Procedural rules and procedure tips Flashcards

1
Q

Circling approach for reciprocal runway

A

turn 45 for 20secs then parallel rwy, then 3 secs per 100 ft once abeam threshold then turn onto base
500 = 15
1000= 30 etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Visual approach at night

A

Runway lights in sight, remain on track and above MSA until established in the circling area. Then descend in accordance with 3 in 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can you turn directly outbound from overhead?

A

When inbound track is within 30 degrees of outbound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Leeway allowed of choosing type of holding pattern entry

A

plus or minus 5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum initial approach speed Cat C

A

160 to 240 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum final approach speed Cat C

A

115 to 160 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum Circling speed Cat C

A

180 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum speed missed approach Cat C

A

240 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum speed on SID Cat C

A

265 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Circling Area Cat C

A

4.2 Nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Standard SID profile

A

3.3% 200ft/NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Standard Missed Approach Profile

A

2.5% 150 ft/NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Alternate required if?

A

Forecast 1hr before up to 1 hr after eta indicate ceiling less than 1000 ft above minima for approach and or visibility less than 5km (or 2k more than approach requires, whichever is greater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Departure Alternate Required if?

A

Conditions are above departure minimums but below approach minimums. Departure alternate within 60mins SE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Reduced Minima requirements?

A

Tower on watch
Above Reduced Minima
Crew Qualified
Operative auto course/ auto feather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Altimeter Serviceability

A

+30ft -45ft

17
Q

VSI Serviceability

A

Should read zero. Serviceable up to 200 fpm

18
Q

DI Serviceability

A

Serviceable up to 16 degrees per hour.

19
Q

Compass Serviceability

A

plus or minus 5 degrees runway heading

20
Q

ADF serviceability

A

+/- 3 degrees

21
Q

VOR Serviceability

A

+/- 2 degrees

22
Q

DME Serviceability

A

up to 0.2NM

23
Q

Instrument Approach tracking VOR

A

+/- 5 deg to commence descent, +/- 2.5 deg for last 300 feet

24
Q

DME Arc tracking tolerance

A

+/- 1 nm maximum

25
Q

Instrument Approach tracking NDB

A

+/- 5 deg to commence descent, +/-3 degrees for last 300 feet

26
Q

IFR alternate aerodrome weather requirement Precision Approach

A

As Published or ceiling 600ft or 200ft above DA/DH

3000m or 1000 more than prescribed for approach.

27
Q

IFR alternate aerodrome weather requirement Non-Precision Approach

A

As Published or ceiling 800ft of 200ft above DA/DH

4000m or 1500m greater than prescribed for approach

28
Q

Required Rate of Climb

A

= GS (NM/MIN) x Gradient (ft/NM)

29
Q

Drift Calculation

A

Cross wind component (Kts) divided by NM/MIN

30
Q

AOB on Missed Approach

A

15 degrees

31
Q

Minimum turn altitude on SID?

A

400ft

32
Q

Drift Calculation

A

XW component divided by NM/Min

33
Q

Max Holding Speed below 14,000ft Cat C

A

230kts

34
Q

Max Holding Speed above 14000ft Cat C

A

240kts

35
Q

Emergency Code

A

7700

36
Q

Loss of Com code

A

7600

37
Q

Hijack

A

7500