Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

A cardiologist requests coronary images at 50%-75% of the R-to-R interval. What gating method can accomplish this request?

A. Prospective gating

B. Retrospective gating

C. Both prospective and retrospective gating

D. No gating is required

A

C. Both prospective and retrospective gating

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2
Q

A CT scan is requested to evaluate a patient for a thoracic aorta aneurysm. The patient weighs 147 pounds, they have a history of COPD, and they are in acute renal failure. Which of these contrast injection parameters would be ideal for this patient?

A. 100 ml at 3 ml/second

B. 150 ml at 4 ml/second

C. 100 ml at 4 ml /second

D. 150 ml at 3 ml/second

A

C. 100 ml at 4 ml /second

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3
Q

A diagnosis of hilar adenopathy is an indication for which of these imaging protocols?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA Chest for Pulmonary Embolism

C. CT Chest in venous phase

D. CT High Resolution Chest

A

C. CT Chest in venous phase

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4
Q

A general survey of the chest for a trauma patient should be completed using which of these CT protocols?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

C. CT chest in venous phase

D. CT high resolution chest

A

C. CT chest in venous phase

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5
Q

A general survey of the sinuses is requested on 35 year old female with chronic sinusitis. Compared to 1.25 mm slices, 3.75 mm slices will result in:

A. More image noise
B. More spatial resolution
C. Fewer images
D. Lower dose

A

C. Fewer images

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6
Q

A known blood clot in the transverse sinus of the brain could be best evaluated with which IV contrast timing method?

A. Bolus tracking in the ascending aorta
B. Timing bolus monitoring in the internal carotid artery
C. 45-second scan delay time
D. 90-second scan delay time

A

C. 45-second scan delay time

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7
Q

A new CT protocol requires scanning the liver exactly 25 seconds after initiating IV contrast injection. This can be accomplished by which scan timing method?

A. Scan delay time
B. Test bolus
C. Bolus tracking

A

A. Scan delay time

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8
Q

A patient arrives in the radiology department with complaints of lower back pain and numbness in the lower extremities. Initial evaluation in diagnostic x-ray shows collapse of L3-L4 disc space, with a suspected ruptured disc. What protocol should be used to assess the intrusion of the ruptured disc into the spinal canal?

A. CT spine without contrast

B. CT spine with contrast after 45 second delay time

C. CT spine with contrast after 90 second delay time

D. CT myelogram with intrathecal contrast

A

D. CT myelogram with intrathecal contrast

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9
Q

A patient arrives in your department after a motor vehicle accident with right flank pain. What CT scan is most likely to be ordered by the attending physician?

A. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

B. CT angiography abdomen and pelvis

C. CT multiphase pancreas

D. CT appendicitis

A

A. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

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10
Q

A patient arrives in your department for evaluation of a known renal artery stenosis. What imaging protocol should be performed?

A. CTA abdomen and Pelvis

B. CTA thoracic aorta

C. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

D. CT enterography

A

A. CTA abdomen and Pelvis

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11
Q

A patient arrives in your department unresponsive. No history is known. The appropriate scan to perform is:

A. Routine CT head without contrast
B. Routine CT head with contrast
C. CTA head and neck
D. CT Venogram

A

A. Routine CT head without contrast

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12
Q

A patient diagnosed with a subdural hematoma is to be evaluated in your department. What is the correct protocol for assessing changes in the subdural hematoma?

A, CT head without contrast
B. CT head with contrast]
C. CT angiography head
D. CT head with and without contrast

A

A, CT head without contrast

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13
Q

A patient experiencing acute flank pain with hematuria should be evaluated with what CT study?

A. CT abdomen and pelvis without contrast

B. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

C. CT angiography abdomen and pelvis

D. CT multiphase kidneys

A

A. CT abdomen and pelvis without contrast

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14
Q

A patient has experienced trauma to their right eye. Soft tissue changes are best visualized with which image window?

A. 2600 WW and 500 WL
B. 400 WL and 600 WL
C. 80 WW and 40 WL
D. 400 WW and 40 WL

A

D. 400 WW and 40 WL

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15
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is experiencing severe upper back pain and an injury to the aorta is suspected. What is the best imaging protocol to evaluate the patient for this condition?

A. CTA chest of thoracic aorta

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

C. CT chest in venous phase

D. CT high resolution chest

A

A. CTA chest of thoracic aorta

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16
Q

A patient is presented to the ER with extreme right sided abdominal pain for 1 hour. The patient has a surgical history of appendectomy and cholecystectomy. Urinalysis demonstrated micro-hematuria. What study is likely to be used to assess this patient?

A. CT for renal stones

B. CT for pulmonary embolism

C. CT for aortic dissection

D. CT for renal mass

A

A. CT for renal stones

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17
Q

A patient is suspected as having a tumor obstructing the valve connecting the right ureter to the bladder. This condition is best evaluated with what IV contrast scan delay time?

A. 30 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 90 seconds

D. 5 minutes

A

D. 5 minutes

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18
Q

A patient presenting with symptoms of stroke and no prior imaging should be evaluated with which CT scanning protocol?

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head with contrast
C. CT angiography head
D. CT head with and without contrast

A

A. CT head without contrast

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19
Q

A patient presents to the radiology department for imaging of a soft-tissue tumor on the lower leg. What scan protocol should be used?

A. CT with IV contrast

B. CT with intra-articular acontrast

C. MRI with IV contrast

D. CT without contrast

A

C. MRI with IV contrast

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20
Q

A patient requires imaging of a known aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery. The appropriate scan to perform is:

A. Routine CT head without contrast
B. Routine CT head with contrast
C. CTA head
D. CTA head and neck

A

C. CTA head

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21
Q

A patient with a dental abscess is suspected as having an infection in the brain. The correct CT protocol is:

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head with contrast
C. CT angiography head
D. CT head with and without contrast.

A

D. CT head with and without contrast.

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22
Q

A patient with a history of a cigarette smoking and COPD is suspected as having a primary lung cancer. What CT imaging procedure should be used to scan this patient?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA Chest for Pulmonary Embolism

C. CT Chest in venous phase

D. CT High Resolution Chest

A

C. CT Chest in venous phase

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23
Q

A patient with advanced bladder cancer needs a CT scan to check for metastatic disease in the lungs. The appropriate imaging protocol is:

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

C. CT chest in venous phase

D. CT high resolution chest

A

C. CT chest in venous phase

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24
Q

A positive D-dimer test may indicate the need for which of these CT protocols?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA Chest for Pulmonary Embolism

C. CT Chest in venous phase

D. CT High Resolution Chest

A

B. CTA Chest for Pulmonary Embolism

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25
Q

A suspected liver mass is an indication for which of these studies?

A. CT abdomen pelvis in portal venous phase

B. CT abdomen in multiple phases

C. CT abdomen without contrast

D. CTA of the abdomen

A

B. CT abdomen in multiple phases

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26
Q

A Type-B aortic dissection should be evaluated using which of these contrast-timing methods?

A. 30- second delay time

B. Bolus tracking in the pulmonary arteries

C. Bolus tracking in the descending aorta

D. Non-contrast

A

C. Bolus tracking in the descending aorta

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27
Q

A _______ (also called prep time) is the amount of time between the initiation of contrast injection and the initiation of the scan.

A

Scan delay time.

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28
Q

A _______ is known to enhance image quality in the chest and reduce the total contrast volume needed for the scan.

A

Saline trailer

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29
Q

A. patient with a current history of colon cancer arrives in the emergency department with sudden onset blurred vision. What is the correct CT protocol for initial evaluation of the patient?

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head with contrast
C. CT angiography head
D. CT head without and with contrast

A

A. CT head without contrast

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30
Q

Advantages of helical scanning over axial scanning include:*

  1. Decreased scan time
  2. Decreased patient dose
  3. Increased spatial resolution

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

A

C. 1 and 2 only

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31
Q

After scanning a chest, abdomen, and pelvis with contrast on a trauma patient, the attending physician requests lumbar spine reconstructions to evaluate for spinal fractures. What slice parameters should be used for the axial images?

A. 1.25 mm slice thickness and 0.625 mm slice interval
B. 5.0 mm slice thickness and 5.0 mm slice interval
C. 2.5 mm slice thickness and 2.5 mm slice interval
D. 3.75 mm slice thickness and 3.75 mm slice interval

A

C. 2.5 mm slice thickness and 2.5 mm slice interval

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32
Q

An elderly patient with a prior history of breast cancer arrives in the emergency department with sudden onset mental status change. What is the correct CT protocol for initial evaluation of the patient?

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head with contrast
C. CT angiography head
D. CT head without and with contrast

A

A. CT head without contrast

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33
Q

An ER physician requests that you scan a patient’s liver to evaluate for traumatic injuries. What phase of contrast should be used?

  1. Non-contrast
  2. Arterial phase
  3. Portal venous phase
  4. Delayed phase

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

C. 3 only

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34
Q

An evaluation of known cerebral metastasis indicates which CT imaging procedure:

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head with contrast
C. CT angiography head
D. CT head without and with contrast

A

D. CT head without and with contrast

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35
Q

An evaluation of known cerebral metastasis indicates which CT imaging procedure:

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head with contrast
C. CT angiography head
D. CT head with and without contrast

A

D. CT head with and without contrast

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36
Q

An ordering physician requests high resolution images of a patient to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. The patient has a cough and the chest x-rays show consolidations in the lower lungs. What is the appropriate protocol to use?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

C. CT chest in venous phase

D. CT high resolution chest

A

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

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37
Q

Angiographic imaging of the cerebrum can successfully be performed with which of these contrast injection flow rates?

A. 5 mL/sec
B. 2 mL/sec
C. 1 mL/sec
D. Flowrate does not affect imaging.

A

A. 5 mL/sec

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38
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is an arthritic condition of the spine resulting in the fusion of adjacent vertebrae. What imaging protocol should be used to evaluate this condition?

A. CT spine without contrast

B. CT spine with intravenous contrast

C. CT Myelogram

D. MRI is preferred

A

A. CT spine without contrast

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39
Q

Axial images of the abdomen to be used for multiplanar reformations (MPR) should be reconstructed as:

A. 5.0 mm slices in a smoothing algorithm

B. 1.0 mm slices in an edge enhancing algorithm

C. 5.0 mm slices in an edge enhancing algorithm

D. 1.0 mm slices in a smoothing algorithm

A

D. 1.0 mm slices in a smoothing algorithm

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40
Q

Axial images of the CT abdomen and pelvis for routine viewing are typically reconstructed as:

A. 5 mm slices in a smoothing algorithm

B. 1 mm slices in an edge-enhancing algorithm

C. 5 mm slices in an edge-enhancing algorithm

D. 1 mm slices in a smoothing algorithm

A

A. 5 mm slices in a smoothing algorithm

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41
Q

Axial imaging of the facial bones should be oriented:

A. Parallel to the hard palate
B. Perpendicular to the floor of the maxillary sinus
C. Parallel to the supra-orbital meatal line
D. Perpendicular to the supra-orbital meatal line

A

A. Parallel to the hard palate

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42
Q

Based on the appearance of the image below, what scan delay time was used to acquire the image?

A. non-contrast

B. 30 seconds

C. 60 seconds

D. 5 minutes

A

C. 60 seconds

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43
Q

Based on the appearance of this image what imaging protocol was used to scan the patient?

A. 30-second scan delay time

B. Bolus tracking in the pulmonary arteries

C. Bolus tracking in the ascending aorta

D. Non-contrast

A

C. Bolus tracking in the ascending aorta

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44
Q

Based on the appearance of this image, what imaging protocol was used to scan the patient?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA chest of pulmonary embolism

C. CT chest in venous phase

D. CT High resolution chest

A

B. CTA chest of pulmonary embolism

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45
Q

Based on the appearance of this image, what imaging protocol was used to scan this patient?

A. 30- second delay time

B. Bolus tracking in the pulmonary arteries

C. Bolus tracking in the descending aorta

D. Non-contrast

A

A. 30- second delay time

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46
Q

Based on the appearance of this image, what imaging protocol was used for this patient?
A. CTA of the head and neck
B. CTA of the circle of Willis
C. CT soft tissue neck
D. CT head with and without contrast.

A

A. CTA of the head and neck

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47
Q

Based on the appearance of this image, why is this image inappropriate for diagnostic interpretation?

A. Failure to include the entire cervical spine

B. Incorrect orientation of the sagittal reformation

C. Failure to process in the correct algorithm

D. Incorrect windowing presentation

A

D. Incorrect windowing presentation

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48
Q

Based on the image below, what is the maximum intraluminal pressure that will be allowed during the IV contrast injection?

A. 4.5 ml/sec

B. 45 ml

C. 72 ml

D. 325 psi

A

D. 325 psi

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49
Q

Based on the smooth appearance of anatomic structures, what reconstruction algorithm may have been used to create this image?
A. Standard algorithm
B. Bone algorithm
C. Edge enhancing.

A

A. Standard algorithm

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50
Q

Claudication is a medical term that refers to

A. Ulceration

B. Difficult walking

C. Loss of blood flow

D. Loss of feeling

A

B. Difficult walking

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51
Q

Consider a patient admitted to the emergency department for flank pain, hematuria, and suspected renal stone. CT imaging for the initial assessment of the collecting system should be performed during which phase of contrast enhancement?

A. Non-contrast

B. Excretory phase

C. Arterial phase

D. Portal venous phase

A

A. Non-contrast

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52
Q

Consider a patient being evaluated for flank pain. If a non-contrast CT scan identifies a large hepatic tumor, what phase of contrast would be used in further characterizing the tumor?

  1. Arterial
  2. Venous phase
  3. Delayed phase

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

A

D. 1, 2 and 3

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53
Q

Consider a patient scheduled for a CTA pulmonary embolism scan. After testing the peripheral IV, the technologist decreases the contrast injection rate to 2.5 ml per second to avoid infiltration. This scan may lack diagnostic quality as a result of:

A. Unacceptable image noise

B. Poor contrast enhancement

C. Increased patient dose

D. Loss of spatial resolution

A

B. Poor contrast enhancement

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54
Q

Consider a patient that arrives in your department with a weak pulse in the lower extremities. What CT protocol would be most appropriate for evaluating this condition?

A. CTA for pulmonary embolism

B. CTA thoracic aorta

C. CT Abdomen and pelvis with contrast

D. CTA runoff

A

D. CTA runoff

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55
Q

Consider a patient with the symptoms of stroke. If routine imaging shows no focal ischemia or hemorrhage, what CT procedure may be indicated?

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head without and with contrast
C. CTA head
D. CTA head and neck

A

D. CTA head and neck

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56
Q

Contrast-enhanced imaging of the orbits (in venous phase) can be accomplished by:

A. Initiating contrast injection 30 seconds prior to scanning
B. Initiating contrast injection 60 seconds prior to scanning
C. Initiating contrast injection 120 seconds prior to scanning
D. Initiating contrast injection 15 seconds prior to scanning

A

B. Initiating contrast injection 60 seconds prior to scanning

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57
Q

Crohn’s disease is a condition that is best imaged using which of these CT protocols?

A. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

B. CTA abdomen and pelvis

C. CT enterography

D. CT liver

A

C. CT enterography

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58
Q

CT angiography images of the coronary arteries should be acquired during what phase of the cardiac cycle?

A. Ventricular systole

B. Ventricular diastole

C. Atrial systole

D. Atrial diastole

A

B. Ventricular diastole

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59
Q

CT evaluation of tibial neoplasm requires which of the following contrast protocols?

A. Oral contrast

B. Rectal contrast

C. Intra-articular contrast

D. Intravenous contrast

A

D. Intravenous contrast

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60
Q

CTA imaging of the abdomen and pelvis can be accomplished using bolus tracking in the:

A. Ascending aorta

B. Aorta at the level of the diaphragm

C. Aorta at the level of the iliac bifurcation

D. Descending aorta at the level of the carina

A

B. Aorta at the level of the diaphragm

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61
Q

Diabetic ulcers may be an indication for which of these CT examinations?

A. CTA for pulmonary embolism

B. CTA thoracic aorta

C. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

D. CTA runoff

A

D. CTA runoff

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62
Q

Displayed CT images are processed to display a specific amount of anatomical data in each image. This is the:

A. Reconstruction slice thickness

B. Reconstruction slice interval

C. Acquisition slice thickness

D. Beam width

A

A. Reconstruction slice thickness

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63
Q

During a cardiac CT, what medication may be administered to correct tachycardia prior to imaging?

A. Glucagon

B. Beta blockers

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Analgesics

A

B. Beta blockers

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64
Q

During a CT of the chest for pulmonary embolism, the technologist injects 50% of the recommended of volume of contrast. How will this affect the scan?

A. Unacceptable image noise

B. Poor contrast enhancement

C. Increased patient dose

D. Loss of spatial resolution

A

B. Poor contrast enhancement

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65
Q

During coronary CTA, an excessive heart rate could result in:

A. Motion blur

B. Poor contrast enhancement

C. Ring artifact

D. Vascular spasm

A

A. Motion blur

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66
Q

During the monitoring phase of bolus tracking you see several images showing no contrast at all. Possible explanations include:

A. The contrast injection was never initiated

B. The contrast has infiltrated

C. The saline and contrast syringes were loaded backwards

D. All of the answer options listed are correct

A

D. All of the answer options listed are correct

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67
Q

Emphysema is a condition of the lung parenchyma that is best diagnosed using which of these contrast regimens?

A. 30- second delay time

B. Bolus tracking in the pulmonary arteries

C. Bolus tracking in the ascending aorta

D. Non-contrast

A

D. Non-contrast

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68
Q

Evaluation of an uncharacterized pancreatic mass is best accomplished with which of these CT studies?

A. CT abdomen with IV contrast in the portal venous phase

B. CT abdomen with IV contrast in multiple phases

C. CT abdomen without contrast

D. CT enterography

A

B. CT abdomen with IV contrast in multiple phases

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69
Q

Evaluation of chronic sinusitis can be accomplished with which CT protocol?

A. CT neck with contrast
B. CT facial bones with contrast
C. CT facial bones without contrast
D. CT sinuses screening.

A

D. CT sinuses screening.

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70
Q

Evaluation of the neck in arterial phase of contrast enhancement can be accomplished with what scan delay time?

A. 120 seconds

B. 20 seconds

C. 45 seconds

D. 90 seconds

A

B. 20 seconds

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71
Q

Evaluation of the neck in venous phase of IV contrast enhancement can be accomplished with what scan delay time?

A. 10 seconds

B. 20 seconds

C. 40 seconds

D. 90 seconds

A

C. 40 seconds

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72
Q

For arterial imaging of the pancreas, what scan delay time may be used?

A. 5 seconds

B. 25 seconds

C. 55 seconds

D. 90 seconds

A

B. 25 seconds

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73
Q

For specialized imaging of the adrenal glands, the display field-of view may be assigned as:

A. 18 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 80 cm

D. 32 cm

A

A. 18 cm

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74
Q

Hepatic hemangioma will fill with contrast at what scan delay time?

A. 15 seconds

B. 30 seconds

C. 60 seconds

D. 6 minutes

A

D. 6 minutes

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75
Q

High spatial resolution imaging of the facial bones can be accomplished using which of these slice parameters?

A. 1.25 mm slices with matching slice interval
B. 5 mm slices with matching slice interval
C. 5. mm slices with 2.5 mm interval
D. 1. 25 mm slices with 5 mm interval

A

A. 1.25 mm slices with matching slice interval

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76
Q

High spatial resolution imaging of the orbits is accomplished by:

A. 1.25 mm slices
B. 2.5 mm slices
C. 3.75 mm slices
D. 5 mm slices

A

A. 1.25 mm slices

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77
Q

High spatial resolution imaging of the orbits is accomplished by:

A. 1.25 mm slices
B. 2.5 mm slices
C. 3. 75 mm slices
D. 5 mm slices

A

A. 1.25 mm slices

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78
Q

High-resolution imaging of the chest may use which of these algorithms?

A. Bone algorithm

B. Standard algorithm

C. Brain algorithm

D. Smoothing algorithm

A

A. Bone algorithm

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79
Q

High-resolution imaging of the chest should use which reconstruction slice thickness?

A. 1.25 mm

B. 2.5 mm

C. 5 mm

D. >5 mm

A

A. 1.25 mm

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80
Q

How should axial slices be oriented for imaging of the brain?

A. Parallel to the hard pallet
B. Perpendicular to the floor of the maxillary sinus
C. Parallel to the supra-orbital meatal line
D. Perpendicular to the supra-orbital meatal line.

A

C. Parallel to the supra-orbital meatal line

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81
Q

How should axial slices be oriented for imaging of the brain?

A. Parallel to the hard pallet
B. Perpendicular to the floor of the maxillary sinus
C. Parallel to the supraorbital meatal line
D. Perpendicular to the supraorbital meatal line

A

C. Parallel to the supraorbital meatal line

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82
Q

How should axial slices be oriented for imaging of the orbits?

A. Parallel to the hard palate
B. Perpendicular to the floor of the maxillary sinus
C. Parallel to the supra-orbital meatal line
D. Perpendicular to the supra-orbital meatal line.

A

A. Parallel to the hard palate

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83
Q

How should coronal reformations of the orbits be oriented?

A. Parallel to the hard pallet
B. Perpendicular to the floor of the maxillary sinus
C. Parallel to the supra-orbital meatal line
D. Perpendicular to the supra-orbital meatal line

A

B. Perpendicular to the floor of the maxillary sinus

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84
Q

How should the gantry be oriented when scanning direct coronal CT sinuses with the patient in the prone position?

A. Parallel to the hard palate
B. Perpendicular to the hard palate
C. Parallel to the supra-orbital meatal line
D. Perpendicular to the supra-orbital meatal line

A

B. Perpendicular to the hard palate

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85
Q

Identify the pathology visible in the image below:

A. Basilar artery aneurysm
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Subdural hemorrhage
D. Arterial-Venous malformation

A

A. Basilar artery aneurysm

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86
Q

If glucagon is being administered for a CT study, when should it be given to the patient?

A. With the administration of oral contrast

B. Immediately prior to scanning

C. Thirty minutes prior to scanning

D. With the administration of rectal contrast

A

B. Immediately prior to scanning

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87
Q

If metoclopramide (Reglan) is being used for a CT enterography study, when should it be administered?

A. With the administration of oral contrast

B. Immediately prior to scanning

C. Thirty minutes prior to scanning

D. With the administration of rectal contrast

A

A. With the administration of oral contrast

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88
Q

If oral contrast is to be visualized within the small bowels, when should the contrast be administered to the patient?

A. Immediately prior to scanning.

B. 10 minutes prior to scanning

C. 50 minutes prior to scanning

D. 5 hours prior to scanning

A

C. 50 minutes prior to scanning

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89
Q

If performing a CTA abdominal aorta study on a 90 lb geriatric patient, how could the contrast injection protocol be changed without compromising the quality of the scan?

A. Decrease contrast volume

B. Increase contrast volume

C. Decrease injection rate

D. Increase injection rate

A

A. Decrease contrast volume

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90
Q

Imaging of the abdomen and pelvis in the portal venous phase will usually use which of these IV contrast protocols?

A. 100 ml at 3 ml/sec

B. 150 ml at 3 ml/sec

C. 100 ml at 5 ml/sec

D. 150 ml at 4 ml/sec

A

A. 100 ml at 3 ml/sec

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91
Q

In the image below, the absence of contrast media in the descending colon likely means that the patient did NOT receive:

A. Intravenous contrast

B. Oral contrast

C. Rectal contrast

D. Intra-articular contrast

A

C. Rectal contrast

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92
Q

In the image below, the high concentration of contrast in the inferior portion of the intrathecal space could be a result of:

A. The patient standing after the contrast
B. The patient laying supine after the injection
C. The patient laying prone after the injection
D. The radiologist injecting above the level of L2

A

A. The patient standing after the contrast

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93
Q

In the image below, the right internal jugular vein has experienced:

A. Stenosis

B. Dissection

C. Aneurysm

D. Occlusion

A

D. Occlusion

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94
Q

In the image, the arrow is pointing at a condition called:

A. Colitis

B. Appendicitis

C. Hepatitis

D. Pancreatitis

A

A. Colitis

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95
Q

In what direction should the thoracic aorta be scaned when using iodinated contrast?

A. Superior to inferior in the direction of blood flow

B. Superior to inferior against the direction of blood flow

C. Inferior to superior in the direction of blood flow

D. Inferior to superior against the direction of blood flow

A

A. Superior to inferior in the direction of blood flow

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96
Q

Increasing the reconstruction slice thickness results in:

A. Visualization of more anatomy with increased spatial resolution

B. Visualization of more anatomy with decreased spatial resolution

C. Visualization of less anatomy with increased spatial resolution

D. Visualization of less anatomy with decreased spatial resolution

A

B. Visualization of more anatomy with decreased spatial resolution

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97
Q

Instructing the patient NOT to void prior to a urogram procedure helps to:

A. Maintain contrast filling in the collecting system

B. Maintain contrast enhancement in the circulatory system

C. Dislodge renal stones from the ureters

D. Test the patient’s continence

A

A. Maintain contrast filling in the collecting system

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98
Q

Intravenously injected contrast can be viewed exiting organs during which phase of enhancement?

A. Venous phase

B. Arterial phase

C. Delayed phase

D. Equilibrium phase

A

A. Venous phase

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99
Q

Maximum contrast enhancement for CTA imaging of the head and neck could be accomplished by:
A. Bolus tracking in the abdominal aorta
B. Timing bolus monitoring in the internal carotid artery
C. 40-second scan delay time
D. 55-second scan delay time

A

B. Timing bolus monitoring in the internal carotid artery

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100
Q

Measuring the degree of spinal cord compression caused by spondylolisthesis is best achieved with which of these imaging protocols?

A. Routine CT spine without contrast
B. Routine CT spine with contrast
C. Diagnostic radiography
D. CT myelogram

A

D. CT myelogram

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101
Q

Neck pain following an MVA is an indication for:

A. CT soft tissue neck

B. CT angiography neck

C. CT cervical spine

A

C. CT cervical spine

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102
Q

One reason for decreasing the IV injection rate during CT scanning is:

A. High-speed scanner (16 rows or more)

B. Poor IV catheter patency

C. Angiographic scanning

D. Geriatric imaging

A

B. Poor IV catheter patency

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103
Q

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) is an indication for which of these CT protocols?

A. CTA for Pulmonary Embolism

B. CTA Thoracic Aorta

C. CT Abdomen and Pelvis with Contrast

D. CTA Runoff

A

D. CTA Runoff

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104
Q

Primary liver cancer will be brightest during which phase of IV contrast enhancement?

A. non-contrast

B. arterial phase

C. portal venous phase

D. delayed phase

A

B. arterial phase

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105
Q

Proptosis is an indication for:

A. CT head
B. CT facial bones
C. CT sinuses
D. CT orbits

A

D. CT orbits

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106
Q

Radiculopathy is a condition best evaluated with which of these imaging procedures?

A. CT spine without contrast
B. CT spine with contrast after 45 second scan delay time
C. CT spine with contrast after 90 second delay time
D. CT myelogram with intrathecal contrast

A

D. CT myelogram with intrathecal contrast

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107
Q

Refers to peak contrast enhancement of arteries as contrast enters the organ; for any organ this is the first phase of contrast enhancement.

A

Arterial phase

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108
Q

Refers to peak contrast enhancement of veins as contrast leaves the organ; for any organ this is the second phase of contrast enhancement.

A

Venous phase

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109
Q

Refers to the peak enhancement of the portal venous system; occurs at about 60 seconds, post-contrast injection.

A

Portal Venous Phase

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110
Q

Refers to the time period after all contrast has washed out of most organs; only certain pathologies are visible during this phase; also called equilibrium phase.

A

Delayed Phase

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111
Q

Spinal cord impingement is a possible effect of all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

A. Disc injuries
B. Arthritic disease
C. Spinal tumors
D. Dehydration

A

D. Dehydration

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112
Q

Spinal ependymoma is a primary tumor of the brain or spinal cord. Suspicion of ependymoma should initially be assessed using which imaging procedure?
A. CT spine without contrast
B. CT spine with contrast
C. CT myelogram
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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113
Q

Stenosis of the carotid bifurcation is best evaluated with:

A. CT soft tissue neck

B. CT angiography neck

C. CT cervical spine

A

B. CT angiography neck

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114
Q

Swelling in the neck (with an unknown cause) is an indication for what CT protocol?

A. CT soft tissue neck

B. CTA neck

C. CT cervical spine

A

A. CT soft tissue neck

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115
Q

The abrupt starting and stopping of the patient table during axial scanning can result in:

A. Increased patient dose

B. Motion artifact on the images

C. Decreased scan time

D. Decreased spatial resolution from interpolation

A

B. Motion artifact on the images

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116
Q

The acquisition slice thickness used during a scan is determined by the technologist. The acquisition thickness refers to:

A. The thickness of activated detector rows

B. The thickness of anatomical data averaged into each image

C. The total width of the x-ray beam

D. The space between adjacent slices

A

A. The thickness of activated detector rows

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117
Q

The appearance of inflamed tissue surrounding the appendix is called:

A. Stranding

B. Claudication

C. Hematoma

D. Hemangiomas

A

A. Stranding

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118
Q

The appendix is an appendage of the:

A. Large bowel

B. Small bowel

C. Spleen

D. Mesentery

A

A. Large bowel

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119
Q

The arrow in the image below is pointing at a condition called:

A. Adrenal adenoma

B. Aortic aneurysm

C. IVC filling defect

D. Ovarian cyst

A

A. Adrenal adenoma

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120
Q

The arterial phase of IV contrast enhancement in the kidneys is also called:

A. Corticomedullary phase

B. Nephrographic phase

C. Excretory phase

D. Portal venous phase

A

A. Corticomedullary phase

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121
Q

The average flow rate recommended for venous phase imaging of the abdomen is:

A. 1 ml per second

B. 3 ml per second

C. 5 ml per second

D. 10 ml per second

A

B. 3 ml per second

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122
Q

The benefit of increased flow rate in angiographic imaging is:

A. Decreased patient dose
B. Increased contrast enhancement
C. Decreased scan time
D. Decreased intraluminal pressure

A

B. Increased contrast enhancement

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123
Q

The contrast- enhanced tissues behind the eye are most likely:

A. Malignant
B. Normal
C. Bleeding
D. Inflammation

A

A. Malignant

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124
Q

The CT enterography study should use which of the following contrast injection parameters?

A. 100 ml at 3 ml/sec

B. 150 ml at 2.5ml/sec

C. 75 ml at 5 ml/sec

D. 100 ml at 4 ml/sec

A

D. 100 ml at 4 ml/sec

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125
Q

The CT venogram protocol of the head is best suited to diagnose which of these pathologies?

A. Occlusion of the internal carotid arteries
B. Dissection of the vertebral arteries
C. Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

C. Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus

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126
Q

The device in this image is a:

A. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)

B. Central line (port)

C. Dialysis catheter

D. Peripheral catheter

A

D. Peripheral catheter

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127
Q

The first phase of IV contrast enhancement for most organs is the:

A. Portal venous phase

B. Arterial phase

C. Delayed phase

D. Capillary phase

A

B. Arterial phase

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128
Q

The following images were aquired on the same patient during a multiphase liver study. The images are NOT in sequential order. Based on the appearance of the images, which image was acquired 5 minutes after IV contrast injection?

A

Image A

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129
Q

The goal of administering oral contrast for CT enterography is to fill the:

A. Small bowel

B. Large bowel

C. Stomach

D. Rectum

A

A. Small bowel

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130
Q

The images below were acquired on the same patient during a multiphase liver study. The images are NOT in sequential order. Based on the appearance of the images, which image was acquired in portal venous phase?

A

Image D

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131
Q

The images below were acquired on the same patient during a multiphase kidney examination. These images are NOT in sequential order. What image best demonstrates the renal collecting system?

A

Image C

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132
Q

The images below were acquired on the same patient during multiphase kidney examination. These images are NOT in sequential order. What image was acquired with a 70-second delay time?

A

Image B

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133
Q

The main advantage of coronary imaging in the catheterization lab compared to CTA imaging is:

A. Increased spatial resolution

B. Decreased risk of complications

C. Ability to intervene immediately

D. No IV contrast is required

A

C. Ability to intervene immediately

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134
Q

The main advantage of CTA imaging of the coronary arteries compared to imaging in the catheterization lab is:

A. Increased spatial resolution

B. Decreased risk of complications

C. Ability to intervene immediately

D. No IV contrast is required

A

B. Decreased risk of complications

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135
Q

The major difference between these two images is the:

A. Slice thickness

B. Slice interval

C. Display field-of-view

D. Scan type

A

C. Display field-of-view

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136
Q

The major difference in these two images is mostly likely the:

A. Slice thickness

B. Slice interval

C. Display field-of-view

D. Scan type

A

A. Slice thickness

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137
Q

The most common and most accurate method for timing angiography scans. During the contrast injection, an ROI is used to measure the enhancement of a selected vessel as contrast enters the system. When contrast enhancement reaches a prescribed threshold, the scan is initiated. This method ensures that the scan is initiated at the exact moment of peak contrast enhancement.

A

Bolus tracking.

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138
Q

The most inferior extent of CTA imaging of the head and neck is the:

A. Aortic Arch
B. Carotid bifurcation
C. Union of the vertebral arteries
D. Origin of the basilar artery

A

A. Aortic Arch

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139
Q

The nephrographic portion of the kidneys will experience maximum contrast enhancement at what scan delay time?

A. 30 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 90 seconds

D. 5 minutes

A

C. 90 seconds

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140
Q

The patient in the image below has experienced chronic shortness of breath for several years. Based on the appearance of the image, what is the most likely cause of their symptoms?

A. Saddle embolism

B. Emphysema

C. Type B Dissection

D. Mass lesion

A

B. Emphysema

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141
Q

The purpose of rolling a patient prior to CT myelogram imaging is to:

A. Evenly diffuse intrathecal contrast
B. Loosen the intervertebral ligaments
C. Relax the spinal muscles
D. Reduce curvature of the spine

A

A. Evenly diffuse intrathecal contrast

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142
Q

The red arrow is pointing to what abnormality?

A. Occlusion of the external iliac artery

B. Stenosis of the internal iliac artery

C. Aneurysm of the common iliac artery

D. Dissection of the superficial femoral artery

A

A. Occlusion of the external iliac artery

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143
Q

The technique used to create this image is called:

A. Multiplanar Reformation (MPR)

B. Volume rendering

C. Maximum Intensity Projection (MIP)

D. Shaded Surface Display (SSD)

A

C. Maximum Intensity Projection (MIP)

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144
Q

The venous phase of IV contrast enhancement in the kidneys is also called:

A. Corticomedullary phase

B. Nephrographic phase

C. Excretory phase

D. Portal venous phase

A

B. Nephrographic phase

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145
Q

The _______ is the area selected for processing, which is usually smaller than the total area being scanned.

A

Display field-of-view (DFOV)

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146
Q

The _______ thickness is the amount of anatomical data averaged into each image. Thinner slices have higher spatial resolution in the z-axis, while thicker slices demonstrate lower image noise.

A

Reconstruction thickness

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147
Q

The _______ thickness is the width of each detector row used during the scan. High-resolution scans use the thinner detector rows, whereas high-speed scans combine rows together to form thicker rows.

A

Acquisition thickness

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148
Q

The “delayed phase” of adrenal imaging is acquired at what scan delay time?

A. 60 seconds

B. 90 seconds

C. 4 minutes

D. 15 minutes

A

D. 15 minutes

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149
Q

This contrast enhancement in the abdomen peaks at 50-60 seconds after initiating IV contrast injection.

A. Portal venous phase

B. Arterial phase

C. Delayed phase

D. Capillary phase

A

A. Portal venous phase

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150
Q

This coronal image of the facial bones was reformed from axial slices. What is the recommended orientation of these coronal slices?

A. Parallel to the hard palate
B. Perpendicular to the hard palate
C. Parallel to the supra-orbital meatal line
D. Perpendicular to the supra-orbital meatal line

A

B. Perpendicular to the hard palate

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151
Q

This image is from a CTA procedure to evaluate for pulmonary embolsm, but the pulmonary arteries are not very well enhanced. Based on the appearance of the image, what did the technologist do wrong?

A. The scan was initiated too late

B. The scan was initiated too soon

C. The scan did not use IV contrast

D. The scan was initiated 15 seconds after injection

A

A. The scan was initiated too late

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152
Q

This image is of a bolus-tracking chart 12 seconds into contrast IV injection. What happens when threshold of 110 HU is crossed?

A. The injection should stop

B. The scan should stop

C. The scan should start

D. Nothing.

A

C. The scan should start

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153
Q

This image of the brain is described as a:

A. Maximum intensity projection
B. Volume rendering
C. Sagittal reformation
D. Axial reconstruction

A

A. Maximum intensity projection

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154
Q

This image of the lower facial bones is ideal for viewing:

A. Structural changes in the mandible
B. Bone degradation around an abscessed tooth
C. Inflammatory changes in the soft tissues of the face
D. Fractures of the facial bones.

A

C. Inflammatory changes in the soft tissues of the face

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155
Q

This image was acquired to evaluate a patient for a thoracic aorta dissection. What is the main factor limiting the diagnostic quality of the scan?

A. Excessive image noise

B. Artifact obstructing the view of the anatomy

C. Poor enhancement of the aorta

D. Excessively small field of view

A

C. Poor enhancement of the aorta

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156
Q

This image was presented to the radiologist for viewing the soft tissues of the brain. The appearance of excessive image noise may be a result of:

A. Incorrect algorithm selection
B. Incorrect gantry tilt
C. Incorrect window width
D. Incorrect slice interval.

A

A. Incorrect algorithm selection

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157
Q

This is an image acquired with a 30-second scan delay time. What pathology should be reported to the attending physician?

A. Pulmonary embolism

B. Pulmonary fibrosis

C. Aortic dissection

D. Pneumothorax

A

A. Pulmonary embolism

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158
Q

This series of images was performed on the same patient during different phases of intravenous contrast enhancement. A contrast-enhancing liver lesion (arrow) is best visualized in what phase?

A. Non-contrast

B. Arterial phase

C. Portal venous phase

D. Delayed phase

A

B. Arterial phase

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159
Q

To ensure filling of duodenum for a CT pancreas study, when should oral contrast be administered to the patient?

A. Immediately prior to scanning

B. 20 minutes prior to scanning

C. 5 minutes prior to scanning

D. 5 hours prior to scanning

A

A. Immediately prior to scanning

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160
Q

Uses principles from both the scan delay method and bolus tracking method. A small bolus of contrast is injected into the patient and monitored at the control console. After the test bolus is finished, an ROI is used to identify the time of the highest contrast enhancement. This time is set as the scan delay time for the full contrast bolus tracking in angiographic imaging.

A

Timing bolus.

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161
Q

Venous-phase imaging of the chest is usually accomplished using a:

A. 30- second delay time

B. Bolus tracking in the pulmonary arteries

C. Bolus tracking in the descending aorta

D. Non-contrast

A

A. 30- second delay time

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162
Q

Vision changes should be evaluated in CT using which imaging protocol?

A. CT orbits with contrast
B. CT facial bones with contrast
C. CT sinuses without contrast
D. CT head with and without contrast

A

A. CT orbits with contrast

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163
Q

What abnormality is visible in this image of a CTA head and neck scan?

A. Occlusion of the carotid arteries
B. Dissection of the vertebral arteries
C. Basilar tip aneurysm
D. Accessory vessels branching from the aortic arch

A

A. Occlusion of the carotid arteries

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164
Q

What body cavity should be scanned when evaluating a patient for acute appendicitis?

A. Abdomen only

B. Pelvis only

C. Abdomen and pelvis

D. Chest, abdomen, and pelvis

A

C. Abdomen and pelvis

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165
Q

What cardiac gating technique acquires scan data only during specific phases of the heart cycle?

A. Prospective gating

B. Retrospective gating

C. Both prospective and retrospective gating

D. No gating is required

A

A. Prospective gating

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166
Q

What contrast injection protocol is necessary for diagnosis of interstitial lung disease?

A. 30- second delay time

B. Bolus tracking in the pulmonary arteries

C. Bolus tracking in the descending aorta

D. Non-contrast

A

D. Non-contrast

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167
Q

What contrast timing method might have been used to acquire this image of the brain?

A. Bolus tracking in the abdominal aorta
B. Timing bolus in the aortic arch
C. 45-second scan delay time
D. 60-second scan delay time

A

B. Timing bolus in the aortic arch

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168
Q

What contrast timing method was used to acquire this image of the brain?

A. Bolus tracking in the ascending aorta
B. Timing bolus monitoring in the internal carotid artery
C. 45-second scan delay time
D. 90-second scan delay time

A

C. 45-second scan delay time

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169
Q

What CT protocol is most useful in evaluating bowel disease?

A. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

B. CTA abdomen and pelvis

C. CT enterography

D. CT appendicitis

A

C. CT enterography

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170
Q

What CT protocol should be used to diagnose abnormal narrowing of the abdominal aorta?

A. CTA abdomen and pelvis

B. CTA thoracic aorta

C. CT Abdomen and pelvis with contrast

D. CT enterography

A

A. CTA abdomen and pelvis

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171
Q

What CT protocol should be used to evaluate an arterial dissection extending from the aortic bifurcation through the popliteal arteries?

A. CTA abdomen and pelvis

B. CTA thoracic aorta

C. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

D. CTA Runoff

A

D. CTA Runoff

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172
Q

What image windowing was used to display the image below?

A. 2600 WW and 500 WL
B. 400 WL and 600 WL
C. 80 WW and 30 WL
D. 400 WW and 40 WL

A

C. 80 WW and 30 WL

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173
Q

What imaging plane is best suited for viewing the pulmonary trunk where it bifurcates into the right and left pulmonary arteries?

A. Axial

B. Sagittal

C. Coronal

D. Oblique

A

A. Axial

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174
Q

What imaging protocol should be followed for evaluation of a known arterial-venous malformation (AVM) in the right upper parietal lobe?

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT head with and without contrast
C. CTA head
D. CTA head and neck

A

C. CTA head

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175
Q

What imaging technique was used to produce the image below?

A. Curved MPR

B. Maximum intensity projection (MIP)

C. Volume rendering

D. Shaded Surface Display

A

B. Maximum intensity projection (MIP)

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176
Q

What is a common image window for viewing images in the bone algorithm?

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL
B. 600 WW and 2500 WL
C. 400 WW and 40 WL
D. 80 WW and 30 WL

A

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL

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177
Q

What is a common reconstructed slice parameter for CT angiography imaging of the brain?

A. 0.625 mm slices with matching interval
B. 3.75 mm slices with overlapping interval
C. 5 mm slices with a larger interval
D. 1.25 mm slices with a larger interval

A

A. 0.625 mm slices with matching interval

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178
Q

What is an appropriate windowing technique for displaying axial images of the pelvis in the bone algorithm?

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL

B. 80 WW and 30 WL

C. 1800 WW and -600 WL

D. 400 WW and 40 WL

A

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL

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179
Q

What is the bright artifact anterior to the bridge of the patient’s nose?

A. Bismuth eye shield
B. EKG lead
C. Oxygen tubing
D. Motion artifact

A

A. Bismuth eye shield

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180
Q

What is the brightly enhanced structure in the left lower quadrant of the patient imaged below?

A. Appendicitis

B. Large bowel

C. Uterine tumor

D. Urinary bladder

A

B. Large bowel

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181
Q

What is the ideal heart rate for coronary imaging in CT?

A. Less than 65 beats per minute

B. 65-85 beat per minute

C. 85-100 beats per minute

D. Greater than 100 beats per minute

A

A. Less than 65 beats per minute

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182
Q

What is the lower limit of a routine CT Chest protocol?

A. Lung apices

B. Costophrenic angles

C. Adrenal glands

D. 1st lumbar vertebra

A

C. Adrenal glands

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183
Q

What is the minimum volume of rectal contrast expected to fill most of the large bowel?

A. 10 ml

B. 100 ml

C. 1,000 ml

D. 10,000 ml

A

C. 1,000 ml

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184
Q

What is the most common image window for viewing images in the standard algorithm?

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL
B. 600 WW and 2500 WL
C. 400 WW and 40 WL
D. 80 WW and 30 WL

A

C. 400 WW and 40 WL

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185
Q

What is the most likely explanation for the different appearances of these images?

A. Different reconstruction algorithm
B. Different window width
C. Different window level
D. Different gantry

A

A. Different reconstruction algorithm

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186
Q

What is the purpose of reconstructing thin slices of the lungs for the high-resolution protocol?

A. Increased spatial resolution in the axial images

B. Increased contrast resolution in the axial images

C. Increased quality of multiplanar reformations

D. Decreased image noise in the axial images

A

A. Increased spatial resolution in the axial images

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187
Q

What is the purpose of warming intravenous contrast prior to injection?

A. Decrease viscosity

B. Increase radiopacity

C. Decrease chemical toxicity

A

A. Decrease viscosity

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188
Q

What is the recommended CT scanning procedure for a patient with traumatic injuries to the face from a motorcycle accident?

A. CT neck with contrast
B. CT facial bones with contrast
C. CT facial bones without contrast
D. CT sinuses screening

A

C. CT facial bones without contrast

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189
Q

What is the technical classification for this pathology?

A. Saddle embolism

B. Pulmonary Fibrosis

C. Type B Dissection

D. Type A Dissection

A

C. Type B Dissection

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190
Q

What is the technical classification of a thoracic aorta aneurysm that originates in the ascending aorta?

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Type D

A

A. Type A

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191
Q

What is the typical image presentation for the CTA Runoff procedure?

A. 400 WW and 40 WL

B. 80 WW and 30 WL

C. 1800 WW and -600 WL

D. 2500 WW and 600 WL

A

A. 400 WW and 40 WL

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192
Q

What IV contrast injection protocol is most appropriate for multiphase renal imaging on an average sized patient?

A. 100 ml at 3 ml per second

B. 150 ml at 3 ml per second

C. 100 ml at 5 ml per second

D. 150 ml at 5 ml per second

A

A. 100 ml at 3 ml per second

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193
Q

What kind of contrast may be administered immediately prior to scanning to fill the cecum of the large bowel?

A. Oral contrast

B. Rectal contrast

C. IV contrast

A

B. Rectal contrast

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194
Q

What kind of IV contrast is traditionally used for imaging the abdomen and pelvis?

A. Iodine

B. Barium

C. Water

A

A. Iodine

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195
Q

What kind of reconstruction algorithm is traditionally used for angiography imaging of the heart?

A. Smoothing algorithm

B. Sharpening algorithm

C. Edge-enhancing algorithm

D. Lung algorithm

A

A. Smoothing algorithm

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196
Q

What medication has be effect of temporarily stopping peristalsis?

A. Metoclopramide (Relgan)

B. Glucagon

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Beta blocker

A

B. Glucagon

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197
Q

What medication has the effect of dilating the coronary arteries?

A. Glucagon

B. Beta blockers

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Analgesics

A

C. Nitroglycerin

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198
Q

What medication helps fill the bowels with oral contrast?

A. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

B. Glucagon

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Beta blocker

A

A. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

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199
Q

What multiplanar reformation (MPR) technique can be used to visualize very tortuous coronary arteries in a single plane?

A. Curved MPR

B. Thick MPR

C. Thin MPR

D. MIP technique

A

A. Curved MPR

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200
Q

What pathology is demonstrated by the arrow in the image below?

A. Aneurysm

B. Calcification

C. Tachycardia

D. Vascular spasm

A

A. Aneurysm

201
Q

What pathology is demonstrated in this image?
A. Fracture of the vertebral body
B. Fracture of the vertebral arch
C. Arthritic stenosis of the vertebral canal
D. Collapse of the intervertebral disc space

A

A. Fracture of the vertebral body

202
Q

What pathology is indicated by the arrow in the image below?

A. Ruptured liver

B. Ruptured spleen

C. Ruptured kidney

D. Ruptured aorta

A

B. Ruptured spleen

203
Q

What pathology is indicated by the arrow in the image below?

A. Appendicitis

B. Small bowel obstruction

C. Bowel perforation

D. Ovarian cyst

A

A. Appendicitis

204
Q

What pathology is seen in this image?

A. Spinal metastasis

B. Spinal impingement

C. Subluxation

D. Arthritic disease

A

B. Spinal impingement

205
Q

What pathology is visible in popliteal artery imaged below?

A. Embolism

B. Aneurysm

C. Dissection

D. Occlusion

A

A. Embolism

206
Q

What pathology is visible in the following image?

A. Aneurysm

B. Calcification

C. Tachycardia

D. Vascular spasm

A

B. Calcification

207
Q

What pathology is visible in this image?

A. Occlusion of the internal carotid arteries
B. Dissection of the vertebral arteries
C. Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

C. Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus

208
Q

What pathology is visible in this image?

A. Pancreatic tumor

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

C. Metastatic liver cancer

D. Hemangioma of the liver

A

A. Pancreatic tumor

209
Q

What pathology is visible in this image?

A. Stenosis

B. Calcification

C. Tachycardia

D. Vascular spasm

A

A. Stenosis

210
Q

What phase of contrast enhancement is necessary to diagnose a loss of elasticity in the lung tissues?

A. Non-contrast

B. Peak enhancement of the pulmonary arteries

C. Peak enhancement of the aorta

D. Even enhancement of the entire thoracic cavity

A

A. Non-contrast

211
Q

What phase of IV contrast enhancement best demonstrates metastatic liver cancer?

A. Non-contrast

B. Arterial phase

C. Portal venous phase

D. Delayed phase

A

C. Portal venous phase

212
Q

What phase of IV contrast enhancement is used to visualize the contrast-filled collecting system?

A. Corticomedullary phase

B. Nephrographic phase

C. Excretory phase

D. Portal venous phase

A

C. Excretory phase

213
Q

What phase of respiration should be used for evaluation of interstital lung disease?

  1. Inspiration
  2. Expiration
  3. Light breathing

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1,2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 2 only

214
Q

What portion of the kidney is expected to experience maximum brightness at 4 minutes scan delay time?

A. Renal arteries

B. Nephrons

C. Renal pelvis

D. Renal cortex

A

C. Renal pelvis

215
Q

What post-processing technique was used to create this image?

A. Curved MPR

B. Maximum Intensity Projection

C. Volume Rendering

D. Shaded Surface Display

A

A. Curved MPR

216
Q

What processing technique was used to create this image?

A. Multiplanar Reformation (MPR)

B. Volume rendering (VR)

C. Maximum Intensity Projection (MIP)

D. Shaded Surface Display (SSD)

A

A. Multiplanar Reformation (MPR)

217
Q

What reconstruction algorithm is best suited for demonstrating the lung tissue?

A. Bone algorithm

B. Standard algorithm

C. Lung algorithm

D. Cerebral algorithm

A

C. Lung algorithm

218
Q

What reconstruction slice thickness is generally used for axial images of a CTA chest protocol?

A. 1.25 mm

B. 2.5 mm

C. 5 mm

D. <1.25 mm

A

B. 2.5 mm

219
Q

What scan delay time is appropriate for viewing the renal arteries?

A. 30 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 90 seconds

D. 5 minutes

A

A. 30 seconds

220
Q

What scan delay time should be used to evaluate the urinary collecting system?

A. 30 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 90 seconds

D. 5 minutes

A

D. 5 minutes

221
Q

What scan delay time was used to acquire this image of the adrenal glands?

A. Non-contrast

B. 30 seconds

C. 60 seconds

D. 4 minute

A

C. 60 seconds

222
Q

What scanning protocol should initially be used to evaluate nausea and diarrhea with an unknown origin?

A. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

B. CT angiography abdomen and pelvis

C. CT multiphase pancreas

D. CT multiphase liver

A

A. CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

223
Q

What slice parameter is used for imaging the liver in multiple phases of contrast?

A. 1.0 mm

B. 2.5 mm

C. 5.0 mm

D. 10.0 mm

A

B. 2.5

224
Q

What spinal level is demonstrated in this image?

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral

A

A. Cervical

225
Q

What two IV contrast injection techniques should be used to evaluate a patient for pulmonary embolism?

A. 100 ml at 3 ml/second

B. 150 ml at 4 ml/second

C. 100 ml at 4 ml/second

D. 150 ml at 3 ml/second

A

B. 150 ml at 4 ml/second

C. 100 ml at 4 ml/second

226
Q

What type of contrast was administered to this patient prior to scanning?

A. No contrast is visible

B. Oral contrast

C. Rectal contrast

D. Intravenous contrast

A

A. No contrast is visible

227
Q

What volume of oral contrast is generally appropriate for routine imaging of the abdomen and pelvis?

A. 500 ml

B. 5 ml

C. 50 ml

D. 5,000 ml

A

A. 500 ml

228
Q

What windowing technique is traditionally used for viewing the soft tissues of the abdomen following CTA imaging?

A. 400 WW and 40 WL

B. 80 WW and 30 WL

C. 1800 WW and -600 WL

D. 2500 WW and 600 WL

A

A. 400 WW and 40 WL

229
Q

What windowing technique was used for this image of the facial bones?

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL
B. 600 WW and 2500 WL
C. 400 WW and 40 WL
D. 80 WW and 30 WL

A

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL

230
Q

What windowing technique would be appropriate for viewing the soft tissues of the abdomen?

A. 350 WW and 30 WL

B. 80 WW and 30 WL

C. 1400 WW and 400 WL

D. 2500 WL and -400 WL

A

A. 350 WW and 30 WL

231
Q

Where should bolus-tracking ROI be placed for CTA imaging of the coronary arteries?

A. Ascending aorta

B. Descending aorta

C. Left ventricle

D. Right atrium

A

A. Ascending aorta

232
Q

Which axial data set should be used for creating sagittal reformations of the lumbar spine?

A. 1.25 mm slice thickness and 0.625 mm slice interval
B. 5.0 mm slice thickness and 5.0 mm slice interval
C. 2.5 mm slice thickness and 2.5 mm slice interval
D. 3.75 mm slice thickness and 3.75 mm slice interval.

A

A. 1.25 mm slice thickness and 0.625 mm slice interval.

233
Q

Which contrast injection method would be useful precisely timed angiographic procedures

  1. Scan delay time
  2. Test bolus
  3. Bolus tracking

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 2 and 3 only

234
Q

Which image series will produce the best volume-rendered (3D) models of the bones of the wrist?

A. 0.625 mm slices in the bone algorithm

B. 2.5 mm slices in the bone algorithm

C. 0.625 mm slices in the standard algorithm

A

C. 0.625 mm slices in the standard algorithm

235
Q

Which imaging protocol is appropriate for assessing a fracture of the distal tibia?

A. CT wrist without and with IV contrast

B. CT ankle without IV contrast

C. CT knee with IV contrast

A

B. CT ankle without IV contrast

236
Q

Which imaging protocol should be used to evaluate muscular injuries within the shoulder joint?

A. CT shoulder without and with IV contrast

B. CT shoulder with IV contrast

C. CT shoulder with intra-articular contrast

D. MRI shoulder

A

D. MRI shoulder

237
Q

Which of the following imaging windows would be visualize fractures of the cranium and facial bones?

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL
B. 400 WL and 600 WL
C. 80 WW and 40 WL
D. 400 WW and 40 WL

A

A. 2500 WW and 600 WL

238
Q

Which of the following is a potential reason to DECREASE the IV contrast volume used during a CT scan?

A. Angiographic scanning

B. Pediatric scanning

C. Slow scanner speed

D. Long scan length

A

B. Pediatric scanning

239
Q

Which of the following is a reason to perform multiphase CT imaging of the adrenal glands?

A. Hormone changes

B. Hematuria

C. Bilateral flank pain

D. Increased white blood cell count (WBC)

A

A. Hormone changes

240
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate slice thickness for viewing axial images of a routine venous phase chest CT?

A. 1.25 mm

B. 2.5 mm

C. 5 mm

D. <1.25 mm

A

C. 5 mm

241
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common reason to use contrast enhancement during CT scanning?

A. Differentiate between normal tissues

B. Differentiate between normal tissues and abnormalities

C. Add visual contrast to the images

D. Reduce patient radiation exposure

A

D. Reduce patient radiation exposure

242
Q

Which of the following scout images properly demonstrates the scan localizer for a CT adrenal scan?

A

Image C

243
Q

Which of the following slice parameters is appropriate for viewing axial slices through the elbow?

A. 0.5 mm thickness x 0.5 mm interval

B. 0.5 mm thickness x 0.25 mm interval

C. 1.0 mm thickness x 5 mm interval

D. 2.0 mm thickness with 2.0 mm interval

A

D. 2.0 mm thickness with 2.0 mm interval

244
Q

Which of these algorithms is used for angiographic imaging of the abdomen and pelvis?

A. Soft tissue

B. Bone

C. Lung

D. Edge enhancing

A

A. Soft tissue

245
Q

Which of these conditions are best evaluated WITHOUT the use of the intravenous contrast?

A. Renal calculi

B. Renal cell carcinoma

C. Transitional cell carcinoma

D. Renal mass of unknown etiology

A

A. Renal calculi

246
Q

Which of these conditions are best visualized with routine CT imaging of the lumbar spine without contrast?

A. Burst fracture of L4
B. Spina bifida at the level of L1
C. Spinal stenosis at the level of L3
D. Spinal metastasis in L2 and L3

A

A. Burst fracture of L4

247
Q

Which of these contrast enhancement protocols should be used to evaluate a mediastinal tumor?

A. 30 second scan delay time

B. Bolus tracking in the pulmonary arteries

C. Bolus tracking in the ascending aorta

D. Non-contrast

A

A. 30 second scan delay time

248
Q

Which of these contrast enhancement timing methods would be appropriate for imaging of the Circle of Willis?

A. Bolus tracking in the aortic arch
B. Bolus tracking in the jugular vein
C. 45 second scan delay time
D. 60 second scan delay time.

A

A. Bolus tracking in the aortic arch

249
Q

Which of these data sets should be used as the source images for creating reformations through the ankle?

A. 0.5 mm thickness x 0.5 mm interval

B. 0.7 mm thickness x 0.5 mm interval

C. 1.0 mm thickness x 5.0 mm interval

D. 2.0 mm thickness x 2.0 mm interval

A

A. 0.5 mm thickness x 0.5 mm interval

250
Q

Which of these gating techniques require that scan data be acquired for all phases of cardiac contraction and relaxation?

A. Prospective gating

B. Retrospective gating

C. Both prospective and retrospective gating

A

B. Retrospective gating

251
Q

Which of these imaging planes is commonly used to visualize the full extent of the aortic arch and the entirety of the thoracic aorta?

A. Axial

B. Sagittal

C. Coronal

D. Oblique

A

B. Sagittal

252
Q

Which of these imaging protocol allow for large gaps between reconstructed slices?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

C. CT chest in venous phase

D. CT high resolution chest

A

D. CT high resolution chest

253
Q

Which of these intravenous contrast protocols would provide the best arterial enhancement during a CTA runoff procedure?

A. 150 ml at 4 ml/sec

B. 150 ml at 2.5 ml/sec

C. 90 ml at 4 ml/sec

D. 100 ml at 3 ml/sec

A

A. 150 ml at 4 ml/sec

254
Q

Which of these IV contrast injection parameters are suitable for imaging of the coronary arteries?

A. 150 ml 4 ml/sec

B. 150 ml at 2.5 ml/sec

C. 90 ml at 4 ml/sec

D. 100 ml at 3 ml/sec

A

A. 150 ml 4 ml/sec

255
Q

Which of these IV contrast protocols is appropriate for CT imaging of the coronary arteries?

A. 150 ml at 4 ml/sec

B. 150 ml at 2.5 ml/sec

C. 90 ml at 4 ml/sec

D. 100 ml at 3 ml/sec

A

A. 150 ml at 4 ml/sec

256
Q

Which of these IV contrast-enhancement protocols should be used for imaging the abdominal aorta?

A. Bolus tracking in abdominal aorta

B. Bolus tracking in the ascending aorta

C. 60 second delay time

D. 90 scan delay time

A

A. Bolus tracking in abdominal aorta

257
Q

Which of these medications may be administered to stimulate emptying of the stomach in preparation of the CT enterography study?

A. Metoclopramide

B. Glucagon

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Beta blocker

A

A. Metoclopramide

258
Q

Which of these protocols demonstrates arterial structures from the diaphragm through the ankles?

A. CTA for pulmonary embolism

B. CTA thoracic aorta

C. CTA lower extremity

D. CTA Runoff

A

D. CTA Runoff

259
Q

Which of these protocols will best demonstrate stenosis of the pulmonary arteries?

A. CTA chest of the thoracic aorta

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

C. CT chest in venous phase

D. CT high resolution chest

A

B. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism

260
Q

Which of these reconstruction parameters is suitable for multiphase imaging of the pancreas?

A. 2.5 mm slices in a softening algorithm

B. 5.0 mm slices in a softening algorithm

C. 2.5 mm slices in a sharpening algorithm

D. 5.0 mm slices in a sharpening algorithm

A

A. 2.5 mm slices in a softening algorithm

261
Q

Which of these reconstruction parameters would be most appropriate for CT imaging of the lumbar spine following the myelogram protocol?

A. 1.0 mm slice thickness and 1.0 slice interval

B. 3.0 mm slice thickness and 3.0 slice interval

C. 1.0 mm slice thickness and 2.0 slice interval

D. 3.0 mm slice thickness and 1.5 slice interval

A

A. 1.0 mm slice thickness and 1.0 slice interval

262
Q

Which of these reconstruction parameters would be most appropriate for CT imaging of the cervical spine without contrast?

A. 1.0 mm slice thickness and 1.0 slice interval
B. 2.0 mm slice thickness and 2.0 slice interval
C. 1.0 mm slice thickness and 2.0 slice interval
D. 3.0 mm slice thickness and 3.0 slice interval

A

A. 1.0 mm slice thickness and 1.0 slice interval

263
Q

Which of these reconstruction slice parameters will produce images with the least amount of image noise in the brain?

A. 2.5 mm slices in the bone algorithm
B. 2.5 mm slices in the standard algorithm
C. 5.0 mm slices in the bone algorithm
D. 5.0 mm slices in the standard algorithm

A

D. 5.0 mm slices in the standard algorithm

264
Q

Which of these renal structures are maximally enhanced between 60 and 90 seconds after injecting IV contrast injection?

A. Renal arteries

B. Nephrons

C. Renal pelvis

D. Renal cortex

A

B. Nephrons

265
Q

Which of these scans must be performed from superior to inferior?

A. CT head without contrast
B. CT venogram head
C. CTA head
D. CTA head and neck

A

B. CT venogram head

266
Q

Which of these scout images demonstrates an 18 cm display field-of-view?

A. Image A

B. Image B

C. Image C

D. Image D

A

C. Image C

267
Q

Which of these slice parameters are preferred for visualization of the posterior fossa of the cranium?

A. 2.5 mm slices with matching slice interval
B. 2.5 mm slices with 5 mm interval
C. 5 mm slices with 2.5 mm interval
D. 5 mm slices with matching interval

A

A. 2.5 mm slices with matching slice interval

268
Q

Which of these slice parameters should be used to create multiplanar reformations of the abdomen and pelvis?

A. 1.25 mm

B. 2.5 mm

C. 5.0 mm

D. 10 mm

A

A. 1.25 mm

269
Q

Which of these statements is true concerning the delayed phase of IV contrast enhancement?

A. Most contrast has washed out of organs
B. Arteries are brightly enhanced with contrast
C. Veins are brightly enhanced with contrast
D. All contrast has been collected by the kidneys

A

A. Most contrast has washed out of organs

270
Q

Which of these structures will demonstrate the highest level of contrast enhancement at a 25-second scan delay time?

A. Renal arteries

B. Nephrons

C. Renal pelvis

D. Renal veins

A

A. Renal arteries

271
Q

Which of these studies is most useful for mapping the collecting system prior to ureter stent placement?

A. CT renal stone protocol

B. CT kidney protocol

C. CT adrenal protocol

D. CT urogram protocol

A

D. CT urogram protocol

272
Q

Which of these studies is most useful in identifying the cause of recurrent renal stones?

A. CT renal stone protocol

B. CT kidney protocol

C. CT adrenal protocol

D. CT urogram protocol

A

D. CT urogram protocol

273
Q

Which of these venous access devices are sometimes labeled for CT power injection?

A. Central lines (port)

B. Dialysis catheters

C. Jugular lines

A

A. Central lines (port)

274
Q

Which of these windowing techniques is appropriate for viewing the arteries of a CTA head examination?

A. 400 window width and 40 window level
B. 80 window width and 40 window level
C. 2500 window width and 600 window level
D. 1500 window width and -400 window level

A

A. 400 window width and 40 window level

275
Q

Which of these windowing techniques is appropriate for viewing the intervertebral disc following routine imaging of the spine?

A. 400 window width and 40 window level

B. 80 window width and 40 window level

C. 2500 window width and 600 window level

D. 1500 window and -400 window level

A

A. 400 window width and 40 window level

276
Q

Which phase of IV contrast enhancement is ideal for initial imaging of intracranial hemorrhage?

A. Venous phase

B. Arterial phase

C. Delayed phase

D. Non-contrast

A

D. Non-contrast

277
Q

Which three of the following is an appropriate indication for CT imaging of the facial bones? (Select three)

A. Maxillary Mass
B. Diffuse Swelling
C. Dental abscess
D. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

A

A. Maxillary Mass
B. Diffuse Swelling
C. Dental abscess

278
Q

Which two of these reformation series are typically created with CT imaging of the thoracic spine without contrast (Select two):

A. Sagittal reformation of the full scan
B. Coronal reformation of the full scan
C. Axial reformations on the disc spaces

A

A. Sagittal reformation of the full scan
B. Coronal reformation of the full scan

279
Q

While viewing high-resolution images of the lungs, the radiologists notices a suspicious mass in the mediastinum. What window presentation will she use to view the mass?

A. 400 WW and 40 WL

B. 2500 WW and 600 WL

C. 1800 WW and 600WL

D. 80 WW and 30 WL

A

A. 400 WW and 40 WL

280
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Temporal bone

B. Frontal bone

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Maxillary sinus

A

C. Ethmoid sinus

281
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Frontal bone

B. Zygoma

C. Temporal bone

D. Maxillary sinus

A

B. Zygoma

282
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Zygomatic arch

B. Frontal sinus

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Mastoid process

A

D. Mastoid process

283
Q

What facial injury is visible in this image?

A. Blowout fracture

B. Nasal bone fracture

C. LeFort fracture

D. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

E. Mandibular fracture

A

B. Nasal bone fracture

284
Q

What cranial injury is visible in this image?

A. Diastatic skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

D. Basilar skull fracture

285
Q

What structure is represented by letter (B)?

A. Mastoid air cells

B. Occipital bone

C. Frontal sinus

D. Squamosal suture

A

D. Squamosal suture

286
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Mastoid Process

B. Zygomatic arch

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Frontal sinus

A

B. Zygomatic arch

287
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Temporal bone

B. Zygomatic arch

C. Maxillary bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Mandible

A

E. Mandible

288
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Mandible

B. Maxillary bone

C. Nasal bone

D. Parietal bone

A

C. Nasal bone

289
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Mandible

B. Maxillary sinus

C. Maxillary bone

D. Frontal sinus

A

B. Maxillary sinus

290
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Mastoid Process

B. Zygomatic arch

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Frontal sinus

A

B. Zygomatic arch

291
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Sphenoid sinus

B. Ethmoid sinus

C. Frontal sinus

D. Mastoid process

A

A. Sphenoid sinus

292
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Maxillary bone

B. Maxillary sinus

C. Zygomatic bone

D. Mandible

A

A. Maxillary bone

293
Q

Evaluation of injuries to the mastoid process will require diagnostic imaging of the:

A. Paranasal sinuses

B. Lower cranium

C. Upper cranium

D. Mandible

A

B. Lower cranium

294
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Parietal bone

B. Frontal bone

C. Nasal bone

D. Temporal bone

A

B. Frontal bone

295
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Maxillary sinus

B. Foramen magnum

C. Mastoid air cell

D. Mandible

A

D. Mandible

296
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Occipital bone

B. Parietal bone

C. Temporal bone

D. Frontal bone

A

B. Parietal bone

297
Q

This coronal image of the face shows multiple fractures to the left zygoma and maxilla. What facial injury is visible in this image?

A. Blowout fracture

B. Nasal bone fracture

C. LeFort fracture

D. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

E. Mandibular fracture

A

D. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

298
Q

What structure of the cranium is represent by letter A?

A. Sagittal suture

B. Coronal suture

C. Lambdoidal suture

D. Foramen magnum

A

A. Sagittal suture

299
Q

What cranial injury is visible in this image?

A. Liner skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

300
Q

Identify “C” in the anatomy in this image.

A. Mastoid air cells

B. Occipital bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Squamosal suture

A

A. Mastoid air cells

301
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Mastoid air cells

B. Occipital bone

C. Frontal sinus

D. Squamosal suture

A

C. Frontal sinus

302
Q

This coronal image of the facial bones demonstrates a linear fracture extending across the entire face, through the nasal cavity and both maxillary sinuses. What name is given to this kind of fracture?

A. Blowout fracture

B. Nasal bone fracture

C. LeFort fracture

D. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

A

C. LeFort fracture

303
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Occipital bone

B. Sphenoid bone

C. Temporal bone

D. Sella turcica

A

A. Occipital bone

304
Q

This image demonstrates fractures affecting the zygomatic arch and the right maxillary sinus. What facial injury is visible in this image?

A. Blowout fracture

B. Nasal bone fracture

C. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

D. Mandibular fracture

A

C. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

305
Q

What structure is represented by letter G?

A. Mandible

B. Maxillary bone

C. Nasal bone

D. Parietal bone

A

A. Mandible

306
Q

What structure is represented by the letter C?

A. Mandible

B. Maxillary sinus

C. Maxillary bone

D. Frontal sinus

A

B. Maxillary sinus

307
Q

What facial injury is visible in this image?

A. Blowout fracture

B. Nasal bone fracture

C. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

D. Mandibular fracture

A

D. Mandibular fracture

308
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Frontal bone

B. Zygoma

C. Temporal bone

D. Maxillary bone

A

B. Zygoma

309
Q

Which of these skull fractures does NOT include significant displacement of the affected cranial bone?

A. Linear skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-Pong skull fracture

A

A. Linear skull fracture

310
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Frontal sinus

B. Sphenoid sinus

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Zygomatic arch

A

C. Ethmoid sinus

311
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Zygomatic bone

B. Maxillary bone

C. Frontal bone

A

C. Frontal bone

312
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Sphenoid sinus

B. Mandible

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Zygomatic arch

A

D. Zygomatic arch

313
Q

Which of these injuries is most likely to be associated with dural tears, cranial instability, and CSF leaking?

A. Linear skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-Pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

D. Basilar skull fracture

314
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Zygomatic bone

B. Frontal bone

C. Mandible

D. Temporal bone

A

A. Zygomatic bone

315
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Mandible

B. Zygomatic bone

C. Frontal sinus

D. Maxillary sinus

A

C. Frontal sinus

316
Q

Traumatic injuries causing a linear skull fracture is most likely to be associated with which of these conditions?

A. Intracranial bleeding

B. Ischemic stroke

C. Cerebral aneurysm

D. Arterial-venous malformations

A

A. Intracranial bleeding

317
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Sphenoid sinus

B. Ethmoid sinus

C. Mandible

D. Zygomatic arch

A

A. Sphenoid sinus

318
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Occipital bone

B. Parietal bone

C. Temporal bone

D. Frontal bone

A

B. Parietal bone

319
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Zygomatic bone

B. Maxillary bone

C. Frontal bone

A

B. Maxillary bone

320
Q

A 38 year old patient presents to the emergency department with severe cranial trauma after being struck on the head with a hammer. CT imaging of the injury will likely reveal a:

A. Linear skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

B. Depressed skull fracture

321
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Frontal bone

B. Maxillary bone

C. Zygomatic bone

A

C. Zygomatic bone

322
Q

The cranial injury visible in this image is described as a:

A. Linear skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

323
Q

What cranial injury is visible in this image?

A. Linear skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

B. Depressed skull fracture

324
Q

What cranial injury is visible in this image?

A. Linear skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

A. Linear skull fracture

325
Q

What cranial injury is visible in this image?

A. Linear skull fracture

B. Depressed skull fracture

C. Ping-pong skull fracture

D. Basilar skull fracture

A

B. Depressed skull fracture

326
Q

A zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture usually affects the zygomatic arch, the maxillary sinus, and what other structure?

A. Wall of the orbit

B. Ethmoid sinus

C. Frontal sinus

D. Nasal septum

A

A. Wall of the orbit

327
Q

In the image below, the large accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid is called a(n):

A. Arachnoid cyst

B. Astrocytoma

C. Meningioma

D. Pituitary adenoma

A

A. Arachnoid cyst

328
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Middle Cerebral Artery

B. Anterior Cerebral Artery

C. Basilar Artery

D. Internal Carotid Artery

E. Posterior Cerebral Artery

A

C. Basilar Artery

329
Q

What structure is represented by the letter C?

A. Fourth ventricle

B. Ethmoid sinus

C. Cerebellum

D. Sphenoid sinus

A

C. Cerebellum

330
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Lateral fissure

B. Lateral ventricle

C. Thalamus

D. Frontal lobe

A

D. Frontal lobe

331
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. C1

B. Lateral ventricle

C. Superior sagittal sinus

D. Pons

A

D. Pons

332
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Posterior Cerebral Artery

B. Vertebral Artery

C. Basilar Artery

D. Internal Carotid Artery

E. Anterior Cerebral artery

A

C. Basilar Artery

333
Q

This image demonstrates bilateral blood accumulation on surface of the brain. Based on the appearance of blood, what is the condition?

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Subdural hematoma

C. Meningioma

D. Pituitary adenoma

E. Arterial Venous Malformation (AVM)

A

B. Subdural hematoma

334
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Lateral ventricle

B. Pons

C. Parietal lobe

D. Superior sagittal sinus

A

C. Parietal lobe

335
Q

What pathology is visible in the image below?

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Meningioma

D. Pituitary adenoma

E. Arterial Venous Malformation

A

B. Hydrocephalus

336
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Cerebellum

B. Occipital lobe

C. Parietal lobe

D. Temporal lobe

A

A. Cerebellum

337
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Cerebellum

B. Sphenoid sinus

C. Maxillary sinus

A

A. Cerebellum

338
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Longitudinal fissure

B. Parietal lobe

C. Lateral fissure

D. Cerebellum

A

B. Parietal lobe

339
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Frontal lobe

B. Pons

C. Lateral fissure

D. Temporal lobe

A

D. Temporal lobe

340
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Middle Cerebral Artery

B. Anterior Communicating Artery

C. Posterior Cerebral Artery

D. Vertebral Artery

A

D. Vertebral Artery

341
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Temporal lobe

B. Ethmoid sinus

C. Cerebellum

D. Orbit

A

A. Temporal lobe

342
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Superior sagittal sinus

B. C1

C. C2

D. Pons

A

B. C1

343
Q

This image demonstrates a benign tumor of the brain called a:

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Meningioma

D. Pituitary adenoma

A

C. Meningioma

344
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Temporal lobe

B. Longitudinal fissure

C. Lateral fissure

D. Frontal lobe

A

B. Longitudinal fissure

345
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Anterior Communicating artery

B. Posterior Communicating artery

C. Middle Cerebral artery

D. Internal Carotid artery

A

D. Internal Carotid artery

346
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Temporal lobe

B. Superior sagittal sinus

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Sphenoid sinus

A

D. Sphenoid sinus

347
Q

This image shows an entangled web of enlarged blood vessels in the brain. What pathology is visible in the image?

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Meningioma

D. Pituitary adenoma

E. Arterial Venous Malformation (AVM)

A

E. Arterial Venous Malformation (AVM)

348
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Temporal lobe

B. Sphenoid sinus

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Superior sagittal sinus

A

D. Superior sagittal sinus

349
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Cerebellum

B. Lateral fissure

C. Longitudinal fissure

D. Occipital lobe

A

A. Cerebellum

350
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Posterior Cerebral artery

B. Anterior Cerebral artery

C. Middle Cerebral artery

D. Basilar artery

E. Internal Carotid artery

A

B. Anterior Cerebral artery

351
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Parietal lobe

B. Cerebellum

C. Pons

D. Temporal lobe

A

C. Pons

352
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Temporal lobe

B. Lateral fissure

C. Frontal lobe

D. Lateral ventricle

A

C. Frontal lobe

353
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Temporal lobe

B. Occipital lobe

C. Frontal lobe

D. Cerebellum

A

B. Occipital lobe

354
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Parietal lobe

B. Frontal lobe

C. Occipital lobe

D. Temporal lobe

A

A. Parietal lobe

355
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Frontal lobe

B. Cerebellum

C. Brain stem

D. Occipital lobe

A

C. Brain stem

356
Q

Based on the position and appearance of the tumor imaged below, this abnormality is most likely a:

A. Ischemic stroke

B. Meduloblastoma

C. Metastatic lesion

D. Pituitary adenoma

A

B. Meduloblastoma

357
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Longitudinal fissure

B. Pons

C. Frontal lobe

D. Lateral fissure

A

C. Frontal lobe

358
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Temporal lobe

B. Frontal lobe

C. Lateral Ventricle

D. Lateral fissure

A

A. Temporal lobe

359
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Posterior Cerebral artery

B. Middle Cerebral artery

C. Anterior Communicating Artery

D. Vertebral Arterty

A

A. Posterior Cerebral artery

360
Q

This is an MRO weighted so that cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) appears bright white. What pathology is visible in the image?

A. Arachnoid cyst

B. Astrocytoma

C. Meningioma

D. Pituitary adenoma

A

A. Arachnoid cyst

361
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Vertebral artery

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

C. Posterior Cerebral Artery

D. Anterior Communicating Artery

A

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

362
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Posterior Communicating Artery

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

C. Posterior Cerebral Artery

D. Anterior Cerebral Artery

A

A. Posterior Communicating Artery

363
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

C. Basilar Artery

D. Posterior Cerebral Artery

E. Anterior Cerebral Artery

A

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

364
Q

What pathology is visible in the image below?

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Metastatic cancer

D. Pituitary adenoma

E. Acoustic Neuroma

A

E. Acoustic Neuroma

365
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Occipital lobe

B. Frontal lobe

C. Lateral fissure

D. Lateral ventricle

A

C. Lateral fissure

366
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Parietal lobe

B. Cerebellum

C. Frontal lobe

D. Temporal lobe

A

D. Temporal lobe

367
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Medulla oblongata

B. Pons

C. Corpus callosum

D. Lateral ventricle

A

C. Corpus callosum

368
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Thalamus

B. Lateral fissure

C. Lateral ventricle

D. Occipital lobe

A

A. Thalamus

369
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Anterior communicating Artery

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

C. Internal Carotid Artery

D. Posterior Communicating Artery

A

A. Anterior communicating Artery

370
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Lateral fissure

B. Longitudinal fissure

C. Cerebrum

D. Falx cerebri

A

C. Cerebrum

371
Q

This non-contrast CT image demonstrates blood accumulation throughout the suprasellar cistern. This condition is called:

A. Ischemic stroke

B. Encephalitis

C. Meningioma

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

372
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Cerebrum

B. Falx cerebri

C. Lateral fissure

D. Longitudinal fissure

A

B. Falx cerebri

373
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Ethmoid sinus

B. Cerebellum

C. Sphenoid sinus

D. Orbit

A

D. Orbit

374
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

C. Basilar Artery

D. Posterior Cerebral Artery

A

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

375
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. Middle Cerebral Artery

C. Basilar Artery

D. Posterior Cerebral Artery

A

A. Internal Carotid Artery

376
Q

In this MRI image of the Circle of Willis, a ruptured aneurysm at the tip of the basilar artery has caused a condition called:

A. Metastatic disease

B. Encephalitis

C. Meningioma

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

E. Arterial Venous Malformation

A
  1. D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
377
Q

The patient imaged below is likely experiencing neurological deficits as a result of:

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Meningioma

D. Pituitary adenoma

A

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

378
Q

The image below shows multiple contrast-enhanced lesions in the brain. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Ischemic stroke

B. Meduloblastoma

C. Metastatic lesions

D. Pituitary adenoma

A

C. Metastatic lesions

379
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Vertebral artery

B. Posterior Cerebral artery

C. Anterior Cerebral artery

D. Basilar Artery

A

B. Posterior Cerebral artery

380
Q

In the image below, the large hematoma on the surface of the brain is called a:

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Astrocytoma

D. Epidural hemorrhage

A

D. Epidural hemorrhage

381
Q

Thrombosis within the any vessel in the Circle of Willis may cause the clinical manifestation of:

A. Ischemic stroke

B. Hydrochephalus

C. Meningitis

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

A. Ischemic stroke

382
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Common Carotid Artery

B. Internal Jugular Vein

C. Aortic Arch

D. Vertebral artery

A

B. Internal Jugular Vein

383
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Internal Jugular Vein

B. Trachea

C. Brachiocephalic Artery

D. Aortic Arch

A

C. Brachiocephalic Artery

384
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Orbit

D. Common Carotid

A

C. Orbit

385
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Left Subclavian Artery

B. Right Subclavian Artery

C. Vertebral Artery

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

C. Vertebral Artery

386
Q

What structure is represented in letter C?

A. Vertebral Foramen

B. Transverse Foramen

C. Spinous Process

D. Lamina

A

B. Transverse Foramen

387
Q

What structure is represented in letter D?

A. Transverse Foramina

B. Odontoid Process

C. Anterior Arch of C1

D. Vertebral Foramen

A

B. Odontoid Process

388
Q

What structure is represented in letter D?

A. Vertebral Foramen

B. Transverse Foramen

C. Spinous Process

D. Lamina

A

C. Spinous Process

389
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Right Brachiocephalic Vein

B. Left Brachiochephalic Vein

C. Right Common Carotid Artery

D. Left Common Carotid Artery

A

D. Left Common Carotid Artery

390
Q

What structure is represented by letter F?

A. Left Internal Jugular Vein

B. Aortic Arch

C. Right Common Carotid Artery

D. Left Internal Carotid Artery

A

B. Aortic Arch

391
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Middle Cerebral Artery

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

B. External Carotid Artery

392
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Common Carotid Artery

B. Vertebral Artery

C. Middle Cerebral Artery

D. Internal Carotid Artery

A

A. Common Carotid Artery

393
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Vertebral Artery

D. Internal Jugular Vein

E. External Jugular Vein

A

B. External Carotid Artery

394
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Internal Jugular Vein

B. Vertebral Artery

C. Common Carotid Artery

A

B. Vertebral Artery

395
Q

What structure is represented in letter F?

A. ALL

B. PLL

C. Supraspinous Ligament

D. Interspinous Ligament

A

C. Supraspinous Ligament

396
Q

What structure is represented by letter F?

A. Clavicle

B. Mandible

C. Sphenoid sinus

D. Sternum

A

A. Clavicle

397
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Common Carotid Artery

B. Right Brachiocephalic Vein

C. Left Brachiocephalic Vein

D. Laryngopharynx

A

A. Common Carotid Artery

398
Q

Structure is represented by letter D?

A. Vertebral Artery

B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

C. Internal Jugular vein

D. Common carotid artery

A

B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

399
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Left Subclavian Artery

B. Right Subclavian Artery

C. Vertebral Artery

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

D. Common Carotid Artery

400
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Vertebral Artery

D. Internal Jugular Vein

A

D. Internal Jugular Vein

401
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Sphenoid Sinus

B. Mastoid Air Cells

C. Orbit

D. Ethmoid Sinus

A

D. Ethmoid Sinus

402
Q

What structure is represented by letter F?

A. Internal Jugular Vein

B. Aortic Arch

C. Laryngopharynx

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

A. Internal Jugular Vein

403
Q

Which of these pathologies is demonstrated in the image below?

A. Meningioma

B. Tethered cord

C. Spondylolisthesis

D. Metastasis

A

B. Tethered cord

404
Q

What structure is represented in letter C?

A. C1

B. C2

C. Transverse Process

D. Sphenoid Sinuses

A

B. C2

405
Q

What structure is represented in letter B?

A. Sphenoid Process

B. Odontoid Process

C. Anterior Arch of C1

D. Transverse Foramina

A

A. Sphenoid Process

406
Q

What structure is represented by letter F?

A. Trachea

B. Tongue

C. Sphenoid Sinus

D. Nasopharynx

A

A. Trachea

407
Q

What structure is represented in letter B?

A. Lamina

B. Vertebral Foramen

C. Spinous process

D. Intervertebral Foramina

A

A. Lamina

408
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Middle Cerebral Artery

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

C. Middle Cerebral Artery

409
Q

What structure is represented in letter B?

A. Intervertebral disc

B. Transverse Foramina

C. Psoas Muscles

D. Intervertebral Foramina

A

A. Intervertebral disc

410
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Clavicle

B. Sternum

C. Vertebra

D. Rib

A

A. Clavicle

411
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Nasopharynx

B. Laryngopharynx

C. Oropharynx

D. Sphenoid Sinus

A

D. Sphenoid Sinus

412
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Middle Cerebral Artery

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

A. Internal Carotid Artery

413
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Internal Jugular Vein

B. Aortic Arch

C. Laryngopharynx

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

C. Laryngopharynx

414
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Right Brachiocephalic Vein

B. Left Brachiocephalic Vein

C. Right Common Carotid Artery

D. Left Common Carotid Artery

A

C. Right Common Carotid Artery

415
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Orbit

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

D. Common Carotid Artery

416
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Vertebral Artery

D. Basilar Artery

A

B. External Carotid Artery

417
Q

What pathology is visible in this image?

A. Meningioma

B. Spina Bifida

C. Tethered cord

D. Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

B. Spina Bifida

418
Q

Structure is represented by letter E?

A. Vertebral Artery

B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

C. Internal Carotid Artery

D. Mandible

A

A. Vertebral Artery

419
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Middle Cerebral Artery

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

B. External Carotid Artery

420
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Nasopharynx

B. Mandible

C. Maxillary sinus

D. Vertebral Artery

A

B. Mandible

421
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Left internal Jugular Vein

B. Aortic Arch

C. Right Common Carotid Artery

D. Left internal Carotid Artery

A

A. Left internal Jugular Vein

422
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Orbit

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

A. Internal Carotid Artery

423
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Left Subclavian Artery

B. Right Subclavian Artery

C. Vertebral Artery

D. Common Carotid Artery

A

B. Right Subclavian Artery

424
Q

What pathology is visible in this image?

A. Meningioma

B. Spina Bifida

C. Tethered cord

D. Metastasis

A

A. Meningioma

425
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Trachea

B. Esophagus

C. Vertebra

D. Sternum

A

B. Esophagus

426
Q

What is the structure represented in letter A?

A. Lamina

B. Vertebral Foramen

C. Spinous Process

D. Intervertebral Foramina

A

D. Intervertebral Foramina

427
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Medulla oblongata

B. Cervical vertebra

C. Spinal Cord

D. Cerebrum

A

A. Medulla oblongata

428
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Common Carotid Artery

B. Internal Jugular Vein

C. Aortic Arch

D. Vertebral Artery

A

A. Common Carotid Artery

429
Q

What structure is represented in letter C?

A. Internal Carotid Artery

B. External Carotid Artery

C. Vertebral Artery

D. Internal Jugular Vein

E. External Jugular Vein

A

D. Internal Jugular Vein

430
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Brachiocephalic Vein

B. Subclavian Artery

C. Esophagus

D. Pulmonary Artery

A

C. Esophagus

431
Q

This image shows blotchy fluid accumulation throughout the right lung. What is the likely diagnosis for this pathology?

A. Pleural effusion

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Emphysema

A

C. Pneumonia

432
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Right Ventricle

B. Left Ventricle

C. Left Atrium

D. Pulmonary Artery

E. Pulmonary Vein

A

E. Pulmonary Vein

433
Q

Which of these conditions often results in well-organized collections in the lungs with abscess or cavity formation?

A. Hemothorax

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Emphysema

A

D. Tuberculosis

434
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Rib

B. Coracoid process

C. Sternum

D. Scapular Spine

A

D. Scapular Spine

435
Q

Congestive heart failure (CHF) is commonly associated with which of these conditions?

A. Pulmonary embolism

B. Cardiomegaly

C. Myxoma

D. Aortic aneurysm

E. Coronary artery disease

A

B. Cardiomegaly

436
Q

What condition is visualized as destruction and enlargement of air spaces in the lungs?

A. Hemothorax

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Emphysema

A

E. Emphysema

437
Q

What structure is represented in letter D?

A. Right ventricle

B. Left ventricle

C. Left atrium

D. Pulmonary artery

E. Pulmonary vein

A

B. Left ventricle

438
Q

Excessive fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac is called:

A. Pericardial effusion

B. Cardiomegaly

C. Pulmonary embolism

D. Aortic aneurysm

A

A. Pericardial effusion

439
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Left main coronary artery

B. Ascending Aorta

C. Descending Aorta

D. Circumflex Artery

A

B. Ascending Aorta

440
Q

A condition of air in the pleural cavity is called:

A. Hemothorax

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumonia

D. Pleural effusion

A

B. Pneumothorax

441
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Descending Aorta

B. Main Stem Bronchi

C. IVC

D. Pulmonary Trunk

A

B. Main Stem Bronchi

442
Q

The patient below has not experienced recent trauma, but they do have a known diagnosis of lung cancer. The fluid accumulation in the posterior lungs is probably a condition of:

A. Hemothorax

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumonia

D. Pleural effusion

A

D. Pleural effusion

443
Q

What structure is represented in letter E?

A. Right coronary artery

B. Circumflex artery

C. Left anterior descending artery

D. Ascending aorta

E. Descending aorta

A

B. Circumflex artery

444
Q

Which of these lung conditions originates from a disease process outside the lungs?

A. Pulmonary metastasis

B. Bronchogenic carcinoma

C. Pneumonia

D. Pleural effusion

E. Emphysema

A

A. Pulmonary metastasis

445
Q

This image demonstrates large areas of hyper-inflated lung tissue. This condition is called:

A. Hemothorax

B. Pleural effusion

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Emphysema

A

E. Emphysema

446
Q

What structure is represented in letter C?

A. Left main coronary artery

B. Ascending aorta

C. Descending aorta

D. Circumflex artery

A

A. Left main coronary artery

447
Q

What structure is represented in letter C?

A. Ascending aorta

B. Descending aorta

C. IVC

D. Pulmonary Trunk

A

D. Pulmonary Trunk

448
Q

The appearance of multiple contrast-enhancing tumors throughout the lungs is a sign of:

A. Pulmonary metastasis

B. Bronchogenic carcinoma

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Emphysema

A

A. Pulmonary metastasis

449
Q

Based on the appearance of multiple contrast enhanced lesions, this patient probably has a condition called:

A. Pulmonary metastasis

B. Bronchogenic carcinoma

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Emphysema

A

A. Pulmonary metastasis

450
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Scapular Spine

B. Glenoid Process

C. Acromion process

D. Coracoid process

A

D. Coracoid process

451
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Left atrium

B. Aorta

C. Circumflex artery

D. Right coronary artery

A

D. Right coronary artery

452
Q

What structure is represented in letter D?

A. Right coronary artery

B. Circumflex artery

C. Left Anterior Descending Artery

D. Ascending Aorta

E. Descending Aorta

A

C. Left Anterior Descending Artery

453
Q

What structure is represented in letter E?

A. Right coronary artery

B. Circumflex artery

C. Left anterior Descending artery

D. Ascending Aorta

A

B. Circumflex artery

454
Q

In this image, scarring of the lung tissue is called:

A. Hemothroax

B. Pleural effusion

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Interstitial lung disease

A

E. Interstitial lung disease

455
Q

What structure is represented in letter B?

A. Right atrium

B. Left Atrium

C. Right Ventricle

D. Left Ventricle

E. Right Coronary Artery

A

E. Right Coronary Artery

456
Q

This patient has experience trauma to the chest. Based on this history, and the appearance of the below, what pathology is demonstrated?

A. Hemothorax

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumonia

D. Pleural Effusion

A

A. Hemothorax

457
Q

Scarring and deformation of lung tissue condition called:

A. Hemothorax

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumonia

D. Tuberculosis

E. Interstitial lung disease

A

E. Interstitial lung disease

458
Q

What structure is represented in letter B?

A. Rib

B. Acromion Process

C. Coracoid Process

D. Scapular Spine

A

A. Rib

459
Q

What structure is represented in letter E?

A. Right atrium

B. Left atrium

C. Right ventricle

D. Left ventricle

A

B. Left atrium

460
Q

What structure is represented in letter D?

A. Femoral head

B. Femoral artery

C. Acetabulum

D. Pubic symphysis

E. Femoral vein

A

A. Femoral head

461
Q

What liver pathology is demonstrated in coronal MR image?

A. Liver laceration

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

C. Liver metastasis

D. Liver Hemangioma

A

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

462
Q

What aspect of this axial computed tomography image represents pancreatic cancer?

A

A.

463
Q

In the image below, the abdnormal size of the spleen indicates which diagnosis?

A. Splenic lymphoma

B. Splenic laceration

C. Liver metastasis

D. Liver hemangioma

A

A. Splenic lymphoma

464
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Renal Artery

B. Superior mesenteric Artery

C. Celiac trunk

D. Common iliac artery

A

A. Renal Artery

465
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Stomach

B. Liver

C. Aorta

D. Spleen

E. Inferior vena cava

A

E. Inferior vena cava

466
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Stomach

B. Liver

C. Aorta

D. Spleen

E. Inferior Vena Cava

A

D. Spleen

467
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Psoas muscle

B. Inferior vena cava

C. Aorta

D. Large bowel

A

B. Inferior vena cava

468
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Rectum

B. Ilium

C. Bladder

D. Sacrum

A

B. Ilium

469
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Iliac crest

B. Internal iliac artery

C. External iliac artery

D. Sacrum

A

A. Iliac crest

470
Q

Which of the following terms describes a primary liver cancer?

A. Liver laceration

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

C. Liver metastasis

D. Liver Hemangioma

A

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

471
Q

Inflammation of the pancreas with associated ascites are common signs of:

A. Pancreatitis

B. Pancreatic cancer

C. Metastatic disease

D. Ulcerative colitis

A

A. Pancreatitis

472
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Portal vein

B. Small bowel

C. Ascending colon

D. Descending colon

E. Gall bladder

A

C. Ascending colon

473
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Aorta

B. Small bowel

C. Ascending colon

D. Psoas muscle

E. Spinal cord

A

B. Small bowel

474
Q

This image demonstrates significant dilation of the small bowel as well as thickening of the small bowel wall. What pathologies are visible in this image? Choose multiple.

A. Crohn’s disease

B. Colitis

C. Small bowel obstruction

D. Colorectal cancer

A

A. Crohn’s disease

C. Small bowel obstruction

475
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Femoral head

B. Pelvic bone

C. Femoral neck

D. Greater trochanter

A

D. Greater trochanter

476
Q

What structure is represented in letter C?

A. Femoral head

B. Femoral artery

C. Pubic symphysis

D. Femoral vein

A

C. Pubic symphysis

477
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Gall bladder

B. Renal artery

C. Inferior vena cava

D. Small bowel

A

B. Renal artery

478
Q

What kind of liver pathology appears as a contrast-enhancing lesion in the arterial phase of contrast enhancement?

A. Liver laceration

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

C. Liver metastasis

D. Liver Hemangioma

A

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

479
Q

Which of these conditions is an idiopathic inflammatory pathology primarily affecting the small bowel?

A. Crohn’s disease

B. Colitis

C. Small bowel obstruction

D. Colorectal cancer

A

A. Crohn’s disease

480
Q

This patient arrived in the ER with sudden onset RLQ pain. Based on the clinical history and the image below, what is the probable diagnosis?

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma

B. Appendicitis

C. Bowel obstruction

D. Colorectal cancer

A

B. Appendicitis

481
Q

What structure is represented by letter C?

A. Stomach

B. Gallbladder

C. Superior mesenteric artery

D. Spleen

A

A. Stomach

482
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Vagina

B. Fat

C. Bladder

D. Rectum

A

B. Fat

483
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Right kidney

B. Left kidney

C. Liver

D. Stomach

A

D. Stomach

484
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Aorta

B. Portal vein

C. Stomach

D. Psoas muscle

A

A. Aorta

485
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Pubic bone

B. Sacral Bone

C. Anus

D. Fat

A

A. Pubic bone

486
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Coccyx

B. Femoral head

C. Rectum

D. Bladder

E. Acetabulum

A

D. Bladder

487
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Liver

B. Gall bladder

C. Transverse colon

D. Ascending colon

A

D. Ascending colon

488
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Splenic vein

B. Portal vein

C. Renal medulla

D. Stomach

E. Renal cortex

A

E. Renal cortex

489
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Spleen

B. Celiac trunk

C. Gall bladder

D. Kidney

E. Large bowel

A

B. Celiac trunk

490
Q

What structure is represented in letter A?

A. Iliac crest

B. Internal iliac artery

C. External iliac artery

D. Sacrum

A

C. External iliac artery

491
Q

What structure is represented by letter B?

A. Gall bladder

B. Renal artery

C. Inferior vena cava

D. Small bowel

A

C. Inferior vena cava

492
Q

What structure is represented by letter E?

A. Small bowel

B. Large bowel

C. Liver

D. Stomach

A

A. Small bowel

493
Q

What structure is represented in letter F?

A. Femoral head

B. Ilium

C. Sacrum

D. Obturator foramen

A

D. Obturator foramen

494
Q

This patient was involved in a motor vehicle accident and now experiences right flank pain. Based on the clinical history and appearance of the image, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Liver laceration

B. Spleen laceration

C. Liver metastasis

D. Liver hemangioma

A

A. Liver laceration

495
Q

What structure is represented in letter E?

A. Psoas muscle

B. Common iliac artery

C. Transverse process

D. Spinous process

E. Colon

A

C. Transverse process

496
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Psoas muscle

B. Aorta

C. Portal vein

D. Inferior vena cava

A

C. Portal vein

497
Q

What structure is represented by letter A?

A. Prostate

B. Rectum

C. Femoral artery

D. Bladder

A

C. Femoral artery

498
Q

What structure is represented by letter D?

A. Splenic Vein

B. Portal Vein

C. Renal Medulla

D. Stomach

E. Renal Cortex

A

A. Splenic Vein