the pre-planned cruise flight level displayed on MCDU PROG page, the ___ will not be targeted.

Answer 112

cruise Mach number

Question 113

When at cruise FL, the AP altitude control is soft. This means that

Answer 113

the AP will allow small altitude variation around the cruise altitude (typically ± 50 ft) to keep cruise Mach before a readjustment of thrust occurs. This optimizes the fuel consumption in cruise.

Question 114

When reaching cruise FL, Wind entries should be made at waypoints when

Answer 114

there is a difference of either 30 ° or 30 kt for the wind data and 5 °C for temperature deviation. This will ensure that the FMS fuel and time predictions are as accurate as possible.

Question 115

STEP CLIMB If at the first waypoint beyond the step, the CFP provides the wind at FL 350 but not at FL 310, it is recommended to insert the same wind at FL 310 as the one at

Answer 115

FL 350. This is due to wind propagation rules, which might affect the optimum FL computation.

Question 116

ETP function should be used to assist the crew in

Answer 116

making a decision should an en-route diversion be required.

Question 117

Each time an ETP is sequenced, the crew should

Answer 117

insert the next suitable diversion airfield.

Question 118

The ETP should be inserted in the SEC F-PLN as

Answer 118

PD (Place/Distance) and the route to diversion airfield should be finalized. By programming a potential en-route diversion, the crew would reduce their workload should a failure occur. This is particularly true when terrain considerations apply to the intended diversion route.

Question 119

When an ETP is sequenced, the crew will:

Answer 119

‐ Access the ETP page ‐ Insert the next applicable diversion airfield with associated wind ‐ Read new ETP ‐ Insert new ETP as a PD ‐ Copy active on the SEC F-PLN ‐ Insert the new diversion as New Dest in the SEC F-PLN from new ETP.

Question 120

CLOSEST AIRPORT For diversion purpose, the crew can also use the CLOSEST AIRPORT page which provides valuable fuel/time estimates to the ___ closest airports from the aircraft position, as well as to an airport the crew may define. The fuel and time predictions are a function of the average wind between the aircraft and the airport.

Answer 120

four

Question 121

If ATC gives a DIR TO clearance to a waypoint far from present position, the crew will use the ABEAM facility. This facility allows both

Answer 121

a better crew orientation and the previously entered winds to be still considered

Question 122

The Cost Index (CI) is used to take into account the relationship between

Answer 122

fuel and time related costs in order to minimize the trip cost.

Question 123

The CI is calculated by the airline for each sector. From an operational point of view, the CI affects

Answer 123

the speeds (ECON SPEED/MACH) and cruise altitude (OPT ALT). CI=0 corresponds to maximum range whereas the CI=999 corresponds to minimum time.

Question 124

The CI is a strategic parameter which applies to the whole flight. However, the CI can be modified by the crew in flight for valid strategic operational reasons. For example, if the crew needs to reduce the speed for the entire flight to comply with curfew requirements or fuel management requirements (XTRA gets close to 0), then it is appropriate to

Answer 124

reduce the CI.

Question 125

The ___ can be used to check the predictions associated with new CI.

Answer 125

SEC F-PLN

Question 126

The cruise speed may be either:

Answer 126

‐ Managed, or ‐ Selected.

Question 127

When the cruise altitude is reached, the A/THR operates in SPEED/MACH mode. The optimum cruise Mach number is automatically targeted. Its value depends on:

Answer 127

‐ CI ‐ Cruise flight level ‐ Temperature deviation ‐ Weight ‐ Headwind component.

Question 128

The crew should be aware that the optimum Mach number will vary according to the above mentioned parameters, e.g.

Answer 128

it will increase with an increasing headwind, e.g. +50 kt head wind equates to M +0.01.

Question 129

Should ATC require a specific time over a waypoint, the crew can perform

Answer 129

a vertical revision on that waypoint and enter a time constraint. The managed Mach number would be modified accordingly to achieve this constraint. If the constraint can be met within a tolerance, a magenta asterix will be displayed on the MCDU; if the constraint cannot be met, an amber asterix will be displayed. Once the constrained waypoint is sequenced, the ECON Mach is resumed.

Question 130

At high altitude, the speed should not be reduced below GREEN DOT as this may create a situation where

Answer 130

it is impossible to maintain speed and/or altitude as the increased drag may exceed the available thrust.

Question 131

FACTORS THAT CAUSE A SPEED DECAY DURING CRUISE

Answer 131

‐ A large and continuous increase in tailwind or decrease in headwind, in addition to an increase in the OAT, that results in a decrease of the REC MAX FL ‐ A large downdraft, when the flight crew flies (parallel and) downwind in a mountainous area, due to orographic waves. Without sufficient thrust margin, the flight crew may notice that aircraft speed decays, but the REC MAX FL is not modified.

Question 132

THRUST MARGIN AND EXTERNAL PARAMETERS The flight crew must be aware that at high altitude, the thrust margin ___ is limited.

Answer 132

(difference between the thrust in use and the maximum available thrust)

Question 133

The REC MAX FL indicated in the PROG page of the MCDU ___ when the OAT increases.

Answer 133

decreases

Question 134

The nearer the aircraft is to the REC MAX FL, the ___ the thrust margin.

Answer 134

smaller

Question 135

GREEN DOT SPEED AS A REFERENCE The optimum lift/drag speed is the ___.

Answer 135

GD speed

Question 136

The GD speed uses the lowest quantity of thrust necessary to maintain ___

Answer 136

the required/desired altitude

Question 137

If aircraft speed is below GD speed and continues to decrease, even with the maximum available thrust in use, if the flight crew maintains the current altitude, the angle of attack will ___

Answer 137

further increase.

Question 138

The nearer the aircraft is to the REC MAX FL, the smaller is the thrust margin that the flight crew has to manage a speed decay during cruise. If the aircraft speed goes below GD speed, with the maximum available thrust in use, the only way for the flight crew to avoid an increase in the angle of attack is to

Answer 138

descend

Question 139

REC MAX FL reflects the present engine and wing performance and does not take into account the cost aspect. It provides a ___ buffet margin.

Answer 139

0.3 g

Question 140

If the crew inserts a FL higher than REC MAX into the MCDU, it will be accepted only if it provides a buffet margin greater than ___.

Answer 140

0.2 g / Otherwise, it will be rejected and the message "CRZ ABOVE MAX FL" will appear on the MCDU scratchpad. This message may also be triggered in case of temperature increase leading the aircraft to fly above the REC MAX FL.

Question 141

Unless there are overriding operational considerations, e.g. either to accept a cruise FL higher than REC MAX or to be held significantly lower for a long period, ___ should be considered as the upper cruise limit.

Answer 141

REC MAX

Question 142

OPT FL displayed on the MCDU is the cruise altitude for

Answer 142

minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown and should be followed whenever possible. It is important to note that the OPT FL displayed on the PROG page is meaningful only if the wind and temperature profile has been accurately entered.

Question 143

For each Mach number, there will be a different OPT FL. Should an FMGS failure occur, the crew should refer to the ___ to determine the OPT FL.

Answer 143

FCOM or QRH

Question 144

From a cost point of view, it is better to climb to a higher cruise altitude when aircraft weight permits, because the ___ increases when fuel is consumed during the flight. This technique is referred to as a Step Climb.

Answer 144

optimum altitude

Question 145

In order to determine the optimum location of the next FL change, the flight crew uses the OPTIMUM STEP POINT function on the MCDU STEP ALTS page which is either accessed from the

Answer 145

MCDU F-PLN/VERT REV page or the MCDU PERF CRZ page.

Question 146

The OPT STEP computation is accurate if the flight crew accurately entered the

Answer 146

vertical wind profile.

Question 147

It can be advantageous to request an initial cruise altitude above the OPT FL, if altitude changes are difficult to obtain on specific routes. This minimizes the possibility of

Answer 147

being held at a low altitude and in high fuel consumption condition for long periods of time. The flight crew should compare the requested/cleared cruise altitude to the REC MAX FL. Before the flight crew accepts an altitude above the OPT FL, they should determine if this FL will remain acceptable considering the projected flight conditions such as turbulence, standing waves or temperature changes.

Question 148

Fuel freeze refers to the formation of wax crystals suspended in the fuel, which can accumulate when fuel temperature is below the ___ and can prevent proper fuel feed to the engines.

Answer 148

freeze point (-47 °C for jet A1)

Question 149

Fuel temperature will slowly reduce towards TAT. The rate of cooling of fuel can be expected to be in the order of

Answer 149

3 °C per hour with a maximum of 12 °C per hour in the most extreme conditions.

Question 150

If fuel temperature approaches the minimum allowed, the ECAM outputs a caution. Consideration should be given to achieving a higher TAT:

Answer 150

* Descending or diverting to a warmer air mass may be considered. Below the tropopause, a 4 000 ft descent gives a 7 °C increase in TAT. In severe cases, a descent to as low as 25 000 ft may be required. * Increasing Mach number will also increase TAT. An increase of M 0.01 produces approximately 0.7 °C increase in TAT.

Question 151

In order to assess the landing performance, the flight crew should follow the two main steps:

Answer 151

1. Identify the Braking Performance Level with the RCAM for RWY COND selection in the LDG PERF application 2. Calculate the Landing Performance with the LDG PERF application. Consider a margin of 15 % (Factored In-Flight Landing Distance), except under abnormal operations.

Question 152

USE OF REVERSE THRUST When the runway is wet or contaminated, Airbus recommends the use of:

Answer 152

maximum reverse thrust.

Question 153

To avoid landing with unduly high autobrake settings, the FLD with autobrake may exceed the LDA as long as all of the following conditions are satisfied:

Answer 153

‐ The RWYCC is 5 or 6 ‐ The LD with autobrake is less than the LDA ‐ The FLD with maximum manual braking is less than the LDA.

Question 154

When information is provided in the non-GRF SNOWTAM format, or any other local format, the flight crew should

Answer 154

use the RCAM to determine the appropriate input parameters for the performance computation.

Question 155

The purpose of the RCAM is

Answer 155

to provide the flight crew with an identification method of an appropriate Braking Performance Level, if it is not provided by the airport.

Question 156

The RCAM provides 6 Braking Performance Levels:

Answer 156

‐ 6 - Dry ‐ 5 - Good ‐ 4 - Good to Medium ‐ 3 - Medium ‐ 2 - Medium to Poor ‐ 1 - Poor

Question 157

USE OF THE RCAM The flight crew makes a primary assessment based on Runway Condition information (i.e. runway state, contaminant type, depth, temperature). This results in a primary Braking Performance Level. Then, the flight crew downgrades this primary Braking Performance Level, if:

Answer 157

‐ A Special AIREP is available and this AIREP corresponds to a lower Braking Performance Level ‐ A SNOWTAM includes a lower RWYCC, or the ESF corresponds to a lower Braking Performance Level ‐ Complementary information is available and is related to a possible degradation of the Runway Condition or braking action.

Question 158

In the following example, the reported Runway Condition is wet, and the AIREP is "Good to Medium": 1. The primary assessment based on Runway Condition information results in ___ 2. The downgrade based on Reported Braking Action results in ___

Answer 158

"5 - Good" "4 - Good to Medium"

Question 159

Operations on hail covered surfaces are not recommended due

Answer 159

to the risk of engine ingestion and airframe damage.

Question 160

If the flight crew downgrades the braking performance assessment after they consider additional information, they should also downgrade the

Answer 160

maximum crosswind value.

Question 161

In the case of strong or gusty crosswind above 20 kt, VAPP should be

Answer 161

at least VLS +5 kt; the 5 kt increment above VLS may be increased up to 15 kt at the flight crew's discretion.

Question 162

RISK OF DEGRADED RUNWAY CONDITIONS If meteorological conditions may change, or under active precipitation, the flight crew should consider

Answer 162

a backup assessment of the in-flight landing performance. This assessment should take into account the worst probable Braking Performance Level.

Question 163

The airport can downgrade any RWYCC to any lower RWYCC. It should not report any RWYCC 0, as in that case,

Answer 163

the runway must be closed.

Question 164

In some situations, the airport may report a better RWYCC than the primary one obtained from the RCAM. The maximum upgraded RWYCC is ___.

Answer 164

3

Question 165

The ___ should never upgrade an RWYCC on their own initiative.

Answer 165

flight crew

Question 166

DIFFERENT RWYCC ON DIFFERENT THIRDS The flight crew should use the ___ RWYCC for the landing performance assessment, unless a specific operator policy applies.

Answer 166

worst

Question 167

EXAMPLES OF LANDING PERFORMANCE CODE - LEVEL ASSESSMENT

Answer 167

RUNWAY CONTAMINATED BY COMPACTED SNOW, OAT -10 °C RUNWAY COVERED BY LESS THAN 3 MM (1/8 IN) OF WATER BUT HEAVY RAIN WITH STORM CELLS IN THE VICINITY ARE REPORTED RUNWAY COVERED BY TREATED ICE (COLD AND DRY) WITH AN ESTIMATED SURFACE FRICTION GOOD OR RUNWAY CONDITION CODE 3

Question 168

Two different factors affect the life of carbon brakes:

Answer 168

‐ The wear of the disks ‐ The oxidation of the disks.

Question 169

The oxidation may degrade rapidly the carbon brakes and may cause the rupture of a brake disk. The main cause of oxidation is

Answer 169

the repetitive high temperature of the brakes (particularly above 400 °C). Therefore, the flight crew should preferably use autobrake LO when performance permits.

Question 170

The flight crew should obtain the latest information for landing (weather, runway state, braking action, etc.) at the latest

Answer 170

15 min prior to descent.

Question 171

T/D AND PROFILE COMPUTATION The FMGS calculates the T/D point backwards from

Answer 171

a position 1 000 ft on the final approach with speed at VAPP. It takes into account any descent speed and altitude constraints and assumes managed speed is used. The descent path is computed as an idle segment.

Question 172

T/D AND PROFILE COMPUTATION If the STAR includes a holding pattern, it is not considered for T/D or fuel computation. This T/D is displayed on the ND track as

Answer 172

a white symbol

Question 173

MANAGED DESCENT SPEED PROFILE The managed speed is equal to:

Answer 173

‐ The ECON speed (which may have been modified by the flight crew on the PERF DES page before entering DESCENT phase or, during DESCENT phase), or ‐ The speed constraint or limit when applicable.

Question 174

TOD AND PROFILE COMPUTATION The first segment of the descent will always be idle segment until the first altitude constraint is reached. Subsequent segments will be

Answer 174

"geometric", i.e. the descent will be flown at a specific angle, taking into account any subsequent constraints

Question 175

With Descent Profile Optimization option (DPO), the idle segment assumes

Answer 175

given managed speed flown at idle thrust. This gives less flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary.

Question 176

TOD AND PROFILE COMPUTATION The idle segment assumes a given managed speed flown with

Answer 176

idle thrust plus a small amount of thrust. This gives some flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary. During idle segment, the A/THR commands THR IDLE or depending on FMGS standard, MACH/SPEED. During geometric segment, the A/THR commands MACH/SPEED.

Question 177

The managed DES mode guides the aircraft along the FMS pre-computed descent profile, as long as it flies along the lateral F-PLN: i.e. DES mode is available if NAV is engaged. As a general rule when DES mode is used, the descent is monitored using:

Answer 177

‐ The VDEV called "yoyo" on the PFD and the associated Latch symbol, and ‐ The VDEV digital value on the FMS PROG page, and ‐ The level arrow on the ND.

Question 178

When OP DES or V/S modes are used, the descent is monitored using

Answer 178

the Energy Circle, (displayed if HDG or TRK modes and indicating the required distance to descend, decelerate and land from present position) and the level arrow on the ND. When the aircraft is not far away from the lateral F-PLN (small XTK), the "yoyo" on the PFD is also a good indicator.

Question 179

MANAGED DESCENT MODE The managed descent profile from high altitude is approximately ___

Answer 179

2.5 °

Question 180

When in DES mode, the FMGS gives priority to the

Answer 180

vertical profile over the speed management.

Question 181

Therefore, if the aircraft is on the profile and the speed increases with the engines already at idle the aircraft will accelerate. In such situation, the flight crew should

Answer 181

use the speedbrakes as necessary to manage the aircraft speed, if required. The AP protection will prevent the aircraft from exceeding VMO/MMO. In such situation the aircraft will leave the vertical profile to decelerate.

Question 182

To avoid overshooting the computed descent path, it is preferable to

Answer 182

push the FCU ALT selector a few miles prior to the calculated T/D. This method will ensure a controlled entry into the descent and is particularly useful in situations of high cruise Mach number or strong upper winds.

Question 183

DESCENT INITIATION If the descent is delayed, speed should be

Answer 183

reduced towards green dot, and when cleared for descent, the flight crew will push for DES and push for managed speed. The speed reduction prior to descent will enable the aircraft to recover the computed profile more quickly as it accelerates to the managed descent speed.

Question 184

___ is automatically selected when HDG or TRK mode is selected by the flight crew, while in DES mode

Answer 184

V/S mode

Question 185

In OP DES mode, the A/THR commands ___ and the speed is controlled by the ___.

Answer 185

THR IDLE / THS

Question 186

If the flight crew wishes to increase the rate of descent, OP DES mode can be used, selecting a higher speed. Speedbrake is very effective in increasing descent rate but should be used with caution at high altitude due to

Answer 186

the associated increase in VLS.

Question 187

DESCENT PROFILE the DES mode operates within a speed range which can go up to ___ depending on the FMGS standard.

Answer 187

VMO-5 kt as upper limit and MANAGED SPD-20 kt as lower limit (limited by VLS).

Question 188

Whenever holding is anticipated, it is preferable to

Answer 188

maintain cruise level and reduce speed to green dot, with ATC clearance, to minimize the holding requirement.

Question 189

If a hold is to be flown, provided NAV mode is engaged and the speed is managed, ___ will occur to achieve the hold speed when entering the holding pattern.

Answer 189

an automatic speed reduction

Question 190

HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION The default hold speed is the lowest of the following:

Answer 190

‐ Maximum Endurance speed ‐ ICAO limit holding speed ‐ Speed constraint (if any).

Question 191

HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION When no specific speed limit applies, the default hold speed is

Answer 191

the Maximum Endurance speed, which is approximately equal to Green Dot and provides the lowest hourly fuel consumption.

Question 192

If the Maximum Endurance speed is greater than the ICAO or state maximum holding speed, the crew should

Answer 192

select flap 1 below 20 000 ft and fly S speed.

Question 193

HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION Fuel consumption will be increased when holding in anything other than

Answer 193

clean configuration and Maximum Endurance speed

Question 194

IN THE HOLDING PATTERN The holding pattern is not included in the descent path computation since

Answer 194

the FMGS does not know how many patterns will be flown.

Question 195

When the holding fix is sequenced, the FMGS assumes that

Answer 195

only one holding pattern will be flown and updates predictions accordingly. the VDEV indicates the vertical deviation between current aircraft altitude and the altitude at which the aircraft should cross the exit fix in order to be on the descent profile.

Question 196

The DES mode guides the aircraft down at ___ whilst in the holding pattern until reaching the cleared altitude or altitude constraint.

Answer 196

-1 000 ft/min

Question 197

When in the holding pattern, LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is displayed on:

Answer 197

the MCDU HOLD page

Question 198

LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL predictions are based upon the fuel policy requirements specified on the MCDU FUEL PRED page with

Answer 198

no extra fuel, assuming the aircraft will divert

Question 199

The crew should be aware that LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is computed with defined assumptions e.g.:

Answer 199

‐ Aircraft weight being equal to landing weight at primary destination ‐ Flight at FL 220 if distance to ALTN is less than 200 NM, otherwise FL 310 performed at maximum range speed. ‐ Constant wind (as entered in alternate field of the DES WIND page). ‐ Constant delta ISA (equal to delta ISA at primary destination) ‐ Airway distance for a company route, otherwise direct distance.

Question 200

To exit the holding pattern, the crew should select either:

Answer 200

‐ IMM EXIT (The aircraft will return immediately to the hold fix, exit the holding pattern and resume its navigation), or ‐ HDG if radar vectors, or ‐ DIR TO if radar vectors

Question 201

DISCONTINUED APPROACH The discontinued approach is an alternative technique to the GO AROUND procedure to interrupt an approach when

Answer 201

the aircraft is at or above the selected FCU altitude. Contrary to the GO AROUND procedure, the discontinued approach technique does not require the flight crew to set the thrust levers to TOGA detent.

Question 202

DISCONTINUED APPROACH The flight crew should initiate the discontinued approach technique with the callout:

Answer 202

“CANCEL APPROACH”

Question 203

DISCONTINUED APPROACH The first action of the flight crew is to disengage and disarm any AP/FD approach mode, by pressing

Answer 203

APPR pb or LOC pb

Question 204

When in NAV mode, the F-PLN will sequence automatically. In HDG/TRK mode, the F-PLN waypoints will sequence automatically only if

Answer 204

the aircraft flies close to the planned route.

Question 205

If ATC provides radar vectors and automatic waypoint sequencing does not occur, the flight crew should use the DIR TO RADIAL IN function, or delete the FROM waypoint on the F-PLN page until

Answer 205

the next likely waypoint to be overflown is displayed as the TO waypoint on the ND. This ensures: ‐ A proper F-PLN sequencing ‐ A comprehensive ND display ‐ An assistance for lateral interception ‐ The VDEV to be computed on reasonable distance assumptions.

Question 206

F-PLN SEQUENCING ‐ DIR TO RADIAL IN must not be used beyond the Final Descent Point, in order to ensure that

Answer 206

the vertical profile in final is unchanged.

Question 207

DECELERATED APPROACH This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches

Answer 207

1 000 ft in the landing configuration at VAPP. In most cases, this equates to the aircraft being in CONF 1 and at S speed at the FDP. This is the preferred technique for an approach using vertical managed guidance. The deceleration pseudo waypoint assumes a decelerated approach technique.

Question 208

EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches the FDP in the landing configuration at VAPP. The pilot should enter VAPP as a speed constraint at the FDP to get

Answer 208

a valuable deceleration pseudo waypoint and to ensure a timely deceleration.

Question 209

DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE To achieve a constant deceleration and to minimize thrust variation, the crew should extend the next configuration when

Answer 209

reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt (IAS must be lower than VFE next), e.g. when the speed reaches green dot +10 kt, the crew should select CONF 1.

Question 210

DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE Next configuration when reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt technique, the mean deceleration rate will be approximately

Answer 210

10 kt/NM in level flight. This deceleration rate will be twice i.e. 20 kt/NM, with the use of the speedbrakes.

Question 211

DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE speed below the maneuvering speed of the present configuration may be selected provided it is

Answer 211

above VLS+ 5 kt

Question 212

In certain circumstances, e.g. tail wind or high weight, the deceleration rate may be insufficient. In this case, the landing gear may be lowered, preferably below

Answer 212

220 kt (to avoid gear doors overstress), and before selection of Flap 2.

Question 213

Speedbrakes can also be used to increase the deceleration rate but the crew should be aware of:

Answer 213

‐ The increase in VLS with the use of speedbrakes ‐ The limited effect at low speeds ‐ The speed brake auto-retraction when selecting CONF FULL (A320) or CONF 3 (A321only)

Question 214

FINAL APPROACH USE OF A/THR The flight crew should use the A/THR for approaches as it provides accurate speed control. The PF should

Answer 214

keep the hand on the thrust levers so as to be prepared to react if needed.

Question 215

FINAL APPROACH USE OF A/THR During final approach, the managed target speed moves along the speed scale as a function of

Answer 215

wind variation. If ATC gives a new wind for landing, the flight crew will update it on MCDU PERF APPR page.

Question 216

If the PF uses manual thrust for landing, the PF should disconnect the A/THR at

Answer 216

1 000 ft AAL at the latest

Question 217

The pilot should disconnect the autopilot early enough to resume manual control of the aircraft and to evaluate the ___. During crosswind conditions, the pilot should avoid any tendency to ___

Answer 217

drift before flare & drift downwind

Question 218

During crosswind conditions, Some common errors include:

Answer 218

‐ Descending below the final path, and/or ‐ reducing the drift too early.

Question 219

If the ATC clears for approach at a significant distance, e.g. 30 NM, the flight crew should be aware that the G/S may be perturbed and CAT 1 will be displayed on FMA till

Answer 219

valid Radio Altimeter signal is received.

Question 220

GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE In order to get the best rate of descent when cleared by ATC and below the limiting speeds, the flight crew should

Answer 220

lower the landing gear and select flaps as required (at least CONF 2 should be selected to ensure that the aircraft speed will not increase). Speedbrakes may also be used.

Question 221

GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE The following procedure must only be applied when

Answer 221

established on the localizer

Question 222

GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE When cleared to intercept the glide slope, the flight crew should:

Answer 222

‐ Press the APPR pb on FCU and confirm G/S is armed and LOC engaged, monitor the vertical interception ‐ Select the FCU altitude above aircraft altitude to avoid unwanted ALT* engagement ‐ Select V/S 1 500 ft/min initially. V/S in excess of 2 000 ft/min will result in the speed increasing towards VFE.

Question 223

The Decision Height (DH) is the

Answer 223

wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated unless appropriate visual reference has been established. The DH is based on RA.

Question 224

The Alert Height (AH) is the

Answer 224

height above the runway, based on the characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail-operational automatic landing system, above which a CATIII approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment.

Question 225

The AH concept is relevant when ___ is displayed on FMA.

Answer 225

CAT 3 DUAL

Question 226

On single aisle Airbus family, the AH =

Answer 226

100 ft

Question 227

CAT 3 SINGLE is announced when the airborne systems are fail passive which means that

Answer 227

single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude. Manual flight is then required. This minimum DH is 50 ft.

Question 228

CAT 3 DUAL is announced when

Answer 228

airborne systems are fail-operational. In case of a single failure, the AP will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system.

Question 229

CAT 3 DUAL In the event of a failure below the AH, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by

Answer 229

remaining part of the automatic system. In that case, no capability degradation is indicated. Such a redundancy allows CAT III operations with or without DH.

Question 230

In addition to the normal flight preparation, the following preparation must be performed when CAT II or CAT III approach is planned:

Answer 230

‐ Ensure that destination airport meets CAT II or CAT III requirements ‐ Check aircraft required equipment for CAT 2 or CAT 3 in QRH ‐ Check that crew qualification is current ‐ Consider extra fuel for possible approach delay ‐ Consider weather at alternate

Question 231

The failures that may affect the aircraft's CAT 2 or CAT 3 capability are listed in the QRH. Most of these failures are monitored by

Answer 231

FMGS and the landing capability will be displayed on the FMA once the APPR pb is pressed

Question 232

There are a number of failures which affect the aircraft's landing capability which are not monitored by the FMGS and, consequently, not reflected on the FMA. It is very important, therefore, that the crew refer

Answer 232

QRH to establish the actual landing capability if some equipment are listed inoperative.

Question 233

The crew must realise the importance of eye position during low visibility approaches and landing. A too low seat position may

Answer 233

reduce the visual segment

Question 234

As a rule of thumb, an incorrect seating position which reduces the cut-off angle by 1 ° reduces the visual segment by

Answer 234

approximately 10 m (30 ft)

Question 235

The use of landing lights at night in low visibility can be detrimental to the acquisition of visual reference. ___ may actually reduce visibility.

Answer 235

Reflected lights from water droplets or snow

Question 236

Should a failure occur above 1 000 ft RA, all ECAM actions (and DH amendment if required) should be completed before reaching ___, otherwise a go-around should be initiated.

Answer 236

1 000 ft RA

Question 237

The PF supervises the approach (trajectory, attitude, speed) and takes appropriate decision at DH or in case of failure. The PF announces ___, when displayed on FMA.

Answer 237

"LAND"

Question 238

The PM is head down throughout the automatic approach and automatic landing. The PM monitors:

Answer 238

‐ The FMA and calls all mode changes below 350 ft as required (i.e. after PF calls "LAND") ‐ The Auto call out ‐ The aircraft trajectory or attitude exceedance ‐ Any failures. The PM should be go-around minded.

Question 239

AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING - Below ___, data coming from the FMS is frozen e.g.: ILS tune inhibit ‐ Below ___, the FCU is frozen ‐ At ___, LAND must be displayed on FMA. This ensures correct final approach guidance.

Answer 239

700 ft RA 400 ft RA 350 ft

Question 240

AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING ‐ Below 200 ft, the AUTOLAND warning is triggered if:

Answer 240

* Both APs trip off * Excessive beam deviation is sensed * Localizer or glide slope transmitter or receiver fails * A RA discrepancy of at least 15 ft is sensed.

Question 241

AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING ‐ FLARE comes at ___ ‐ THR IDLE comes at ___ ‐ RETARD auto call out comes at ___ for autoland as an order (Instead of 20 ft for manual landing as a reminder).

Answer 241

40 ft 30 ft 10 ft

Question 242

If a failure occurs prior to reaching the AH, a go-around will be initiated. A go-around must nevertheless be performed if

Answer 242

AUTOLAND warning is triggered below AH.

Question 243

A late go-around may result in ground contact. If touch down occurs after TOGA is engaged, the AP remains engaged in that mode and A/THR remains in TOGA. The ___ are inhibited.

Answer 243

ground spoilers and auto-brake

Question 244

If visual references are lost after touch down, a go-around should

Answer 244

not be attempted. The roll-out should be continued with AP in ROLL OUT mode down to taxi speed.

Question 245

For CAT II approaches, autoland is recommended. If manual landing is preferred, the PF will take-over at

Answer 245

80 ft at the latest. This ensures a smooth transition for the manual landing.

Question 246

IDENTIFICATION OF FINAL DESCENT POINT It is recommended to arm FINAL APP mode when

Answer 246

TO waypoint is the FDP

Question 247

If the green solid line does not intercept the ___, APP NAV mode will not engage.

Answer 247

PRE NAV engagement path

Question 248

VDEV becomes active and represents the vertical deviation, which may include a level segment. The VDEV/brick scale will only be displayed if

Answer 248

ILS or LS pb is not pressed. If the ILS or LS pb is pressed by mistake, the V/DEV will flash in amber on the PFD.

Question 249

In some NPAs, the final approach flies an ___ segment from one altitude constraint to another, followed by a level segment. This is materialized by a magenta level off symbol on ND followed by a blue start of descent.

Answer 249

"idle descent"

Question 250

When the aircraft reaches the minima, the PM either monitors or announces “MINIMUM”. The current altitude value becomes

Answer 250

amber

Question 251

Keeping the AP/FD below minima when visual references are acquired is highly valuable in the following conditions:

Answer 251

‐ High minima above ground level ‐ Marginal weather conditions.

Question 252

When the FINAL APP mode is used for approach, the FDs provide lateral and vertical managed guidance down to

Answer 252

MAP. The flight crew can keep the AP/FD engaged below minima.

Question 253

When the FINAL APP mode is used for approach, the guidance may not be relevant especially in the following cases:

Answer 253

‐ MAP not at the RWY threshold and final segment not aligned with the runway track (final segment does not cross the RWY threshold) ‐ Strong offset between final segment and runway track.

Question 254

At the MAP or Minimum Use Height of the AP: The FMS invalidates the vertical profile at

Answer 254

MAP. The FDs revert from FINAL APP to HDG V/S mode.

Question 255

During NPA, the flight crew must disconnect the AP no later than

Answer 255

MAP or the Minimum Use Height of AP, whichever occurs first

Question 256

COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum OAT. Below this temperature,

Answer 256

the error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in temperature.

Question 257

COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS As it is not authorized to make these altitude corrections to the final approach segment of the FM Flight Plan (F-PLN) through the MCDU, it is not possible to use FINAL APP when OAT is below this minimum OAT. The flight crew must then use

Answer 257

selected vertical guidance.

Question 258

The Final Path Angle (FPA) should be preset on the FCU ___ prior to the FDP at the latest. A smooth interception of the final approach path can be achieved by pulling the FPA selector ___ prior to the FDP.

Answer 258

1 NM 0.3 NM

Question 259

LOC B/C approach should be flown using the TRK mode for lateral guidance and the FPA mode for vertical guidance. The approach is flown using

Answer 259

ND in ROSE LS/ILS mode as it shows the correct LEFT/RIGHT information for the beam deviation.

Question 260

BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH Back course localizer (LOC B/C) approach consists in using the LOC signal of the opposite runway for lateral approach management. The preferred technique is

Answer 260

the early stabilized approach technique, using the AP/FD and A/THR.

Question 261

BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH The flight crew should manually enter the ILS in the MCDU RAD NAV page. The front course will be entered in

Answer 261

CRS field

Question 262

BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH The flight crew must not select ILS via the ILS/LS pb: doing so

Answer 262

makes the PFD show reverse deviations. The flight crew must not arm the LOC or APPR modes.

Question 263

VISUAL APPROACH The flight crew will aim to get the following configuration at beginning of the downwind leg:

Answer 263

‐ Both AP and FDs will be selected off ‐ BIRD ON ‐ A/THR confirmed active in speed mode, i.e. SPEED on the FMA ‐ Managed speed will be used to enable the "GS mini" function ‐ The downwind track will be selected on the FCU to assist in downwind tracking ‐ The downwind track altitude will be set on FCU.

Question 264

VISUAL APPROACH Assuming a 1 500 ft AAL circuit, the base turn should be commenced

Answer 264

45 s after passing abeam the downwind threshold (3 s/100 ft +/- 1 s/1 kt of headwind / tailwind).

Question 265

VISUAL APPROACH The final turn onto the runway centreline will be commenced with

Answer 265

20 ° angle of bank. Initially the rate of descent should be 400 ft/min, increasing to 700 ft/min when established on the correct descent path.

Question 266

VISUAL APPROACH The pilot will aim to be configured for landing at VAPP by

Answer 266

500 ft AAL

Question 267

ILS RAW DATA The TRK index will be set to the ILS course and, once established on the LOC, the tail of the bird should be coincident with

Answer 267

the TRK index. This method allows accurate LOC tracking taking into account the drift.

Question 268

ILS RAW DATA Should the LOC deviate, the pilot will

Answer 268

fly the bird in the direction of the LOC index, and when re-established on the LOC, set the tail of the bird on the TRK index again. If there is further LOC deviation, check unwanted residual bank angle.

Question 269

ILS RAW DATA Slight IRS drift should be suspected as the bird is computed out of

Answer 269

IRS data.

Question 270

ILS RAW DATA When ___ below the G/S, the pilot should initiate the interception of the G/S by smoothly flying the FPV down to the glide path angle. Should the G/S deviate, the pilot will make small corrections in the direction of the deviation and when re-established on the G/S, reset the bird to the G/S angle.

Answer 270

1⁄2 dot

Question 271

When the aircraft is close to the ground, the wind intensity tends to decrease and the wind direction to turn (direction in degrees decreasing in the northern latitudes). Both effects may reduce the head wind component close to the ground and ___ is there to compensate for this effect.

Answer 271

the wind correction to VAPP

Question 272

Flare law technique is thus very conventional. When approaching the ground,

Answer 272

auto-trim ceases and the flare law activates. During flare, PF will have to apply a progressive and gentle back stick order until touchdown.

Question 273

From stabilized conditions, the flare height is

Answer 273

about 30 ft.

Question 274

Pilot need to be aware of factors that will require an earlier flare, in particular:

Answer 274

‐ High airport elevation (higher ground speeds) ‐ Steeper approach slope (compared to nominal 3 °) ‐ Tailwind (higher ground speeds) ‐ Increasing runway slope (misperception of being high)

Question 275

If the flare is initiated too late then the pitch changes will not have sufficient time to allow

Answer 275

the necessary change to aircraft trajectory. Late, weak or released flare inputs increase the risk of a hard landing.

Question 276

At ___, the "RETARD" auto call-out reminds the pilot to retard thrust levers. It is a reminder rather than an order. When best adapted, the pilot will rapidly retard all thrust levers: depending on the conditions, the pilot will retard earlier or later.

Answer 276

20 ft

Question 277

The pilot must ensure that all thrust levers are at IDLE detent at the latest at touchdown, to ensure

Answer 277

ground spoilers extension at touchdown

Question 278

The flare law is

Answer 278

a direct stick to elevator relationship

Question 279

When approaching the ground, the ground effect will tend to ___. In addition, thrust reduction will add to ___ moment.

Answer 279

pitch the nose down

Question 280

When approaching the ground, the ground effect will tend to ___. In addition, thrust reduction will add to ___ moment.

Answer 280

pitch the nose down

Question 281

In order to assess the rate of descent in the flare, and the aircraft position relative to the ground, look

Answer 281

well ahead of the aircraft.

Question 282

The typical pitch increment in the flare is approximately ___, which leads to ___ flight path angle associated with a 10 kt speed decay in the manoeuvre.

Answer 282

4 ° & -1 °

Question 283

Prolonged float will increase both

Answer 283

the landing distance and the risk of tail strike.

Question 284

After touch down, the pilot must "fly" the nosewheel smoothly, but without delay, on to the runway, and must be ready to counteract

Answer 284

any residual pitch up effect of the ground spoilers. However, the main part of the spoiler pitch up effect is compensated by the flight control law itself.

Question 285

It is not recommended to keep the nose high in order to increase aircraft drag during the initial part of the roll-out, as

Answer 285

this technique is inefficient and increases the risk of tail strike. Furthermore, if auto brake MED is used, it may lead to a hard nose gear touch down.

Question 286

In crosswind conditions, a ___ should be flown with the aircraft (cockpit) positioned on the extended runway centerline until the flare.

Answer 286

crabbed-approach wings-level

Question 287

The objectives of the lateral and directional control of the aircraft during the flare are:

Answer 287

‐ To land on the centerline, and ‐ to minimize the lateral loads on the main landing gear.

Question 288

The recommended de-crab technique is to use all of the following:

Answer 288

‐ The rudder to align the aircraft with the runway heading during the flare ‐ The roll control, if needed, to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline.

Question 289

In the case of strong crosswind, in the de-crab phase, the PF should be prepared to

Answer 289

add small bank angle into the wind in order to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline.

Question 290

The aircraft may be landed with a partial de-crab (residual crab angle up to about ___) to prevent an excessive bank. This technique prevents wingtip/sharklet (or engine nacelle) strike caused by an excessive bank angle.

Answer 290

5 °

Question 291

In the case of strong crosswind, partial de-crab technique this may result in touching down with some bank angle into the wind (hence with the ___ landing gear first).

Answer 291

upwind

Question 292

At high speed, directional control is achieved with rudder. As the speed reduces, the Nose Wheel Steering becomes active. However, the NWS tiller will not be used until

Answer 292

taxi speed is reached.

Question 293

CROSSWIND CONDITIONS Flight crew will avoid setting side stick into the wind as

Answer 293

it increases the weathercock effect.

Question 294

The ___ have a destabilizing effect on the airflow around the rudder and thus decrease the efficiency of the rudder.

Answer 294

reversers

Question 295

Three systems are involved in braking once the aircraft is on the ground:

Answer 295

‐ The ground spoilers ‐ The thrust reversers ‐ The wheel brakes.

Question 296

Explain the partial lift dumping function:

Answer 296

When the aircraft touches down with at least one main landing gear and when at least one thrust lever is in the reverse sector, the ground spoilers partially automatically deploy to ensure that the aircraft is properly sit down on ground. Then, the ground spoilers automatically fully deploy.

Question 297

The ground spoilers contribute to aircraft deceleration by ___. Wheel braking efficiency is improved due to the increased load on the wheels. Additionally, the ground spoiler extension signal is used for ___

Answer 297

increasing aerodynamic drag at high speed & auto-brake activation.

Question 298

Thrust reversers are more efficient at high speeds: The flight crew must select reverse thrust immediately after main landing gear touchdown. Below ___, thrust reversers efficiency rapidly decreases.

Answer 298

70 kt

Question 299

Below ___ with REV MAX selected, engine stall may occur. Therefore, it is recommended to reduce the reverse thrust to REV IDLE at 70 kt, and keep REV IDLE until taxi speed.

Answer 299

60 kt

Question 300

In an emergency case, the flight crew must keep REV MAX until

Answer 300

full-stop of the aircraft. At taxi speed, and not above, stow the thrust reversers before leaving the runway, in order to avoid foreign object ingestion.

Question 301

LANDING ON CONTAMINATED RUNWAYS On contaminated runways, the flight crew must select

Answer 301

REV MAX.

Question 302

Actual Landing Distance DEFINITIONS

Answer 302

distance used on a dry runway from the crossing of the runway threshold at 50 ft until full-stop of the aircraft, using maximum manual braking. No reverse thrust is considered for the calculation of the ALD. The ALD is demonstrated during flight test campaign for certification purpose.

Question 303

RLD dry & RLD wet

Answer 303

RLD dry = ALD x 1.67 RLD wet = RLD dry x 1.15 (RLD wet = ALD x 1.92)

Question 304

LANDING DISTANCE COMPUTATION AT DISPATCH

Answer 304

- Airline uses the RLD - Runway slope is not considered - On airport with multiple runways, the landing distance computation at dispatch may be performed on the longest landing runway with no wind.

Question 305

The anti-skid system adapts pilot applied brake pressure to runway conditions by sensing

Answer 305

impending skid condition and adjusting the brake pressure to each individual wheel as required.

Question 306

The anti-skid system maintains the skidding factor (slip ratio) close to the

Answer 306

maximum friction force point

Question 307

Full pedal braking with anti-skid provides a deceleration rate of:

Answer 307

10 kt/sec.

Question 308

The use of A/BRAKE is usually preferable because

Answer 308

it minimizes the number of brake applications and thus reduces brake wear

Question 309

On very short runways, the use of pedal braking is to be envisaged since

Answer 309

pilot may apply full pedal braking with no delay after touch down.

Question 310

In case of pedal braking, to minimize brake wear:

Answer 310

do not ride the brakes but apply pedal braking when required and modulate the pressure without releasing.

Question 311

The green DECEL light comes on when

Answer 311

the actual deceleration is 80 % of the selected rate. (DECEL light might not appear when the autobrake is selected on a contaminated runway, because the deceleration rate is not reached with the autobrake properly functioning.)

Question 312

DECEL light is not an indicator of the autobrake operation as such, but

Answer 312

that the deceleration rate is reached.

Question 313

CROSS WIND CONDITIONS The reverse thrust side force and crosswind component can combine to cause the aircraft to

Answer 313

drift to the downwind side of the runway if the aircraft is allowed to weathercock into wind after landing.

Question 314

CROSS WIND CONDITIONS To correct back to the centreline, the pilot must

Answer 314

reduce reverse thrust to REV IDLE and release the brakes.

Question 315

Directional Control During Crosswind Landing

Answer 315

- Touchdown with partial decrab - REV IDLE and brakes released Directional control and centerline regained - Reverse thrust and pedal braking reapplied

Question 316

Although most of tail strikes are due to deviations from normal landing techniques, some are associated with external conditions such as

Answer 316

turbulence and wind gradient.

Question 317

Deviations from normal landing techniques are the most common causes of tail strikes. The main reasons for this are due to:

Answer 317

1‐ speed well below VAPP before flare (high angle of attack and high pitch attitude) 2‐ Prolonged hold off for a smooth touch down (pitch attitude increase beyond the critical angle) 3‐ Too high flare (decrease in airspeed and a long float & increase in pitch attitude) 4‐ Too high sink rate, just prior reaching the flare height (high pitch rate & resulting lift increase may be insufficient to significantly reduce the sink rate) 5‐ Bouncing at touch down (high pitch rate as pilot may be tempted to increase the pitch attitude to ensure a smooth second touch down)

Question 318

A "PITCH-PITCH" synthetic voice sounds when the

Answer 318

pitch attitude becomes excessive. The "PITCH-PITCH" synthetic voice sound takes into account the actual pitch value and the pitch trend.

Question 319

A tail strike pitch limit indicator appears on the PFD to indicate the ___

Answer 319

maximum pitch attitude to avoid a tail strike.

Question 320

BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN In case of light bounce

Answer 320

maintain the pitch attitude and complete the landing, while keeping the thrust at idle. Do not allow the pitch attitude to increase, particularly following a firm touch down with a high pitch rate.

Question 321

BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN In case of high bounce

Answer 321

maintain the pitch attitude and initiate a go-around. Do not try to avoid a second touch down during the go-around.

Question 322

A landing should not be attempted immediately after high bounce, as

Answer 322

thrust may be required to soften the second touch down and the remaining runway length may be insufficient to stop the aircraft.

Question 323

The flight crew must consider to perform a go-around if any of the following alerts occur:

Answer 323

* GPWS, or * TCAS, or * Windshear, or * ROW alerts

Question 324

The PF must not initiate a go-around after the selection of the

Answer 324

thrust reversers.

Question 325

Below ___ , when flare law is activated, PF may need to counteract the thrust effect during go-around.

Answer 325

100 ft

Question 326

If the flight crew performs a go-around near the ground, they should take into account the following:

Answer 326

‐ The PF should avoid excessive rotation rate, in order to prevent a tailstrike. ‐ A temporary landing gear contact with the runway is acceptable.

Question 327

If the aircraft is on the runway when the PF applies TOGA thrust, ___ may transiently trigger. The flight crew should disregard these alerts.

Answer 327

CONFIG ECAM red warning(s)

Question 328

AP/FD GO-AROUND PHASE ACTIVATION When the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, with the FLAPS lever not in 0, the following will occur:

Answer 328

1‐ If the autopilot or the flight director is in use, SRS and GA TRK (NAV) modes engage 2‐ If the autopilot and both flight directors are off, the PF will maintain 15 ° of pitch 3‐ The GA phase activates on the FMS: * The missed approach becomes the active F-PLN * At the end of the missed approach procedure, the FMS strings the previous flown approach in the active F-PLN. 4‐ If not previously engaged, the FD automatically engages with the HDG/VS reference on the FCU. For the go-around, the appropriate flight reference is the attitude, because go-around is a dynamic maneuver 5‐ If extended, the speed brakes automatically retract.

Question 329

To perform a soft go-around, the PF must set thrust levers to the TOGA detent to ensure

Answer 329

engagement of SRS GA mode. Then, the PF must set the thrust levers to the FLX/MCT detent to engage the GA SOFT mode. In this case, the FMA displays MAN GA SOFT, and the AP/FD vertical and lateral modes remain engaged.

Question 330

In GA SOFT mode, the SRS GA mode remains engaged with a vertical target speed of

Answer 330

2 300 ft/min

Question 331

If the thrust levers are not correctly set to the TOGA detent (i.e. the full forward thrust levers position), the following occur:

Answer 331

- The AP/FD remain engaged in approach or landing mode (e.g. G/S, LOC, LAND, FLARE on FMA) - The FMS does not engage the GA phase, and remains in APPR phase - LVR CLB flashes on FMA.

Question 332

the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent with the FLAPS lever at 0, the following occur:

Answer 332

- The AP/FD remain engaged in approach or landing mode (e.g. G/S, LOC, LAND, FLARE on FMA) - The FMS does not engage the GA phase, and remains in APPR phase - LVR CLB flashes on FMA.

Question 333

GO-AROUND WITH FD ON The SRS mode guides the aircraft with the highest speed of VAPP or IAS at time of TOGA selection (limited to maximum of ___ with all engines operative or ___ with one engine inoperative with FMS 2) until the acceleration altitude where the target speed increases to ___

Answer 333

VLS +25 VLS +15 green dot

Question 334

Some FMS misbehavior may prevent this automatic target speed increase. Should this occur, pulling the FCU ALT knob for OP CLB manually disengages SRS mode and allows the target speed to increase to

Answer 334

green dot

Question 335

The target speed increases to green dot speed as soon as ___ engages when approaching the FCU clearance altitude.

Answer 335

ALT* mode

Question 336

At TOGA selection, the missed approach F-PLN is immediately followed in

Answer 336

NAV mode, or will be followed after a transition in GA TRK mode with NAV armed.

Question 337

The GA TRK mode guides the aircraft on ___. NAV mode engages as soon as the aircraft is aligned on the F-PLN.

Answer 337

the track memorized at the time of TOGA selection

Question 338

Above the go-around acceleration altitude, or when the flight crew engages another vertical mode (CLB, OP CLB), the target speed is

Answer 338

green dot

Question 339

When the pilot sets TOGA thrust for go-around, it takes some time for the engines to spool up due to

Answer 339

the acceleration capability of the high by pass ratio engines

Question 340

Altitude Loss Following a Go-Around When the pilot sets TOGA thrust for go-around, the aircraft will initially lose some altitude. This altitude loss will be greater if initial thrust is close to:

Answer 340

idle and/or the aircraft speed is lower than VAPP.

Question 341

The purpose of leaving the go-around phase is to obtain the proper target speed and proper predictions depending upon the strategy chosen by the crew. During the missed approach, the crew will elect either of the following strategies:

Answer 341

‐ Fly a second approach ‐ Carry out a diversion.

Question 342

If a second approach is to be flown, the crew will activate the approach phase in

Answer 342

MCDU PERF GO-AROUND page

Question 343

If the crew has prepared the ALTN FPLN in the active F-PLN, a lateral revision at the ___ is required to access the ENABLE ALTN prompt.

Answer 343

TO WPT

Question 344

USE OF BRAKE FANS Delaying brake fans selection limits the:

Answer 344

oxidation of any possible transient hot spots of the brake disk surface.

Question 345

The selection of the brake fans, before the aircraft reaches the gate, prevents:

Answer 345

blow carbon brake dust on the ground personnel. The brake fans blow dust during the first seconds of operation only.

Question 346

Airbus SOP recommendation is to set the APU Bleed to ON just before engine shutdown, to minimize

Answer 346

odors in the air conditioning.

Question 347

To reduce potential odors in the cabin, the APU Bleed may be set to ON after

Answer 347

engine shutdown. In such a case, operators should keep in mind that the number of pack starting cycles is increased, and the APU bleed is not immediately available in the case of an engine tailpipe fire.

Question 348

Airbus normal checklists are of a "non-action" type i.e.

Answer 348

all actions should be completed from memory before the flight crew performs the checklist

Question 349

The checklist actions are referred to as ___ type actions.

Answer 349

"challenge/response"

Question 350

When the checklist is completed, the PM announces,

Answer 350

"___ CHECKLIST COMPLETE" for example: "LANDING CHECKLIST COMPLETE".

Question 351

COCKPIT PREPARATION Checklist trigger:

Answer 351

Departure briefing completed

Question 352

COCKPIT PREPARATION FUEL QUANTITY The PF announces:

Answer 352

“___ kilograms balanced” e.g. “Fifteen thousand three hundred thirty kilograms balanced”

Question 353

BEFORE START Checklist trigger:

Answer 353

‐ Pushback clearance or start clearance received ‐ Before Start flow pattern completed.

Question 354

BEFORE START PARKING BRAKE The PF checks the PARK BRK memo. The PF announces:

Answer 354

e.g. “SET”

Question 355

BEFORE START T.O SPEEDS & THRUST The PF announces:

Answer 355

“V1 One Two Five, VR One Two Five, V2 One Two Nine, Flex Fifty Two”.

Question 356

AFTER START Checklist trigger:

Answer 356

On hand signal from the ground personnel

Question 357

AFTER START PITCH TRIM The PF announces:

Answer 357

"thirty two point four percent"

Question 358

AFTER START RUDDER TRIM The PF checks the rudder trim is within the tolerance

Answer 358

±0.3 °

Question 359

TAXI Checklist trigger:

Answer 359

T.O CONFIG pb pressed and cabin report received

Question 360

TAXI ENG MODE SEL The PF announces

Answer 360

"IGNITION" or "NORM"

Question 361

LINE-UP Checklist trigger:

Answer 361

‐ Line-up clearance received ‐ Before Takeoff flow pattern completed

Question 362

APPROACH Checklist trigger:

Answer 362

Below 10 000 ft AAL and barometric reference set

Question 363

LANDING Checklist trigger:

Answer 363

LDG CONF set and cabin report received

Question 364

AFTER LANDING Checklist trigger:

Answer 364

After Landing Flow pattern completed

Question 365

PARKING Checklist trigger:

Answer 365

SEAT BELTS sw OFF

Question 366

PARKING PARKING BRAKE OR CHOCKS The PF announces

Answer 366

“PARKING BRAKE SET” or “CHOCKS SET”

Question 367

SECURING THE AIRCRAFT Checklist trigger:

Answer 367

After the last passenger left the aircraft (if securing the aircraft is intended)

Question 368

When the wing is covered with ice, the airflow separates from the wing when the Angle-Of-Attack (AOA) increases. Therefore, the maximum lift-coefficient is reduced. As a result

Answer 368

the aircraft may stall at a lower AOA, and the drag may increase.

Question 369

COCKPIT PREPARATION The following systems may be affected in very cold weather:

Answer 369

‐ The EFIS/ECAM (when the cockpit temperature is very low) ‐ The IRS alignment (may take longer than usual, up to 15 min). The probe and window heating may be used on ground.

Question 370

Depending upon the severity of the weather, de-icing/anti-icing procedure must be applied either:

Answer 370

‐ In one step, via the single application of heated and diluted deicing/anti-icing fluid: The holdover time starts from the beginning of the application of the fluid. ‐ In two steps, by first applying the heated deicing fluid, then by applying a protective anti-icing fluid: The holdover time starts from the beginning of the application of the second fluid.

Question 371

On contaminated runways, the taxi speed should be limited to ___, and any action that could distract the flight crew during taxiing should be delayed until the aircraft is stopped.

Answer 371

10 kt

Question 372

Cold Weather Operations and Icing Conditions The following factors should be taken into account (TAXI-OUT):

Answer 372

1‐ At speeds below 20 kt: Antiskid deactivates. 2‐ Engine anti-ice increases ground idle thrust. 3‐ To minimize the risk of skidding during turns: Avoid large tiller inputs. 4‐ On slippery taxiways: It may be more effective to use differential braking and/or thrust, instead of nosewheel steering. 5‐ On slush-covered, or snow-covered, taxiways: Flap selection should be delayed until reaching the holding point, in order to avoid contaminating the flap/slat actuation mechanism. 6‐ When reaching the holding point: The Taxi checklist must be performed. 7‐ The flight crew must maintain the aircraft at an appropriate distance from the aircraft in front. 8‐ In icing conditions: When holding on ground for extended periods of time, or if engine vibration occurs, thrust should be increased periodically, and immediately before takeoff, to shed any ice from the fan blades.

Question 373

The use of FLEX thrust for takeoff on ___ runways is prohibited.

Answer 373

contaminated

Question 374

A higher flap setting increases the runway limited takeoff weight, but

Answer 374

reduces second the segment limited takeoff weight.

Question 375

For takeoff on contaminated runways, the flight crew must ensure that:

Answer 375

- airframe has no ice or snow. - nosewheel is straight. - engine thrust advances symmetrically to help minimize potential problems with directional control.

Question 376

Although the TAT before entering clouds may not require engine anti-ice, flight crews should be aware that the TAT often decreases significantly, when:

Answer 376

entering clouds

Question 377

If the recommended anti-ice procedures are not performed, ___ may occur.

Answer 377

engine stall, over-temperature, or engine damage

Question 378

The ADIRS computes the FPA from

Answer 378

inertial data and barometric altitude. When the atmosphere differs from the ISA conditions, the altitude and FPA computed by the ADIRS, and the associated indications on PFD (altitude, VDEV, etc.) are not accurate.

Question 379

BAROMETER INDICATIONS When the temperature is lower than ISA:

Answer 379

‐ The true altitude of the aircraft is lower than the altitude that the ADIRS computes ‐ The FPA that the aircraft actually flies, is less steep than the FPA that the ADIRS computes.

Question 380

When the temperature is lower than ISA, the FPA that the aircraft actually flies is

Answer 380

less steep than the FPA that the ADIRS (ISA referenced) computes.

Question 381

During rollout, the sidestick must be centered. This prevents

Answer 381

asymmetric wheel loading, that results in asymmetric braking and increases the weathercock tendency of the aircraft.

Question 382

Cold Weather Operations and Icing Conditions During taxi-in, after landing, the flaps/slats should not be retracted. This is because

Answer 382

retraction could cause damage, by crushing any ice that is in the slots of the slats.

Question 383

At the end of the flight at parking, in extreme cold conditions, ___ is requested when a longer stop over is expected.

Answer 383

cold soak protection

Question 384

Windshear can result from a microburst. An aircraft that approaches a microburst will first encounter

Answer 384

strong headwind. This may cause the aircraft to fly above the intended flight path and/or accelerate. With a fixed speed on approach, the flight crew's reaction may be to reduce power. This will cause the aircraft to fly with reduced energy through the downburst. The wind will then become a tailwind. The indicated airspeed and lift will drop and the downburst may be sufficiently strong to force the aircraft to lose a significant amount of altitude. The degraded performance, combined with a tailwind encounter, may cause the aircraft to stall.

Question 385

If a windshear encounter is likely, the takeoff or landing should be

Answer 385

delayed until the conditions improve, e.g. until a thunderstorm has moved away from the airport.

Question 386

The flight crew should pay attention to the following deviations that may indicate a possible windshear condition:

Answer 386

‐ Indicated airspeed variations in excess of 15 kt ‐ Ground speed variations ‐ Wind indication variations on the ND: directions and velocity ‐ Vertical speed excursions of 500 ft/min ‐ Pitch attitude excursions of 5 ° ‐ Glide slope deviation of 1 dot ‐ Heading variations of 10 ° ‐ Unusual A/THR activity.

Question 387

The windshear and microburst are hazardous phenomena for an aircraft at takeoff or landing. The strategy to cope with windshear is:

Answer 387

‐ Increasing flight crew awareness through the PWS ‐ Informing the flight crew of unexpected air mass variations through FPV and approach speed variations ‐ Warning the flight crew of significant loss of energy through "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED" and "WINDSHEAR" aural warnings (if available) ‐ Providing effective tools to escape the shear through ALPHA FLOOR protection, SRS pitch order, high AOA protection and Ground Speed mini protection.

Question 388

The PWS automatically operates, if the radar is ON or OFF, provided that the

Answer 388

PWS sw is in the AUTO position.

Question 389

The radar can measure speed variations of the droplets, and as a result, assess wind variations. This predictive capability to assess wind variations is performed by

Answer 389

the PWS

Question 390

The FPV associated with the ___ is an effective means for informing the flight crew of unexpected air mass variations:

Answer 390

approach speed variations (GS mini protection)

Question 391

The "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED" low energy warning (if available) is based on the

Answer 391

aircraft speed, acceleration and flight path angle

Question 392

Reactive windshear warning system triggers if the aircraft encounters windshear. In such a case, there is a ___ aural warning.

Answer 392

"WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR"

Question 393

In windshear conditions, "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED" low energy warning is the first warning to appear, before

Answer 393

the activation of the alpha floor.

Question 394

When the alpha floor protection is triggered, the A/THR triggers

Answer 394

TOGA on all engines. The FMA displays A.FLOOR, that changes to TOGA LK, when the aircraft AOA has decreased. TOGA/LK can only be deselected by turning the A/THR off.

Question 395

WINDSHEAR The SRS pitch mode ensures

Answer 395

best aircraft climb performance and minimize the loss of height.

Question 396

WINDSHEAR The high angle-of-attack protection enables the PF

Answer 396

to safely pull full aft stick, if needed, in order to follow the SRS pitch order, or to rapidly counteract a down movement. This provides maximum lift and minimum drag, by automatically retracting the speed brakes, if they are extended.

Question 397

Predictive windshear warning

Answer 397

(“WINDSHEAR AHEAD" and "GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD" aural alerts, associated with the W/S AHEAD that appears on the PFDs)

Question 398

Reactive windshear warning

Answer 398

("WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR" aural alert, associated with the WINDSHEAR that appears on the PFDs)

Question 399

WINDSHEAR The following recommendations apply for takeoff after V1 and when airbone (including approach and go around phases):

Answer 399

* The flight crew must set TOGA thrust and should follow SRS orders (if necessary, pull the sidestick fully back). If the FD bars are not displayed, the flight crew should move toward an initial pitch attitude of 17.5 °. Then, if necessary, to prevent a loss in altitude, increase the pitch attitude. * If the AP is engaged, the flight crew should keep it engaged. The AP disengages if the angle of attack value goes above αPROT

Question 400

Known cases of spurious predictive windshear alerts were reported at some airports either during takeoff or landing, due to the specific obstacle environment. However, the flight crew must always rely on

Answer 400

all reactive windshear (i.e. WINDSHEAR) alerts.

Question 401

When a predictive windshear aural alert (“WINDSHEAR AHEAD" or "GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD") is triggered, the flight crew must carefully check that there is no hazard. If this is the case, the flight crew can disregard the alert, as long as both the following apply:

Answer 401

‐ There are no other signs of possible windshear conditions ‐ The reactive windshear system is operational.

Question 402

Predictive windshear alerts are inhibited when the aircraft speed is

Answer 402

above 100 kt and up to 50 ft.

Question 403

If a predictive windshear alert is triggered on the runway before takeoff, or in case of suspected windshear, the flight crew must

Answer 403

delay takeoff until conditions are better

Question 404

WINDSHEAR In order to evaluate takeoff conditions, the flight crew should apply both of the following:

Answer 404

‐ Use their observations and experience ‐ Check the weather conditions.

Question 405

If a predictive windshear WARNING is triggered during the takeoff roll, the Captain must

Answer 405

reject takeoff.

Question 406

If a predictive windshear CAUTION is triggered during the takeoff roll, it is the decision of the Captain according to the Captain's situation assessment to either:

Answer 406

Continue with takeoff considering TOGA, or Reject takeoff.

Question 407

If a predictive windshear alert is triggered during initial climb, the flight crew must:

Answer 407

- Set TOGA - Closely monitor the speed and the speed trend - Ensure that the flight path does not include areas with suspected windshears - Change the aircraft configuration, provided that the aircraft does not enter windshear.

Question 408

The Reactive Windshear Function detected a windshear. During the takeoff roll, ___ alert is inhibited.

Answer 408

"WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR"

Question 409

If the windshear occurs before V1, with ___ the Captain must initiate a rejected takeoff.

Answer 409

significant speed and speed trend variations

Question 410

If the windshear occurs after V1, the flight crew must select TOGA. The flight crew must pay attention to the following:

Answer 410

‐ The flight crew should not change the configuration, until the aircraft is out of the windshear, because operating the landing gear doors causes additional drag ‐ The PF must fly SRS pitch orders rapidly and smoothly, but not aggressively, and must consider pulling full backstick, if necessary, to minimize height loss ‐ The PM should call out the wind variations from the ND and V/S and, when clear of the windshear, report the encounter to the ATC.

Question 411

The Predictive Windshear Function detected a windshear. If the flight crew decides to continue the approach, they should:

Answer 411

‐ Assess the weather severity with the radar display ‐ Consider the most appropriate runway ‐ Select FLAPS 3 for landing, in order to optimize the climb gradient capability in the case of a go-around ‐ Use managed speed, because it provides the GS mini function ‐ The flight crew may increase VAPP displayed on MCDU PERF APP page up to a maximum VLS +15 kt, in case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 kt, use the LDG PERF application of EFB for VAPP determination.

Question 412

In the case of "GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD" aural alert triggering, the PF must

Answer 412

TOGA for a go-around. The flight crew can change the aircraft configuration, provided that the windshear is not entered. Full backstick should be applied, if required, to follow the SRS, or to minimize the loss of height.

Question 413

Severe turbulence is defined as turbulence that

Answer 413

causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in airspeed.

Question 414

If severe turbulence occurs during a flight, the flight crew must

Answer 414

make a logbook entry in order to initiate maintenance action.

Question 415

For takeoff in high turbulence, the flight crew must

Answer 415

wait for the target speed +20 kt (limited to VFE-5) before retracting the slats/flaps (e.g. the flight crew must wait for F+20 kt before setting Flaps 1).

Question 416

Usually, the gain should be left in AUTO. However, selective use of manual gain may help to assess the general weather conditions. Manual gain is particularly useful, when

Answer 416

operating in heavy rain, if the radar picture is saturated. In this case, reduced gain will help the flight crew to identify the areas of heaviest rainfall, that are usually associated with active CB cells.

Question 417

The decision to avoid a CB must be taken as early as possible, and lateral avoidance should, ideally, be

Answer 417

at 20 NM upwind

Question 418

In turbulent conditions, CONF FULL provides ___, however, CONF 3 provides ___

Answer 418

better handling capability / more energy and less drag

Question 419

To reduce the encounter of a wake turbulence, the flight crew must

Answer 419

comply with the aircraft separation minima.

Question 420

During final approach, the flight crew should remain on the standard approach slope because

Answer 420

deviation does not guarantee avoidance of wake turbulence.

Question 421

If the aircraft encounters wake turbulence, pilot input can amplify the effect of the vortices. All of the following is therefore recommended:

Answer 421

‐ Do not use the rudder ‐ Keep the AP ON ‐ If the AP was set to OFF by the flight crew or automatically disconnected, release the controls and wait for a reasonable stabilization of the aircraft.

Question 422

SINGLE FMGC FAILURE Should a single FMGC failure occur

Answer 422

the AP, if engaged on the affected side, will disconnect. The flight crew can recover the AP by selecting the other AP. The A/THR remains operative.

Question 423

SINGLE FMGC FAILURE Flight plan information on the affected ND may be recovered by

Answer 423

using the same range as the opposite ND. The flight crew should consider a FMGC reset as detailed in QRH.

Question 424

DUAL FMGC FAILURE Should a dual FMGC failure occur, the AP/FD and A/THR will disconnect. The flight crew should try to recover both AP and A/THR by selecting them back ON (The AP and A/THR can be recovered if

Answer 424

FG parts of the FMGC are still available

Question 425

DUAL FMGC FAILURE If both AP and A/THR cannot be recovered, the thrust levers will have to be moved to recover

Answer 425

manual thrust. The flight crew should switch off the FDs and select TRK/FPA to allow the blue track index and the bird to be displayed. The RMPs can be used to tune the NAVAIDs. The flight crew should refer to the QRH for system reset considerations and then Refer to FCOM/DSC-22_20-90-10 Automatic FMGC Reset and Resynchronization - FM Reset to reload both FMGCs as required.

Question 426

DUAL FMGC FAILURE If both FMGCs cannot be recovered and if the NAV B/UP function is installed, the MCDU features a NAV B/UP function which provides

Answer 426

simplified IRS based navigation

Question 427

LOSS OF BRAKING Unless required due to an emergency, it is recommended to avoid the use of high level of reverse thrust at low speed, in order to

Answer 427

avoid engine stall and excessive EGT

Question 428

LOSS OF BRAKING ‐ If possible, delay the use of parking brake until low speed, to

Answer 428

reduce the risk of tire burst and lateral control difficulties.

Question 429

The emergency electrical configuration is due to

Answer 429

loss of AC BUS 1 and 2

Question 430

EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION The RAT extends automatically. This powers

Answer 430

blue hydraulic circuit which drives the emergency generator. The emergency generator supplies both AC and DC ESS BUS.

Question 431

EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION Below 125 kt, the RAT stalls and the emergency generator is no longer powered. The emergency generation network is automatically transferred to

Answer 431

batteries and AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed. Below 100 kt, the DC BAT BUS is automatically connected and below 50 kt, the AC ESS BUS is shed.

Question 432

EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION As only ___ is available, the ___ becomes PF. Once a safe flight path is established, and the aircraft is under control, ECAM actions will be carried out.

Answer 432

PFD1 left hand seat pilot

Question 433

EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION The handling of this failure is referred to as a "complex procedure". A summary for handling the procedure is included in

Answer 433

QRH, which will be referred to upon completion of the ECAM procedure

Question 434

The ELEC EMER CONFIG SYS REMAINING list is available in QRH. The flight is to be completed manually in

Answer 434

alternate and then, when gear down, in direct law. AP/FD and ATHR are lost.

Question 435

ELEC EMER CONFIG The approach speed must be at least

Answer 435

min RAT speed (140 kt) to keep the emergency generator supplying the electrical network.

Question 436

ELEC EMER CONFIG The BSCU are lost. Consequently, the NWS and anti skid are lost. Alternate braking with yellow hydraulic pressure modulation up to 1 000 PSI will be used. Additionally, reversers are not available. RA 1+2 are lost with their associated call out. Call out will be made by PM. Approaching ___ during the landing roll, all display units will be lost.

Answer 436

50 kt

Question 437

ENGINE ABNORMAL RESPONSE If possible, the flight crew should keep the engine running in flight. Even at idle, the engine powers

Answer 437

hydraulic, electric, and bleed systems

Question 438

The all engines failure can be identified by the

Answer 438

Flight Warning Computer (FWC)

Question 439

Even if the ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE alert is not triggered, the flight crew must rapidly decide to apply either the ___ or the ___ depending on their assessment of the situation.

Answer 439

ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure, EMER LANDING QRH procedure,

Question 440

If the flight crew considers there is sufficient time to attempt an engine relight, they must apply the ___ procedure. However, if the flight crew considers there is not sufficient time to attempt an engine relight, they must apply the ___ procedure.

Answer 440

ALL ENG FAIL QRH EMER LANDING QRH

Question 441

An all engines failure situation mainly results in an emergency electrical configuration, and in the loss of the ___ hydraulic systems.

Answer 441

green and yellow

Question 442

ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION In the case of an all engines failure:

Answer 442

‐ All the AC busbars are lost ‐ The RAT automatically deploys to supply the emergency generator (EMER GEN or CSM/G). The EMER GEN supplies both the AC ESS and the DC ESS bus bars.

Question 443

The EMER GEN, that is connected to the network, remains connected even if

Answer 443

all the main generators are recovered (following engines relight), or if the APU generator is connected. Below FL 250, if the flight crew can start the APU, the normal electrical configuration partly recovers.

Question 444

If fuel remains, the flight crew should attempt an APU start regardless of the RAT type in order to recover

Answer 444

cabin pressurization, additional electrical power and have bleed available for a starter-assisted relight, if necessary.

Question 445

APU start attempts use the aircraft batteries and reduce batteries load (each APU start attempt reduces flight time on batteries by about ___ ). Total flight time on batteries is more than ___ .

Answer 445

3 and a half minutes 30 min

Question 446

HYDRAULIC GENERATION When the hydraulic power is lost, the right aileron is lost and goes to

Answer 446

its zero hinge moment position. PF may use the rudder trim to generate sideslip and therefore compensate for this upfloating aileron. When the APU generator is connected, the control of the right aileron is restored due to the recovery of ELAC 2.

Question 447

The ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE alert provides the first key steps of the procedure and then directs the flight crew to

Answer 447

ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure

Question 448

Advantages of the Windmill relight

Answer 448

1. available for a large altitude range, 2. simultaneous relight attempts on all engines, 3. relight attempts not dependent on the technical condition of the aircraft systems

Question 449

If the all engines failure is subsequent to a flight through ___ , the situation may be associated to unreliable speed indications. Therefore, the QRH procedure includes complementary information compared to the ECAM and provides the pitch attitude that the PF must maintain to target the optimum relight speed.

Answer 449

volcanic ashes

Question 450

ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure requests the flight crew to check the on-board fuel quantity in order to ensure

Answer 450

aircraft is not experiencing a fuel starvation issue that will prevent engines relight

Question 451

ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure promotes windmill relight, However, if none of the engines relights after several attempts using windmill, ___ , the flight crew can take advantage of the APU bleed air, if available, to attempt starter-assisted engine relights

Answer 451

below FL 200

Question 452

ALL ENG FAIL The flight crew can reduce speed to the ___ to minimize the aircraft descent rate.

Answer 452

green dot speed Green dot for all engines inoperative is displayed on the left PFD.

Question 453

ALL ENG FAIL Regardless of the relight procedure (Windmill, or using the APU bleed), engine master levers must be set to OFF for ___ in order to ventilate the combustion chamber of the engine between two relight attempts.

Answer 453

30 s

Question 454

ALL ENG FAIL As long as the engine parameters continuously increase and reach idle values without exceeding limits, the flight crew should not

Answer 454

abort the relight attempt

Question 455

ALL ENG FAIL IF ENGINE RELIGHT CANNOT BE ATTEMPTED This section requires flying at green dot speed, that is the best lift-to-drag ratio speed in order to

Answer 455

maximize the remaining time for cabin preparation and distance flown.

Question 456

ALL ENG FAIL If fuel remains, the flight crew should start the APU below ___ to improve electrical power supply and recover CM2 display units.

Answer 456

FL 250

Question 457

ALL ENG FAIL The flight crew should also use APU bleed below ___ to recover the cabin pressurization.

Answer 457

FL 200

Question 458

ALL ENG FAIL If no engine relights and depending on the situation, the flight crew should prepare the aircraft either for a ditching, or for a forced landing, even if

Answer 458

a runway can be reached.

Question 459

Ditching and forced landing procedures are very similar, except

Answer 459

for the landing gear that must be up for a ditching.

Question 460

ALL ENG FAIL For approach, only ___ are available.

Answer 460

slats

Question 461

FORCED LANDING For the PF, during the initial and final approach, the main concern is

Answer 461

the aircraft energy management.

Question 462

FORCED LANDING The PF should maintain aircraft path higher than in a normal approach because

Answer 462

there is no engine to manage energy.

Question 463

FORCED LANDING If the aircraft is too high to reach the landing area, PF may use

Answer 463

the remaining speed brakes to generate drag and increase the descent rate, if needed.

Question 464

Just before ditching, the flight crew must set the DITCHING pb to ON in order to

Answer 464

close all valves under the aircraft.

Question 465

ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE When at least one engine is recovered, AC 1, DC 1, AC 2 and DC 2 are recovered and normal electrical configuration is restored except, that

Answer 465

AC ESS BUS bar and DC ESS BUS bars remain supplied by the emergency generator.

Question 466

ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE When at least one engine is recovered, green, yellow and blue hydraulic systems are restored:

Answer 466

‐ Green and yellow systems due to the engine and associated EDP recovery, and the other hydraulic system by means of the PTU operation ‐ Blue hydraulic system is recovered as the electrical supply of the blue electric pump is restored.

Question 467

ENGINE FAILURE An engine flameout can be due to many reasons, for example:

Answer 467

‐ Fuel starvation ‐ Encounter with volcanic ash, sand or dust clouds ‐ Heavy rain, hail, or icing ‐ Bird strike ‐ Engine stall ‐ Engine control system malfunction.

Question 468

The flight crew can detect an engine flameout without damage by

Answer 468

a rapid decrease of EPR/N1, N2, EGT and FF.

Question 469

The flight crew can suspect engine damage, if the flight crew observes two or more of the following symptoms:

Answer 469

‐ Rapid increase of the EGT above the red line ‐ Important mismatch of the rotor speeds, or absence of rotation ‐ Significant increase of aircraft vibrations, or buffeting, or both vibrations and buffeting ‐ Hydraulic system loss ‐ Repeated, or not controllable engine stalls.

Question 470

If an engine failure occurs at low speed, the resultant yaw may be significant, leading to

Answer 470

rapid displacement from the runway center line.

Question 471

ENGINE FAILURE AT LOW SPEED (ON GROUND) To regain or maintain directional control on the runway, it is necessary:

Answer 471

‐ To immediately reduce both thrust levers to IDLE, which will reduce the thrust asymmetry caused by the failed engine ‐ To select both reversers irrespective of which engine has failed ‐ To use rudder pedal for directional control, supplemented by symmetrical or differential braking if needed.

Question 472

ENGINE FAILURE AT LOW SPEED (ON GROUND) Below ___, the ground spoilers will not deploy and the auto brake will not activate.

Answer 472

72 kt

Question 473

ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1 At VR, the flight crew should rotate the aircraft using a continuous pitch rate of approximately ___ towards an initial pitch attitude of ___.

Answer 473

3 °/s 12.5 °

Question 474

ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1 WHEN SAFELY AIRBORNE: The flight crew should then follow the SRS orders that may request a lower pitch attitude in order to obtain

Answer 474

the target speed. If an engine failure occurs after liftoff, the SRS targets the speed at which the failure occurred (limited between V2 and V2 +15 kt).

Question 475

In the case of an engine failure at takeoff, the ___ appears instead of the usual sideslip indication on the PFD

Answer 475

blue beta target

Question 476

The flight crew must adjust the rudder pedals as usual to center the beta target in order to

Answer 476

optimize the climb performance.

Question 477

When the AP is engaged the rudder trim is managed via the AP, therefore:

Answer 477

* Manual rudder trim command is inhibited * The flight crew should release any pressure on the rudder pedals.

Question 478

If a rudder pedal deflection is maintained or applied after AP engagement, the AP may

Answer 478

disengage

Question 479

If the climb and/or acceleration performance of the aircraft is less than expected, the flight crew should

Answer 479

confirm that the landing gear has been selected up and consider the use of TOGA thrust,

Question 480

In CONF 1+F, F speed is not displayed on the PFD. F speed is displayed on the

Answer 480

PERF TAKEOFF page

Question 481

"Secure the engine" means that the flight crew should continue the ECAM procedure until:

Answer 481

‐ "ENG MASTER OFF" in the case of an engine failure without damage, or ‐ "AGENT 1 DISCH" in the case of an engine failure with damage, or ‐ Fire extinguished or "AGENT 2 DISCH" in case of an engine fire.

Question 482

At the EO acceleration altitude, when the flap lever is at zero, the beta target reverts to

Answer 482

normal sideslip indication.

Question 483

The engine out maximum acceleration altitude corresponds to

Answer 483

maximum altitude that can be achieved with one engine out and the other engine operating at takeoff thrust for a maximum of 10 min.

Question 484

ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1 When the speed trend arrow reaches the Green Dot speed,

Answer 484

pull the ALT knob to engage OP CLB. Set the thrust levers to MCT when the LVR MCT message flashes on the FMA (this message appears, when the speed index reaches Green Dot). Resume the climb phase with THR MCT. If the thrust levers are already in the FLX/MCT detent, move the thrust levers to CL and then back to MCT.

Question 485

The acceleration altitude, enables the aircraft to fly with Flap 0 and at Green Dot speed that provides

Answer 485

the best climb gradient

Question 486

ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1 Consider to relight the engine (if no damage), when

Answer 486

aircraft is established on the final takeoff flight path, the flight crew should continue the ECAM procedure until the STATUS page appears.

Question 487

When an engine failure is detected, the FMGS produces predictions based on the engine-out configuration and ___ are deleted.

Answer 487

any pre-selected speeds entered in the MCDU

Question 488

When an engine failure occurs during cruise, three possible strategies apply:

Answer 488

‐ The standard strategy ‐ The obstacle strategy ‐ The fixed speed strategy.

Question 489

Pressing the EO CLR key on the MCDU restores

Answer 489

all engine operative predictions and performance. Reverting to one engine-out performance again is not possible.

Question 490

As soon as the engine failure in cruise is recognized, the PF simultaneously:

Answer 490

‐ Sets all thrust levers to MCT ‐ Disconnects A/THR. ‐ Sets a HDG as appropriate and pulls ‐ Determines the engine out recovery altitude. When ready for descent, the PF: ‐ Sets the SPEED and pulls ‐ Sets the engine out recovery altitude and pulls to engage for OPEN DES.

Question 491

ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE The flight crew should not delay to descent at high flight levels, because

Answer 491

close to the weight limits, the aircraft speed quickly reduces.

Question 492

ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE The A/THR is disconnected to

Answer 492

avoid any engine thrust reduction when selecting speed according to strategy or when pulling for OPEN DES to initiate the descent. With the A/THR disconnected, the target speed is controlled by the elevator when in OPEN DES.

Question 493

ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE STANDARD STRATEGY The speed of ___ is chosen to ensure the aircraft is within the stabilized windmill engine relight in-flight envelope.

Answer 493

0.78/300 kt

Question 494

ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE The REC MAX EO Cruise altitude, which equates to LRC Engine-Out maximum FL with anti-icing off, is displayed on

Answer 494

MCDU PROG page (One engine out gross ceiling at long-range speed is also available in the performance application of the EFB in case of double FM failure).

Question 495

ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE STANDARD STRATEGY When the V/S becomes less than 500 ft/min:

Answer 495

select V/S -500 ft/min and A/THR on. Once established at level off altitude, long-range cruise performance with one engine out may be computed with the performance application of the EFB.

Question 496

ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE OBSTACLE STRATEGY To maintain the highest possible level due to terrain, the ___ must be adopted.

Answer 496

drift down procedure The speed target in this case is green dot. The procedure is similar to the standard strategy, but as the speed target is now green dot, the rate and angle of descent are reduced.

Question 497

ENGINE FAILURE DURING CRUISE OBSTACLE STRATEGY The ___ page in EO condition displays the drift down ceiling

Answer 497

MCDU PERF CRZ (One engine out gross ceiling at green dot speed is also available in the performance application of the EFB) When clear of obstacles, revert to Standard Strategy.

Question 498

An engine stall is

Answer 498

disruption of the airflow in a turbine engine

Question 499

When the blades of the engine compressors stall, they are no longer able to

Answer 499

compress the air from the front to the rear of the engine

Question 500

ENGINE STALL In some cases, there may be a breakdown of the airflow, with the high pressure air at the end of the compressor reversing flow, and exiting from the front of the engine. If this occurs, it may result in

Answer 500

immediate and significant loss of thrust.

Question 501

An engine stall can be due to any of the following reasons:

Answer 501

‐ An engine degradation (e.g. compressor blade rupture, or high wear) ‐ Ingestion of foreign objects (e.g. birds), or ice ‐ A malfunction of the bleed system ‐ A malfunction of the engine controls (e.g. fuel scheduling, or stall protection devices) ‐ A significant disturbance of the airflow (e.g. due to wake turbulence, non-appropriate use of the thrust reverser after landing, or lightning strike).

Question 502

During takeoff, and at high power settings, the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:

Answer 502

‐ One or more very loud bangs, usually compared to a shotgun being fired a few meters away ‐ An instant loss of thrust, or even a reverse thrust, that causes a yaw movement ‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2) ‐ An increase of the EGT ‐ Engine vibrations ‐ Flames may be visible from both ends of the engine (inlet / tail pipe) ‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.

Question 503

During cruise, and at low power settings (e.g. at thrust reduction at the T/D), the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:

Answer 503

‐ One or more muffled bangs ‐ Slow or no thrust lever response ‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2) ‐ An increase of the EGT ‐ Engine vibrations ‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.

Question 504

ENGINE STALL Most of the FADECs have functions that:

Answer 504

‐ Regulate the airflow through the compressor, to prevent engine stalls ‐ Are able to detect engine stalls ‐ Try to recover from an engine stall, without flight crew action, by modifying the airflow.

Question 505

The FADEC is not able to detect an engine stall in all cases. Therefore, if the flight crew detects one or a combination of the engine stall symptoms, the flight crew should

Answer 505

suspect an engine stall, and apply the QRH Engine Stall procedure.

Question 506

If a stall occurs during the cruise phase, the flight crew shall take the time to assess the situation before applying the procedure, as most of the times the FADEC will

Answer 506

self-recover from the stall before any flight crew action

Question 507

Engine Stall procedure (ECAM or QRH) The flight crew first reduces thrust to idle on the affected engine. This action reduces

Answer 507

differential pressure across the compressor. This helps the engine airflow to become more stable.

Question 508

QRH Engine Stall ‐ The flight crew shuts down the engine if:

Answer 508

* The fluctuations of the engine parameters, or the high EGT, or the engine vibrations persist, or * The symptoms of the engine stall persist at idle thrust.

Question 509

QRH Engine Stall If the engine parameters are normal: * The flight crew selects the anti-ice on, in order to

Answer 509

increase the bleed demand. This reduces the pressure at the exit of the compressor, and helps the airflow to circulate in the engine turbine from front to rear.

Question 510

If the engine stall reoccurs, the flight crew keeps the engine thrust

Answer 510

below the stall threshold. The flight crew should not shut down the engine if the engine stall can be avoided. The flight crew should manually control the thrust on the affected engine between idle and the identified stall threshold for the remainder of the flight.

Question 511

ENGINE TAILPIPE FIRE An engine tailpipe fire can only occur at

Answer 511

engine start or at engine shutdown (excess of fuel in the combustion chamber, in the turbine or in the exhaust nozzle, that ignites)

Question 512

A tailpipe fire is

Answer 512

internal fire in the engine, compared with an engine fire that occurs outside the engine core and gas path. No critical areas are affected in the engine in the case of a tailpipe fire.

Question 513

The correct method to manage an engine tailpipe fire is to

Answer 513

stop the fuel flow, and to ventilate the engine

Question 514

In the case of a tailpipe fire, there is no cockpit alert. The only indication can be

Answer 514

increasing EGT due to the fire in the turbine. Therefore, most of the time, the ground crew, cabin crew, or ATC visually detect the tailpipe fire.

Question 515

In the case of a tailpipe fire, the flight crew must apply the QRH ENG TAILPIPE FIRE procedure, which requires the flight crew to:

Answer 515

‐ Shut down the engine, in order to stop the fuel flow ‐ Dry crank the engine, to remove the remaining fuel.

Question 516

The flight crew should not use the ENG FIRE pb. This cuts off the electrical supply of the FADEC, and

Answer 516

stops the dry crank sequence performed by the FADEC.

Question 517

The flight crew should not use the fire extinguisher, as

Answer 517

it does not extinguish an internal engine fire. As a first priority, the fuel flow must be stopped, and the engine must be ventilated.

Question 518

If the tailpipe fire procedure does not stop the fire, or if bleed air is not easily available, the ground crew can use

Answer 518

a ground fire extinguisher as a last option. Ground fire extinguishing agent can cause serious corrosive damage to the engine and requires a maintenance action on the engine.

Question 519

Engine vibrations are usually caused by an imbalance of the engine that can be due to many reasons such as:

Answer 519

‐ A deformation of one or several blades due to Foreign Object Damage (FOD), or a bird strike ‐ A rupture or a loss of one or several blades ‐ An internal engine failure (e.g. engine stall) ‐ A fan icing

Question 520

High engine vibration alone does not require

Answer 520

engine in-flight shutdown. If the engine needs to be shutdown, other symptoms and certainly an ECAM alert will warn the flight crew, and request them to shut down the engine.

Question 521

When the vibration level exceeds a certain threshold, an ECAM alert triggers and an ECAM advisory function automatically highlights the affected parameter. The ECAM alert guides the flight crew toward the

Answer 521

[QRH] HIGH ENGINE VIBRATION procedure

Question 522

The flight crew should suspect icing if

Answer 522

N1 vibrations occur without variation on other engine parameters.

Question 523

If the flight crew suspects icing, and if flight conditions permit, the flight crew should shed the ice with the following procedure:

Answer 523

‐ The flight crew disconnects the A/THR ‐ The flight crew performs several large thrust variations from idle to a thrust compatible with the flight phase.

Question 524

ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE - GO-AROUND Provided the flap lever is selected to Flap 1 or greater, ___ will engage

Answer 524

SRS If SRS is not available, the initial target pitch attitude will be 12.5 °.

Question 525

ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE - GO-AROUND The lateral FD mode will be

Answer 525

GA TRK (or NAV if option installed)

Question 526

The flight crew should trim to keep the slip indication centred. It remains yellow as long as the thrust on the remaining engine(s) is below a certain value. With ___, the indicator becomes the blue beta target.

Answer 526

flap selected and above this threshold value (This is a visual cue that the aircraft is approaching its maximum thrust capability.)

Question 527

The ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT ECAM caution may be triggered after the reverser thrust is selected. This is to remind the flight crew that

Answer 527

one reverser is inoperative

Question 528

no reversers are operative, the general recommendation is

Answer 528

to not select the reverser thrust during RTO and at landing.

Question 529

Abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats may be due to one of the following problems:

Answer 529

‐ Double SFCC failure ‐ Double hydraulic failure (B+G or Y+G) ‐ Flaps/Slats jammed (operation of the WTB)

Question 530

Abnormal operation of the flaps and slats has significant consequences since:

Answer 530

‐ The control laws may change ‐ The selected speed must be used ‐ An early stabilized approach should be preferred ‐ The approach attitudes change ‐ Approach speeds and landing distances increase ‐ The go-around procedure may have to be modified.

Question 531

Should a flap/slat retraction problem occur at takeoff, the crew will

Answer 531

PULL the speed knob for selected speed to stop the acceleration and avoid exceeding VFE. The overspeed warning is computed according to the actual slats/flaps position.

Question 532

The detection of a slat or flap failure occurs with the selection of flap lever during the approach. The crew will:

Answer 532

‐ Pull the speed knob for selected speed to avoid further deceleration ‐ Delay the approach to complete the ECAM procedure ‐ Refer to LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH procedure. ‐ Update the approach briefing.

Question 533

LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH In the QRH, the line, "SPD SEL............VFE NEXT -5 kt" is designed to allow the crew to

Answer 533

configure the aircraft for landing whilst controlling the speed in a safe manner

Question 534

LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED The AP may be used down to ___. As the AP is not tuned for the abnormal configurations, its behavior can be less than optimum and must be monitored.

Answer 534

500 ft AGL

Question 535

LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED During the approach briefing, emphasis should be made of:

Answer 535

‐ Tail strike awareness ‐ The go-around configuration ‐ Any deviation from standard call out ‐ The speeds to be flown, following a missed approach ‐ At the acceleration altitude, selected speed must be used to control the acceleration to the required speed for the configuration.

Question 536

Consider the fuel available and the increased consumption associated with a diversion when flying with flaps and/or slats jammed. Additionally, when diverting with flaps/slats extended, cruise altitude is limited to ___.

Answer 536

20 000 ft

Question 537

Fuel checks should be carried out when overflying a waypoint or at least every ___.

Answer 537

30 min

Question 538

Any time an unexpected fuel quantity indication, an ECAM fuel message or an imbalance is noted, a ___ should be considered as a possible cause

Answer 538

fuel leak

Question 539

The main steps of the [QRH] FUEL LEAK procedure are: If the fuel leak is confirmed coming from the engine/pylon:

Answer 539

The affected engine is shut down to isolate the fuel leak and the fuel cross-feed valve may be used as required.

Question 540

The main steps of the [QRH] FUEL LEAK procedure are: If the fuel leak is not confirmed coming from the engine/pylon or if the leak is not located:

Answer 540

‐ Isolate each tank - Associated engine is shut down in order to confirm if the leak comes from the wing tank or from the engine ‐ If the fuel quantity symmetrically decreases in both wing tanks and the fuel quantity in the center tank decreases, the fuel leak comes from the center tank or the APU feed line.

Question 541

If the flight crew confirms that the fuel leak comes from the engine/pylon, the flight crew must shut down the engine in order to:

Answer 541

‐ Stop the leak ‐ Prevent fire hazard due to fuel leaking into the hot surfaces of the engine.

Question 542

The flight crew must not use ___ in order to prevent contact between fuel and hot surfaces of engines or brakes.

Answer 542

the thrust reversers

Question 543

The flight crew can suspect a fuel overread if:

Answer 543

‐ The sum of FOB and FU is significantly more than FOB at engine start, or is increasing ‐ There is an abnormal discrepancy between the fuel on board and the expected flight plan fuel ‐ The total fuel quantity abnormally increases ‐ The destination EFOB abnormally increases.

Question 544

If the flight crew detects a fuel overread, or if the FUEL F.USED/FOB DISAGREE alert triggers to indicate a fuel overread, fuel management is affected. The flight crew should apply the

Answer 544

[QRH] FUEL OVERREAD procedure (Refer to FCOM/PRO-ABN-FUEL [QRH] FUEL OVERREAD).

Question 545

FUEL OVERREAD ‐ The fuel low level ECAM alerts are still valid. These alerts are triggered by sensors that are

Answer 545

independent from the fuel quantity indications.

Question 546

The aircraft has three continuously operating hydraulic systems:

Answer 546

green, blue and yellow. A bidirectional Power Transfer Unit (PTU) enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. Hydraulic fluid cannot be transferred from one system to another.

Question 547

PTU PRINCIPLE In flight, the PTU operates automatically if

Answer 547

differential pressure between green and yellow systems exceeds 500 PSI. This allows to cover the loss of one engine or one engine driven pump cases.

Question 548

In case of reservoir low level, reservoir overheat, reservoir low air pressure, the PTU must be switched OFF as required by ECAM to avoid

Answer 548

PTU overheat which may occur two minutes later. Indeed, a PTU overheat may lead to the loss of the second hydraulic circuit.

Question 549

When required by the ECAM, the PTU should be switched off without delay in case of:

Answer 549

‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR LO LVL ‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR LO AIR PR (Only if pressure fluctuates) ‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR OVHT

Question 550

Single hydraulic failures have very little effect on the handling of the aircraft but will cause a degradation of the landing capability to

Answer 550

CAT 3 SINGLE

Question 551

Dual hydraulic failures however, although unlikely, are significant due to the following consequences:

Answer 551

‐ Loss of AP ‐ Flight control law degradation ‐ Landing in abnormal configuration ‐ Extensive ECAM procedures with associated workload and task-sharing considerations ‐ Significant considerations for approach and landing.

Question 552

DUAL HYDRAULIC FAILURES The briefing will concentrate on safety issues since this will be a hand-flown approach with certain handling restrictions:

Answer 552

‐ Use of the selected speeds on the FCU ‐ Landing gear gravity extension ‐ Approach configuration and flap lever position ‐ Approach speed VAPP ‐ An early stabilized approach will be preferred ‐ Tail strike awareness ‐ Braking and steering considerations ‐ Go around call out, aircraft configuration and speed.

Question 553

DUAL HYDRAULIC FAILURES Direct law, the auto trim function is lost. However, the mean elevator position at that time is memorized, and becomes the reference for centered sidestick position. This is why, in order to ensure proper centered sidestick position for approach and landing, the procedure requires to

Answer 553

wait for stabilization at VAPP, before landing gear extension. If this procedure is missed, the flare and pitch control in case of go-around may be difficult. In alternate law, the auto trim function is provided through the elevators.

Question 554

To avoid unnecessary application of the L/G GRAVITY EXTENSION and the LDG WITH ABNORMAL L/G QRH procedures, the flight crew must check for the three landing gear green indications on the ECAM WHEEL SD page: at least

Answer 554

one green triangle on each landing gear is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked.

Question 555

To confirm that the landing gear is downlocked; The flight crew must also rely also on

Answer 555

“LDG GEAR DN” green MEMO

Question 556

If one landing gear is not downlocked, the flight crew must perform the

Answer 556

LDG WITH ABNORMAL L/G QRH procedure

Question 557

LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G With at least one main landing gear in the abnormal position, the ___ cannot be activated

Answer 557

autobrake (ground spoilers not armed)

Question 558

LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G The anti-skid must be switched off to prevent permanent brake release because:

Answer 558

with one main landing gear not extended, the reference speed used by the anti-skid system is not correctly initialized

Question 559

LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G The engines should be shut down early enough to ensure that fuel is cut off prior to

Answer 559

nacelle touchdown, but late enough to keep sufficient authority on control surfaces in order to: ‐ Maintain runway axis ‐ Prevent nacelle contact on first touch down ‐ Maintain wing level and pitch attitude as long as possible.

Question 560

The hydraulic power remains available up to approximately ___ after the shut down of the related engine.

Answer 560

30 s

Question 561

If the Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) is lost for taxiing, the flight crew can steer the aircraft with

Answer 561

differential braking technique. If the flight crew does not have experience with this technique, he should preferably request a towing to return to the gate.

Question 562

The COCKPIT WINDSHIELD/WINDOW CRACKED procedure requires the flight crew to check if the Inner ply is affected. To do so, the flight crew should

Answer 562

touch the affected glass with a pen or a finger nail to check if the crack(s) is(are) on the cockpit side (Inner ply): ‐ If there is no crack on the cockpit side: maximum flight level. ‐ If there are cracks on the cockpit side: descend to FL 230/MEA in order to reduce the ΔP to 5 PSI

Question 563

The flight crew must rely on the ___ alert, even if not confirmed on the CAB PRESS SD page.

Answer 563

CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT Alert can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the SD

Question 564

The flight crew should perform the actions of the EMER DESCENT in two steps:

Answer 564

‐ First step: Apply the memory items ‐ Second step: Perform the read-&-do procedure (ECAM or QRH)

Question 565

EMER DESCENT At high flight levels, the flight crew should extend the speed brakes while monitoring the VLS. This is in order to avoid

Answer 565

activation of the angle of attack protection which may result in the retraction of the speed brakes and in AP disconnection.

Question 566

EMER DESCENT When in IDLE thrust, high speed and with speed brake extended, the rate of descent is approximately ___. To descend from FL 390 to FL 100, it takes approximately ___

Answer 566

7 000 ft/min 4 min and 40 NM.

Question 567

EMER DESCENT The flight crew should suspect structural damage in case of a loud bang, or high cabin vertical speed. If the flight crew suspects structural damage, apply both of the following:

Answer 567

‐ Set the SPEED/MACH pb to SPEED, to prevent an increase in the IAS, or to reduce the speed. This action minimizes the stress on aircraft structure ‐ Carefully use the speed brakes, to avoid additional stress on aircraft structure.

Question 568

If the cabin altitude goes above ___ , the flight crew must press the MASK MAN ON pb.

Answer 568

14 000 ft

Question 569

EMER DESCENT Finally, subsequent to an emergency descent, once the oxygen masks are removed, the flight crew should perform all of the following:

Answer 569

‐ Close the oxygen stowage mask compartment ‐ Press the PRESS TO RESET oxygen control slide, to deactivate the mask microphone, and to cut off the oxygen.

Question 570

EMER DESCENT Below FL 100, the flight crew should limit the rate of descent to

Answer 570

approximately 1 000 ft/min, except during the approach phase.

Question 571

The typical case, which may require an emergency evacuation, is

Answer 571

an uncontrollable on ground engine fire.

Question 572

EMER EVAC If fire remains out of control after ___ , the captain calls for the EMER EVAC procedure.

Answer 572

having discharged the fire agents

Question 573

EMER EVAC procedure requires an additional Delta P check:

Answer 573

since the residual pressure sensor indicator (installed in the cabin door) is inhibited when slides are in the armed position

Question 574

EVACUATION PROCEDURE The Delta P check is therefore not applicable when:

Answer 574

automatic pressure control is operative, the flight crew can rely on the CPC

Question 575

EMER EVAC If the automatic pressure control systems fails during flight, the CAB PR SYS 1+2 FAULT ECAM alert requires to set the MAN V/S CTL sw to FULL UP position during final approach to cancel

Answer 575

any residual cabin pressure

Question 576

Emergency evacuation following a rejected takeoff, the Delta P check does not apply because:

Answer 576

at least one automatic cabin pressure control system must be operative at departure

Question 577

On ground with engines stopped, only the ___ light is operational, allowing the EMER EVAC procedure completion.

Answer 577

right dome

Question 578

EMER EVAC procedure When the aircraft is on battery power, the cockpit seats must be operated:

Answer 578

mechanically

Question 579

FLIGHT CREW INCAPACITATION Symptoms may indicate the beginning of incapacitation

Answer 579

incoherent speech, a pale and(or) fixed facial expression, or irregular breathing & absence of standard callouts at the appropriate time

Question 580

In the case of flight crew incapacitation, the fit flight crewmember should apply the following actions:

Answer 580

‐ Take over and ensure a safe flight path: ‐ Inform the ATC of the emergency ‐ Take any steps possible to contain the incapacitated flight crewmember. These steps may involve cabin attendants ‐ In order to reduce the workload, consider: * Early approach preparation and checklists reading * Automatic Landing * Use of radar vectoring and long approach. ‐ Land at the nearest suitable airport after consideration of all pertinent factors ‐ Arrange medical assistance onboard and after landing, providing as many details as possible about the condition of the affected flight crewmember ‐ Request assistance from any medically qualified passenger, except for flight with only two flight

Question 581

If the incapacitated flight crewmember causes interference with the handling of the aircraft, press the sidestick pb for ___

Answer 581

40 seconds includes the time necessary for AP deactivation (if AP engaged) and the time for offside sidestick deactivation

Question 582

On all Airbus aircraft, engines are mounted under the wing. As a consequence a thrust increase results in

Answer 582

pitch-up effect, and a thrust decrease results in a pitch-down effect

Question 583

The ___ aural alert announces a low energy situation. This situation requires a flight crew action to increase the energy.

Answer 583

"SPEED, SPEED, SPEED"

Question 584

LOW ENERGY RECOVERY This situation requires a flight crew action to increase the energy by:

Answer 584

Increase the thrust and/or adjust the pitch depending on the situation, until the aural alert stops.

Question 585

During normal operations, the aircraft may temporarily exceed VMO/MMO due to

Answer 585

wind gradients.

Question 586

Exceeding VMO/MMO requires maintenance inspection because:

Answer 586

in the case of overspeed, the aircraft may encounter vertical load factors that may exceed the aircraft limits

Question 587

If the aircraft encounters significant speed variations close to VMO/MMO during flight, the following OVERSPEED PREVENTION TECHNIQUE apply.

Answer 587

- Keep the AP and A/THR engaged - Select a lower target speed in order to increase the margin to VMO/MMO not below Green Dot - Monitor the speed trend arrow on the PFD - Use of speed brakes depending on the rate of acceleration. The length of the speed trend arrow is a good indication of the rate of acceleration.

Question 588

OVERSPEED RECOVERY TECHNIQUE The OVERSPEED alert is triggered if the speed/Mach exceeds ___, and lasts until the speed is below VMO/MMO

Answer 588

VMO +4 kt/MMO +M 0.006

Question 589

OVERSPEED RECOVERY TECHNIQUE In order to minimize overspeed, the flight crew should

Answer 589

- Extend the speed brakes - If the A/THR is ON, keep it engaged and check that the thrust is reducing to idle - If the A/THR is OFF, set all thrust levers to idle

Question 590

In the case of severe overspeed, the AP automatically disengages and then

Answer 590

high speed protection activates in normal law. As a result, the aircraft encounters an automatic pitch up.

Question 591

The AP does not automatically disengage as soon as the speed reaches the green bars (that represent the threshold when the high speed protection activates) on the PFD. The AP disengagement depends on

Answer 591

speed variations and the high speed protection logic

Question 592

The flight crew must disregard the FD orders while the high speed protection is active because:

Answer 592

The FD orders do not take into account the high speed protection

Question 593

OVERSPEED RECOVERY The flight crew should keep the speed brakes because

Answer 593

use of the speed brakes is compatible with the high speed protection.

Question 594

The significant speed variations near VMO/MMO and above VMO/MMO may be one of the first indications of

Answer 594

possible severe turbulence

Question 595

Should an overweight landing be required, a ___ , should be flown in order to configure the aircraft for an early stabilized approach.

Answer 595

long straight in approach, or a wide visual pattern

Question 596

OVERWEIGHT LANDING The speed will be reduced to reach ___ at runway threshold, to minimize the aircraft energy.

Answer 596

VLS

Question 597

OVERWEIGHT LANDING At very high weight, if VFE CONF 1 is below VLS, the flight crew must

Answer 597

disconnect the A/THR to decelerate to VFE CONF 1.

Question 598

OVERWEIGHT LANDING The crew will elect the landing configuration based on landing performance computation:

Answer 598

* If aircraft weight is below the maximum weight for go-around in CONF 3, landing will be performed CONF full (and go-around CONF 3) as it is the preferred configuration for optimized landing performance * If aircraft weight is above the maximum weight for go-around in CONF 3, landing will be performed CONF 3 (and go-around CONF 1+F). The CONF 1+F meets the approach climb gradient requirement in all cases (high weights, high altitude and temperature).

Question 599

The minimum go-around speed required by regulations is

Answer 599

1.13 VS1G

Question 600

When the aircraft weight exceeds the maximum landing weight, structural considerations impose the ability to touch down at ___ without damage

Answer 600

360 ft/min If vertical speed exceeds 360 ft/min at touch down, a maintenance inspection is required.

Question 601

Some factors that can detract from a successful rejected takeoff are as follows:

Answer 601

‐ Tire damage ‐ Brakes worn or not working correctly ‐ Brakes not being fully applied ‐ Error in gross weight determination ‐ Incorrect performance calculations ‐ Incorrect runway line-up technique ‐ Initial brake temperature ‐ Delay in initiating the stopping procedure ‐ Runway friction coefficient lower than expected.

Question 602

The line-up technique is very important. The pilot should use

Answer 602

over steer technique to minimize field length loss and consequently, to maximize the acceleration-stop distance available.

Question 603

ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential from

Answer 603

80 kt to 1 500 ft (or 2 min after lift-off, whichever occurs first)

Question 604

REJECTED TAKEOFF To assist in the decision making process, the takeoff is divided into

Answer 604

low and high speeds regimes, with 100 kt being chosen as the dividing line

Question 605

Above 100 kt, and below V1: the Captain should be "go-minded" and very few situations should lead to the decision to reject the takeoff:

Answer 605

1. Fire warning, or severe damage 2. Sudden loss of engine thrust 3. Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will not fly safely 4. Any red ECAM warning 5. Any amber ECAM caution listed below: ‐ F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT ‐ ENG 1(2) FAIL ‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT ‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSE UNLOCKED ‐ ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT

Question 606

In case of tire failure between V1 minus 20 kt and V1,

Answer 606

it is far better to get airborne, reduce the fuel load, and land with a full runway length available unless debris from the tires has caused serious engine anomalies.

Question 607

Full reverse thrust may be used until coming to a complete stop. But, if there is enough runway available at the end of the deceleration, it is preferable to reduce reverse thrust when passing ___ .

Answer 607

70 kt

Question 608

If the takeoff is rejected prior to 72 kt, the captain simultaneously reduces thrust and applies maximum pressure on both pedals because:

Answer 608

autobrake not active and no deployment of spoilers

Question 609

After a rejected takeoff, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, release brakes prior to taxi by

Answer 609

disarming spoilers

Question 610

RTO TECHNIQUE Do not attempt to vacate the runway, until

Answer 610

It is absolutely clear that an evacuation is not necessary and that it is safe to do so.

Question 611

TAKEOFF FOLLOWING RTO In this case, the flight crew should:

Answer 611

‐ Reset both FDs and set FCU ‐ Restart SOP from the AFTER START checklist.

Question 612

DEFINITION OF THE STALL The stall is a condition in aerodynamics where

Answer 612

Angle of Attack (AOA) increases beyond a point such that the lift begins to decrease.

Question 613

As per basic aerodynamic rules, the lift coefficient (CL) increases linearly with the AOA up to a point where

Answer 613

airflow starts to separate from the upper surface of the wing.

Question 614

At and beyond CL MAX, the flight crew may observe:

Answer 614

‐ Buffeting, which depends on the slats/flaps configuration and increases at high altitude due to the high Mach number ‐ Pitch up effect, mainly for swept wings and aft CG. This effect further increases the AOA.

Question 615

The stall will always occur at the same AOA for

Answer 615

given configuration, Mach number and altitude

Question 616

Slats and Flaps have a different impact on the Lift coefficient obtained for a given AOA. Both Slats and Flaps create an increase in

Answer 616

maximum lift coefficient

Question 617

INFLUENCE OF SPEED BRAKES AND ICING ON LIFT COEFFICIENT VERSUS ANGLE OF ATTACK Speed brake extension and ice accretion ___ the maximum lift coefficient

Answer 617

reduce

Question 618

The flight crew must apply the stall recovery procedure as soon as they recognize any of the following stall indications:

Answer 618

‐ Stall warnings ‐ Stall buffet

Question 619

Stall warnings provide sufficient margin to alert the flight crew in advance of the:

Answer 619

actual stall even with contaminated wings

Question 620

Buffet is recognized by airframe vibrations that are caused by

Answer 620

the non-stationary airflow separation from the wing surface when approaching AOAstall.

Question 621

When the Mach number increases, both the AOAstall and CL MAX will:

Answer 621

decrease

Question 622

STALL RECOVERY ‐ The immediate key action is to: ‐ The secondary action is to:

Answer 622

- reduce AOA - increase energy

Question 623

STALL RECOVERY Immediate maximum thrust application upon stall recognition is not appropriate because:

Answer 623

for under wing mounted engines, the thrust increase generates a pitch up that may prevent the required reduction of AOA

Question 624

STALL RECOVERY If in clean configuration and below FL 200, during flight path recovery, the flight crew must

Answer 624

select FLAPS 1 in order to increase the margin to AOAstall.

Question 625

STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF Spurious stall warnings at liftoff may be triggered in the case of:

Answer 625

‐ Damage to the AOA probes ‐ Ice Ridges degrading pitot and AOA ‐ Wake Vortex.

Question 626

Each ADIRS has two parts ___ , that may fail independently of each other

Answer 626

ADR and IRS

Question 627

IRS part may fail totally or may be available in ___

Answer 627

ATT mode

Question 628

Single NAV ADR FAULT or NAV IRS FAULT are simple procedures, and only require action on the

Answer 628

switching panel as indicated by the ECAM.

Question 629

Dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS failures will cause

Answer 629

loss of AP and A/THR and the flight controls revert to ALTN law.

Question 630

The NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT warning is triggered and the ECAM procedure requires to switch OFF the 3 ADRs and to press the BKUP SPD/ALT pb in order to display

Answer 630

BUSS/DBUS and GPS altitude information.

Question 631

To switch off an ADR, the flight crew must use the ADR pb. Do not use the rotary selector, because

Answer 631

this would also cut off the electrical supply to the IR part

Question 632

The most probable reason for erroneous airspeed and/or altitude information is

Answer 632

obstruction of the pitot and/or static probes

Question 633

The flight controls system and the flight guidance system both use this voting principle:

Answer 633

When the data provided by one source diverges from the average value, the systems automatically reject this source and continue to operate normally using the remaining two sources.

Question 634

Each ELAC receives speed information from

Answer 634

three ADRs and compares the three values. The ELACs do not use the pressure altitude.

Question 635

Each FAC receives speed and pressure altitude information from

Answer 635

three ADRs and compares the three values.

Question 636

ONE ADR OUTPUT IS ERRONEOUS AND THE TWO REMAINING ARE CORRECT The ___ and the ___ eliminate the erroneous ADR.

Answer 636

ELACs & FAC and/or FMGC The autoland capability is downgraded to CAT 3 SINGLE

Question 637

TWO ADR OUTPUTS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT, AND THE REMAINING ADR IS CORRECT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT :

Answer 637

- AP and A/THR disconnect - ELACs trigger the NAV ADR DISAGREE ECAM - Flight controls revert to alternate law without high and low speed protection - On both PFDs: ‐ The SPD LIMflag appears ‐ No VLS, no VSW and no VMAX are displayed

Question 638

ONE ADR IS CORRECT, BUT THE OTHER TWO ADRS PROVIDE THE SAME ERRONEOUS OUTPUT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS PROVIDE CONSISTENT AND ERRONEOUS DATA :

Answer 638

The systems reject the correct ADR and continue to operate using the two erroneous but consistent ADRs

Question 639

At high altitude, typically above FL 250, the cases of unreliable speed situation are mostly

Answer 639

temporary phenomenon. typically disappears after few minutes, allowing to recover normal speed indications.

Question 640

POTENTIAL EFFECTS ON THE BAROMETRIC ALTITUDE If the barometric altitude is unreliable

Answer 640

- Flight Path Vector (FPV) and the Vertical Speed (V/S) are affected. - ATC transponder may transmit an incorrect altitude - Autopilot (AP) may not be able to maintain level flight.

Question 641

When the DBUS is activated, ___ are still displayed so that the crew can visualize flight envelope boundaries

Answer 641

characteristic speeds

Question 642

___ is also in charge of the Speed Monitoring Function and backup speed computation.

Answer 642

FAC

Question 643

TWO ADR OUTPUTS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT, AND THE REMAINING ADR IS CORRECT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT : The Speed Monitoring Function

Answer 643

- AP and A/THR disconnect - Speed Monitoring Function rejects the erroneous ADR - erroneous ADR are indicated as FAULT - The flight controls revert to alternate law without high and low speed protection. - FAC triggers the NAV AIR SPD STS CHANGED ECAM

Question 644

ONE ADR IS CORRECT, BUT THE OTHER TWO ADRS PROVIDE THE SAME ERRONEOUS OUTPUT : Speed Monitoring Function

Answer 644

- The Speed Monitoring Function rejects the two erroneous ADRs thanks to mutual comparison between speed sources and their individual monitoring - NAV AIR SPD STS CHANGED ECAM - two erroneous ADRs are declared FAULT

Question 645

THREE ADRS PROVIDE CONSISTENT AND ERRONEOUS DATA : Speed Monitoring Function

Answer 645

- detects the simultaneous and consistent fast decrease of speeds and rejects the three ADRs - NAV AIR SPD STS CHANGED ECAM - three erroneous ADRs are declared FAULT - crew is advised to activate the DBUS

Question 646

"UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION" QRH PROCEDURE Rely on the STALL warning. Erroneous airspeed data does not affect the STALL warning, because the STALL warning is based on

Answer 646

AOA data

Question 647

"UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION" QRH PROCEDURE The flight crew must apply the QRH procedure without delay, because flying with the memory pitch/thrust values for an extended period of time can lead to

Answer 647

exceed the aircraft speed limits.

Question 648

When flying the aircraft with unreliable speed and/or altitude indications, it is recommended to

Answer 648

change only one flight parameter at a time (i.e. speed, altitude or configuration).

Question 649

DIGITAL BACKUP SPEED When DBUS is active: The flight crew should change the aircraft configuration with wings level using back-up characteristic speeds displayed on

Answer 649

PFD (VMAX corresponds to VFE/VMO and VMIN corresponds to VSW).

Question 650

"UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION" QRH PROCEDURE Below FL 250, the flight crew uses the ___, Above FL 250, the flight crew can use the ___

Answer 650

- reversible BUSS ‐ Pitch/Thrust tables of the QRH, See Pitch/Thrust Tables.

Question 651

REVERSIBLE BACKUP SPEED SCALE (BUSS) The flight crew adjusts the pitch and thrust to

Answer 651

Fly the green area of the speed scale. The BUSS is directly based on the current AOA.

Question 652

When flying with the BUSS, do not use the speed brakes because:

Answer 652

Speed brakes extended affects the relationship between the speed and AOA, and therefore the BUSS may provide erroneous data.

Question 653

When the reversible BUSS is active: To retract or to extend flaps, apply the following technique:

Answer 653

‐ Before retracting the next flaps configuration, fly the upper part of the green band ‐ Before extending the next flaps configuration, fly the lower part of the green band.

Question 654

DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE The Radio Altimeters (RAs) provide inputs to a number of systems, including

Answer 654

GPWS and FWC for auto-callouts. They also supply information to the AP and A/THR modes, plus inputs to switch flight control laws at various stages

Question 655

Instead of using RA information, the flight control system uses inputs from

Answer 655

LGCIU to determine mode switching

Question 656

DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE RA 1 + 2 FAULT Mode switching is as follows:

Answer 656

‐ On approach, DIRECT LAW becomes active when the L/G is selected down and provided AP is disconnected. At this point, "USE MAN PITCH TRIM" is displayed on the PFD. ‐ After landing, ground law becomes active when the MLG is compressed and the pitch attitude becomes less than 2.5 °.

Question 657

DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE the consequences of the failure:

Answer 657

- not possible to capture the ILS using the APPR pb - approach must be flown to CAT 1 - possible to capture the localiser using the LOC pb - the final stages of the approach should be flown using raw data - no auto-callouts on approach, and no "RETARD" call in the flare - GPWS/EGPWS will be inoperative - low energy warning is also inoperative

Question 658

If the smoke or fumes are detected by the crew, without any ECAM alert, the flight crew will refer directly to

Answer 658

[QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure

Question 659

If the AVIONICS SMOKE alert is activated, the flight crew can refer directly to

Answer 659

[QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure or apply first the ECAM actions

Question 660

SMOKE / FUMES DETECTION AND PROCEDURE APPLICATION Key element is

Answer 660

Good coordination between cockpit and cabin crew

Question 661

The [QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure implements a global philosophy that is applicable to both cabin and cockpit smoke/fumes cases. This philosophy includes the following main steps:

Answer 661

‐ Diversion to be anticipated ‐ Immediate actions.

Question 662

The [QRH] SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE procedure implements a global philosophy that is applicable to both cabin and cockpit smoke/fumes cases. If smoke/fumes source not immediately isolated:

Answer 662

‐ Diversion initiation ‐ Smoke/fumes origin identification and fighting.

Question 663

SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE Procedure Presentation in QRH

Answer 663

- LAND ASAP - IMMEDIATE ACTIONS - INITIATE DIVERSION - BOXED ITEMS - SOURCE IDENTIFICATION & FIGHTING

Question 664

IMMEDIATE ACTIONS are common to all cases of smoke or fumes, whatever the source. Their objectives are:

Answer 664

‐ Flight crew protection ‐ Avoiding any further contamination of the cockpit/cabin ‐ Communication with cabin crew.

Question 665

SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING If smoke/fumes initially come out of the cockpit's ventilation outlets, or if smoke/fumes are detected in the cabin, the crew may suspect

Answer 665

AIR COND SMOKE/FUMES

Question 666

SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING Following an identified ENG or APU failure, smoke/fumes may emanate from the faulty item through the bleed system and be perceptible in the cockpit or the cabin. In that case, it will be re-circulated throughout the aircraft, until

Answer 666

completely disappears from the air conditioning system.

Question 667

SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING According to the source he suspects, the crew will enter one of the 3 paragraphs:

Answer 667

1. IF AIR COND SMOKE/FUMES SUSPECTED... 2. IF CAB EQUIPMENT SMOKE/FUMES SUSPECTED... 3. IF AVNCS/COCKPIT SMOKE/FUMES SUSPECTED...

Question 668

SMOKE/FUMES ORIGIN IDENTIFICATION AND FIGHTING ___ is the most critical case

Answer 668

electrical fire the flight crew must consider setting the Emergency Electrical Configuration, to shed as much equipment as possible. This is in order to attempt to isolate the smoke/fumes source.

Question 669

the procedure for attempting to partially shed the electrical system was removed from the smoke/fumes procedure. This change in the procedure is to enable the flight crew to

Answer 669

recover the normal electrical configuration for landing, particularly to recover normal braking.

Question 670

In ELEC EMER CONFIG following AVIONICS SMOKE case, the ECAM displays a specific procedure taking into account smoke detection: flight crew has voluntarily set the ELEC EMER CONFIG, the purpose of procedure is not to try to restore the generators, but to remain in electrical emergency configuration, and restore generators before landing to perform the landing in

Answer 670

normal electrical configuration.

Question 671

[QRH] REMOVAL OF SMOKE / FUMES procedure will be completed reaching

Answer 671

FL 100

Question 672

CARGO SMOKE The crew should be aware that, even after successful operation of the cargo fire bottle, the CARGO SMOKE warning might persist due to

Answer 672

smoke detectors being sensitive to the extinguishing agent

Question 673

CARGO SMOKE If SMOKE warning is displayed on ground with the cargo compartment door OPEN,

Answer 673

- do not initiate an AGENT DISCHARGE - Request the ground crew to investigate and eliminate the smoke source

Question 674

CARGO SMOKE On ground, the warning may be triggered due to

Answer 674

high level of humidity