Problem questions (ie ones I can't remember) Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics of the Parietal Pleura

A

Consists of a single layer of flat, cuboidal mesothelial cells, supported by loose connective tissue.

The arterial supply = intercostal and internal mammary arteries.
Venous blood drains to the systemic circulation.

Innervation = sensory branches of the intercostal and phrenic nerves.

Has direct connection to the lymphatic vessels.
- Stomas: increase with inspiration

Anterior parietal pleura drains to the internal intercostal lymph nodes
Posterior parietal pleura drains to the lymph nodes located along the internal thoracic artery.

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2
Q

Characteristics of the Visceral Pleura

A

Tightly adherent to lung surface and interlobar fissures

Microvilli, are evident on the apical surfaces - homeostasis of the pleural fluid and contribute to transmembrane solute and fluid movement.

Vesicles trap particles and glycoproteins, thereby reducing friction between the visceral and parietal pleurae.

Arterial supply = the bronchial arteries, with a minor contribution from the pulmonary circulation.

The lymphatic glands drain to the mediastinal nodes, following the course set by the pulmonary veins and arteries.

The visceral pleura has no sensory innervation, but it is supplied by branches of the vagus and sympathetic trunks.

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3
Q

Blood supply to the lung?

A

Lung gets blood from 2 separate systems:
1) Bronchial
○ High pressure/low volume
○ Bronchial arteries come form aorta or a branch from that
○ Provides blood to conducting airways -> mainstem bronchi to terminal bronchioles
○ Bleeding -> profuse, can result in massive hemoptysis

2) Pulmonary
○ Low pressure/high capacitance
○ Comes from RV
○ Supplies acinar units (gas exchange)
○ Alveolar hemorrhage -> low grade, chronic, diffuse
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4
Q

2 pathways for pulmonary fluid clearance

A

1) Lymphatics (most important)

2) Venular end of the microvascular bed

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5
Q

Causes of pulmonary hemorrhage in children

A
Infection
Abscess
Pneumonia
Trauma
Vascular disorders
Coagulopathy
Congenital Lung Malformations
Miscellaneous: Catamenial, Factitious, Malignancy
DAH syndromes
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6
Q

Causes of DAH syndromes

A

1) Immune mediated
- Idiopathic pulmonary capillaritis
- GPA
- MPA
- Anti-GBM disease
- SLE
- HSP
- Behcets
- Cryoglobulinemia vasculitis
- JIA
- COPA syndrome

2) Non-immune mediated
- IPH
- Acute idiopathic pulmonary hemorrhage of infancy
- Heiner’s syndrome
- Asphyxiation/abuse
- CV causes
- Pulm vein atresia/stenosis
- TAPVR
- Mitral stenosis
- Left sided failure
- PCH
- Pulm telangiectasia

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7
Q

6 classes of CF mutations

A

Class I: protein synthesis defect - affects CFTR transcription

Class II: maturation defect - misfolded protein, early degradatiob

Class III: gating defect - reduced ATP binding, resulting in abnormal gating characterized by a reduced open probability

Class IV: conductance defect-alter the channel conductance by impeding the ion conduction pore, leading to a reduced unitary conductance

Class V: reduced quantity- reduced amount of normal functioning protein

Class VI: Reduced stability - conformational stability reduced

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8
Q

Pseudomonas mechanisms of inhibition of lung defenses

A

1) Induced damage in immune cells
2) Virulence traits and secretion of virulence factors
3) Epithelial injury - loss of alveolar barrier - biofilm formation
4) resistant to neutrophils

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9
Q

Pseudomonas biofilm properties

A

1) Mucous provides anaerobic environment for bacterial growth
2) Decreased secretion of bactericidal compounds into CF airways
3) increased DNA and actin

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10
Q

Pseudomonas mechanisms of resistance

A

1) Amp C beta-lactamase
2) Extended spectrum beta-lactamase
3) Downregulation of Opr-D
4) Multidrug efflux pumps
5) Biofilm formation

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11
Q

Measurement of nasal potential difference

A
  • Difference of electric potential measured between a reference electrode and silver/silver chloride electrode
  • Inferior turbinate
  • Recordings - continuous flow of salt solutions
  • Measured in: saline, amiloride, chloride free amiloride, isoproteronol added to activate CFTR
  • Sum = index of CFTR function
  • <40 = abnormal ( 2 separate days)
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12
Q

Components of MAC complex

A
  • M. Avium
  • M. Intracellulare
  • M. Chimaera
  • M. Kansasii

“slow growers”

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13
Q

Treatment of MAC complex

A

1) No CF or cavitations: macrolide, rifampin, ethambutol 3x/week PO
2) CF: daily as above
3) CF with resistance or cavitations: 1-3 mos IV amikacin plus above

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14
Q

Treatment of M. Kansasii

A

**Think of TB

Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol x 12 mos after 1st culture negative

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15
Q

Components of M. Abscessus species complex

A
  • M. Abscessus
  • M. Massiliense
  • M. Balleti

“rapid growers” *Younger and more severe disease

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16
Q

Treatment of M. Abscessus

A

Intensive and Continuation
I = 3-12 weeks of IV Amikacin + 1 of: Cefoxitin, Imipenum, Tigecycline
C = Inhaled Amikacin with 2-3 of: Moxifloxacin, Minocycline, Clofazamine, Linezolid

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17
Q

Dx criteria for NTM disease

A

Clinical (both are required):

  • Pulmonary symptoms, nodular or cavitary opacities on CXR or CT showing multifocal bronchiectasis with multiple small nodules
  • Appropriate exclusion of other diagnoses

Micro criteria (need one)

  • Positive culture results from at least 2 separate expectorated sputum samples
  • Postive culture results from at least one bronchial wash or lavage
  • Transbronchial or other lung bx with mycobacterial histopath features and postive cx for NTM
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18
Q

General treatment guidelines for NTM pulmonary disease

A

1) Treat 12 mos beyond culture conversion (after first negative culture, need 3 negative in total)
2) No macrolide monotherapy
3) Monthly AFB smears + cultures while on treatment
4) Should show clinical improvement in 3-6 mos
5) Treatment failure = no response after 6 mos of appropriate treatment or no conversion to AFB negative culture after 12 mos

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19
Q

Conditions that may be associated with an increase incidence of CFTR mutations but insufficient evidence to fulfill a CF diagnosis

A
  • Pancreatitis: acute or recurrent
  • Disseminated bronchiectasis
  • Isolated obstructive azoospermia
  • ABPA
  • Diffuse panbronchiolitis
  • Sclerosing cholangitis
  • Neonatal hypertrypsinogenemia
  • Rhinosinusitis
  • Heat exhaustion
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20
Q

Minimum criteria for ABPA (6)

A

1) Asthma or CF
2) Worsening lung function without another etiology
3) + skin prick with Aspergillus
4) IgE ≥ 1000
5) Increased Aspergillus species specific IgE and IgG
6) New or recent abnormal CXR or CT findings not improved with abx or physio

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21
Q

Additional criteria for ABPA (4)

A

1) Increased blood eosinophilia ≥ 400 when not on steroids
2) Aspergillus species -specific precipitating antibodies
3) Central bronchiectasis (central varicose)
4) Aspergillus species-specific containing mucous plugs

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22
Q

Characteristics of congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens (CFTR-RD)

A

1) Absence of palpable vas deferens
2) normal or increased FSH
3) Absence of intra-abdominal tract of VD and hypoplasia of seminal vesicles
4) pH <7.2, negative fructose + alpha 1-4 glucosidase
5) no developmental anomaly

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23
Q

How does intestinal current measurement work to assess CFTR function?

A
  • record transepithelial short-circuit current or transepithelial voltage in rectal biopsies as measure of ion transport after stim with chloride secretagogues
  • stimulates potassium channels - increasing driving force for luminal chloride
  • in CF - activation fails to induce apical chloride secretion and results in inverse response
    + response = potassium secretion with no chloride
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24
Q

Assessment of Pancreatic Function

A

Pancreatic fxn should be objective assessed at time of diagnosis
Pts who are PS should be monitored regularly for evidence of progression ot PI

Function can be assessed several ways:

  1. 72h fecal fat collection (+record fat intake)
    - PI defined by fat loss >15% of intake in infants <6 mos; >7% of intake in older infants
  2. serum trypsinogen
    - at birth serum levels usually elevated, then decline to low-undetectable leves in PI pts by age 5-7
    - PS pts show fluctuating levels w/I and above N range at all ages
    - in pts who are PS at diagnosis and progress to PI, there’s a delayed decline in serum trypsinogen
  3. fecal elastase -low in pts with PI
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25
Q

Pulmonary complications of IBD

A
Bronchiectasis (most common)
Tracheal stenosis
Ileobronchial colobronchial fistula
COP (Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia)
granulomatous and necrobiotic nodules
ILD
Pulmonary Vasculitis
Drug induced disease (Sulfasalazine and Mesalamine can cause HP)
Opportunistic infection
Malignancy
Pulmonary thromboembolism
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26
Q

Major criteria for HP (6)

A

Need 4

  1. Symptoms compatible with HP
  2. Evidence of exposure to antigen
  3. Radiographic characteristics consistent with HP
  4. BAL fluid lymphocytosis (CD8 > CD4)
  5. Lung biopsy demonstrates histology consistent with HP
  6. Positive natural challenge that produces symptoms and objective abnormalities after reexposure to the offending antigen
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27
Q

Pathology findings in sub-acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

The classic triad of

  1. Interstitial lymphocytic-histiocytic cell infiltrate.
  2. Bronchiolitis obliterans.
  3. Scattered poorly formed non-necrotizing granulomas
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28
Q

Pathology findings in chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A
  1. Giant cells, granulomas, or Schaumann bodies
  2. Interstitial pneumonia (UIP)–like Pattern.
  3. A nonspecific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)–like pattern or a bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia like disease can also be seen in chronic HP
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29
Q

Pathology findings in acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A
  1. Interstitial mononuclear cell infiltrate.

2. Granulomas and macrophages with foamy cytoplasm have also been reported.

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30
Q

Causes of central bronchiectasis

A
  • ABPA
  • Congenital tracheobronchomegaly
  • CF
  • Williams Campbell syndrome
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31
Q

Causes of upper lobe predominant bronchiectasis

A
  • CF
  • TB (NTM can be middle too)
  • ABPA (mid and upper)
  • Chronic HP (mid, upper)
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32
Q

Causes of lower lobe predominant bronchiectasis

A

Most common location

  • post infectious
  • aspiration
  • immunodeficiency
  • PCD
  • with BO post transplant
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33
Q

Pathology lesions characteristic of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia

A

Excessive proliferation of granulation tissue -> consists of loose collagen-embedded fibroblasts and myofibroblasts involving alveolar ducts + alveoli +/- bronchiolar intraluminal polyps

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34
Q

Treatment of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia

A

Steroids (IV or PO)

Macrolides

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35
Q

BAL findings in:

1) Sarcoidosis
2) LCH
3) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
4) Pulmonary hemorrhage
5) Aspiration

A

1) Lymphocytosis (increased CD4:CD8 ratio)
2) no eosinophils, stain S-100, CD1a, langerin
3) Acute = neutrophilia, >48hrs = lymphocytosis, increased CD8
4) Gross blood, increasing with each sample
5) Lipid laden macrophages

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36
Q

2 pathology features of desquamative interstitial pneumonitis

A

Foamy alveolar macrophages

Type 2 alveolar cell hyperplasia

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37
Q

Components of the Starling equation

A

Qf = Kf[(Pc − Pis) − σ(πpl − πis)]

where Qf = net flow of fluid
Kf = capillary filtration coefficient; this describes the permeability characteristics of the membrane to fluids and the surface area of the alveolar-capillary barrier
Pc = capillary hydrostatic pressure
Pis = hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid
σ = reflection coefficient; this describes the ability of the membrane to prevent extravasation of solute particles such as plasma proteins
πpl = colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure of the plasma
πis = colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid
Note that the surface area of the alveolar-capillary barrier is included in the Kf.

The Starling equation is very useful in understanding the potential causes of pulmonary edema, even though only the plasma colloid osmotic pressure (πpl) can be measured clinically.

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38
Q

Five PARDS diagnostic criteria.

A
  1. Exclude patients with perinatal lung disease
  2. Within 7 days of known clinical insult
  3. Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload
  4. Chest imaging findings of new infiltrate(s) consistent with acute pulmonary parenchymal disease
  5. Oxygenation
    CPAP ≥ 5, P/F ≤ 300, SpO2/FiO2 ≤ 264
    Mild = 4 ≤ OI ≤8
    Moderate = 8 ≤ OI ≤ 16
    Severe = OI ≥ 16
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39
Q

Pathophysiology of ARDS

A

Consequence of inflammatory process at alveolar-capillary interface
Increased alveolar capillary permeability à flooding of alveoli with protein rich fluid, leading to:
- Impaired gas exchange
- Impaired surfactant function

40
Q

Kf in the Starling equation

A

filtration constant = measure of membrane permeability to water

41
Q

σ in the Starling equation

A

reflection coefficient; this describes the ability of the membrane to prevent extravasation of solute particles such as plasma proteins

42
Q

4 stages of ARDS

A
  1. Triggered by direct or indirect injury
  2. Acute exudative phase with pulmonary edema, cytokine release, activated neutrophils
  3. Fibroproliferative phase (may lead to fibrosing alveolitis)
  4. Recovery Stage
43
Q

3 functional lung units in ARDS

A

1) fully aerated, normal “baby lung”
2) Poorly aerated (recruitable)
3) Non-aerated (collapsed, atelectatic)

44
Q

Most common cause of ARDS

A

Direct (pulmonary) causes

45
Q

Mechanism of injury for direct (pulmonary) causes of ARDS

A

Characterized by a primary injury to the alveolar epithelium

Results in intra-alveolar edema, reduced lung compliance, with preservation of chest wall compliance

46
Q

Common causes for direct (pulmonary) ARDS

A
Pneumonia (viral, bacterial) 
Aspiration pneumonia 
Bronchiolitis
Near drowning
Lung contusion 
Toxic inhalation
47
Q

Common causes for indirect (extra-pulmonary) ARDS

A

Sepsis
Nonthoracic trauma
Transfusion of blood products
Pancreatitis

48
Q

Pathology of direct (pulmonary) causes of ARDS

A

Predominantly consolidation

Differences in mechanism of injury and pathology may explain why pulmonary causes tend to have more refractory hypoxemia, with resistance to recruitment maneuvers and prone posturing, but respond better to surfactant

49
Q

Mechanism of injury for indirect (extra-pulmonary) causes of ARDS

A

Primary insult is systemic, with the major injury occurring to the capillary endothelium
Results in interstitial edema, with greater reduction of compliance in the chest wall
Responds better to recruitment

50
Q

Pathology of indirect (extra-pulmonary) causes of ARDS

A

Predominantly atelectasis

51
Q

Characteristics of Pulmonary Capillaritis

A

Also referred to as alveolar capillaritis, is characterized by neutrophilic infiltration of the alveolar septa (lung interstitium) -> necrosis of these structures, loss of capillary structural integrity and spilling of RBCs into the alveolar space and interstitium

52
Q

Causes of Pulmonary Capillaritis

A
The systemic vasculitides
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM, Goodpasture’s) disease
Rheumatic diseases
Certain drugs
Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis,
Idiopathic pulmonary capillaritis

Idiopathic pulmonary capillaritis, also known as pauci-immune pulmonary capillaritis, is characterized by the histopathologic findings of pulmonary capillaritis, but without clinical or serologic evidence of an associated systemic illness

53
Q

Characteristics of Isolated Pulmonary Capillaritis

A

Present with signs and symptoms of alveolar hemorrhage without renal or other systemic manifestation
Diffuse alveolar opacities on imaging
Low hemoglobin
Hemosiderin-laden macrophages on BAL
Normal kidney function
Associated with lower hemoglobin and higher ESR (compared to IPH)
Usually positive ANCA - if not, need biopsy

54
Q

Characteristics of Pulmonary veno-occlusiove disease and pulmonary capillary hemangiomatosis (PVOD/PCH)

A

Subtype of group 1 (PAH)
PVOD may represent a common aberrant response to an inciting event of endothelial injury that leads to widespread fibrosis of pulmonary venules

Many patients with PVOD additionally have findings of capillary congestion and lymphadenopathy, but with a normal-sized left atrium and normal-sized major pulmonary veins

The presence of venous congestion and lymphadenopathy with a normal-sized left atrium and normal-sized major pulmonary veins are features that may help distinguish PH due to PVOD from other causes of post-capillary PH, namely that due to left-sided heart disease

These features are likely due to chronic pulmonary capillary hypertension, transudation of fluid into the interstitium, and enlargement of pulmonary lymphatic channels.

55
Q

Biopsy findings of PVOD/PCH

A

PVOD is a fibroproliferative disease primarily affecting the small pulmonary veins with relative sparing of the larger veins.

The pathologic hallmark of PVOD is extensive and diffuse occlusion of the pulmonary veins due to smooth muscle hypertrophy and collagen matrix deposition (ie, fibrous tissue).

56
Q

Characteristic triad of IPH

A
  1. Iron deficiency Anemia
  2. Hemoptysis
  3. Diffuse infiltrates on imaging
57
Q

List 3 features of the primary complex in TB. Where does this occur in the lungs?

A
The triad of:
1) primary focus
2) local tuberculous lymphangitis (basically inflammation of surrounding lymphatic channels)
3) enlarged regional lymph nodes 
=  the primary complex.

Ghon focus = happens when cellular infiltrates continue to the site of infection, the center for the granuloma because caseous (or necrotizing) and you can see a fibrocalcific residua on imaging

Ghon complex = Ghon focus + calcified granulomatous focus in a draining lymph node

58
Q

Child with CT finding of cavitating nodules diffusely. List four non-infectious etiologies

A

Inflammatory, such as granulomatous with polyangitis, rheumatoid arthritis, sarcoid
Fat emboli
Malignancy, such as squamous cell carincoma
Langerhans cell histiocytosis

59
Q

Differential for cavitary lung lesions

A

CAVITY is the acronym to remember
C = cancer, such as squamous cell carcinoma
A = autoimmune, such as GPA, rheumatoid arthritis (rheumatoid nodules)
V = vascular, such as septic pulmonary emboli or
I = infection, such as bacterial or fungal, such as pulmonary abscess, pulmonary TB, NTAM, aspergillus
T = trauma, such as pneumatoceles

60
Q

Characteristics of Intralobar Pulmonary Sequestration

A
  • Shares visceral pleura
  • More common with infections
  • Doesn’t usually have associated anomalies
  • Blood supply = Aorta, Venous usually to left atrium but can also be to right side

usu posterior basal LLL. More than 50% diagnosed as adult - often asymptomatic.
- Usually drain into pulmonary system (=shunt)

61
Q

Characteristics of Extralobar Pulmonary Sequestration

A
  • Own visceral pleura
  • Usually detected incidentally on imaging
  • More common to have associated anomalies
  • Blood supply = Aberrant vessel from Aorta, Venous drainage to right atrium

usu beneath LLL, 15% abdominal. More often detected in neonates - assoc abn
- Usu. drain into azygous

62
Q

Hydatid lung disease. What are 5 features on CT.

A
Location: periphery, centre or hilum Pulmonary cyst
Regular shaped cyst
Thin walled cyst, 
Water lily sign
Meniscus, crescent sign
Bronchial displacement
Pericentric emphysema
Air fluid level
63
Q

List four non-infectious pulmonary complications of AIDS

A
Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis
Pulmonary tumours
Bronchiolitis obliterans
Bronchiectasis
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
Airway hyperreactivity/asthma
Aspiration pneumonitis
Pulmonary HTN (limited data in children)
Upper airway disease 

Respiratory disease is the most common complication occurring in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected children.
Acute disease = most likely to be infectious

64
Q

Alternatives to Septra

A

Pentamidine
Dapsone
Atovoquone

65
Q

Stages of lung development

A

“Every Pulmonologist Can See Alveoli”

1) Embryonic 4-7 wks
2) Pseudoglandular 5-17 wks
3) Canalicular 16-26 wks
4) Saccular 24 wks- term
5) Alveolarization 36 wks to 21 years

66
Q

Structural events that happen during the Embryonic stage of lung development (3-7 weeks)

A

Lung buds; trachea, main stem, lobar, and segmental bronchi; trachea and esophagus separate

67
Q

Structural events that happen during the Pseudoglandular stage of lung development (6–17weeks)

A

Subsegmental bronchi, terminal bronchioles, and acinar tubules; mucous glands, cartilage, and smooth muscle

68
Q

Structural events that happen during the Cannalicular stage of lung development (16–26 weeks)

A

Respiratory bronchioles, acinus formation and vascularization; type I and II AEC differentiation

69
Q

Structural events that happen during the Saccular stage of lung development (26-36 weeks)

A

Dilation and subdivision of alveolar saccules, increase of gas-exchange surface area, and surfactant synthesis

70
Q

Structural events that happen during the Alveolar stage of lung development (36 weeks on)

A

Further growth and alveolarization of lung; increase of gas-exchange area and maturation of alveolar capillary network; increased surfactant synthesis

71
Q

Causes of pleural fluid eosinophilia

A
Drugs
Idiopathic
Infection (bacteria, fungi, mycobacteria, parasites, virus)
Inflammation (acute/chronic eosinophilic pneumonia, Churg-strauss, Rheumatoid effusion)
Malignancy (lymphoma)
PE
Toxicity
Trauma
72
Q

Characteristics in Lymphoid Interstitial Pneumonia (LIP)

in AIDS

A

Diffuse infiltration of lymphocytes and scattered nodules of mononuclear cells
Unclear etiology → ?lymphoproliferaton with response to the HIV alone or co-infection with another virus
EBV = common co-infection

Insidious course and slowly progressive
Median age = 2.5-3yrs

Dx = lung biopsy
Tx = non-specific → bronchodilators, oxygen, steroids
Some may progress to lymphoproliferative disease with polyclonal, polymorphic B-cell content with extranodal systemic and prominent pulmonary involvement or to malignant lymphoma

73
Q

What is the interaction concern with some of the CFTR modulators?

A

Ivacaftor is metabolized by cytochrome CYP3A. (don’t use a strong inducer with Ivacaftor. If it’s a strong inhibitor, you can still use the drug, but you need to do a dose adjustment).

strong cyp3a inducers = Rifampin, Rifabutin, Phenytoin Phenobarb, herbal supplements (St Johns wort) is not recommended for use with Ivacaftor.

strong cyp3a inhibitors -azoles,erythro clarithro telithromycin- needs dose adjustment
seville orange, grapefruit-to avoid

caution when co administering other cyp3a substrates -tacrolimus, cyclosporine ,digoxin

74
Q

Diurnal Variation

A

Highest PEF - Lowest PEF/Mean of both

> 13 = significant, take the highest of 3 values for each PEF
PEF lowest in the early morning and highest in the afternoon

75
Q

Nitric oxide in pulmonary hypertension - mechanism of action?

A

Inhaled nitric oxide selectively dilates pulmonary vasculature in ventilated areas of the lung.

Mechanism of action:
NO activates soluble guanylyl cyclase (sGC) to produce cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) leading to decrease vascular smooth muscle tone (ie, vasodilation)

Additional effects of NO include suppression of both smooth muscle proliferation and platelet aggregation

76
Q

MoA phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (eg. Sildenafil): Prevent degradation of cyclic GMP → potentiates the effect of NO activity by inhibiting PDE 5

77
Q

MoA Endothelin Receptor Anatagonists

A

Endothelin Receptor Antagonists (eg. Bosentan-dual receptor): Block ET receptors (found in smooth muscle and endothelial cells) thus promoting vasodilation and prevents proliferation

78
Q

MoA Prostacyclin Analogs

A

Prostacyclin Analogs/receptor agonists (eg. Epoprostenol, Iloprost, Trepostinil): Acts as a pulmonary vasodilator, inhibits vascular smooth muscle proliferation, inhibits platelet aggregation, improves endothelial dysfunction and can also act as a possible cardiac inotrope

79
Q

3 criteria in the cath lab for pulmonary HTN diagnosis

A

Mean Pulmonary arterial pressure at rest ≥ 20 mmHg
Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (<15mmHg)
Elevated Pulmonary Vascular Resistance > 3 woods units x m2

80
Q

Stain for TB (acid fast bacilli)

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

81
Q

Stain for hemosiderin laden macrophages

A

Prussian blue

82
Q

Stain for NEHI

A

Bombesin staining

83
Q

Stain for surfactant

A

Periodic Acid Shiff stain

84
Q

IGRA or TST - better sensitivity?

A

TST

85
Q

IGRA of TST - better specificity?

A

IGRA

86
Q

Flow loop characteristics for Spirometry

A

Rapid increase
Sharp peak
Linear curve
Inspiratory loop

87
Q

FRC (gas dilution)

A

Cinitial x Vsystem = Cfinal (Vsystem + FRC)

88
Q

MoA for Azithromycin for decreasing bacterial virulence

A

1) Inhibits pseudomonas growth, protein synthesis and biofilm formation
2) Decreased bacterial virulence factors for P
3) Most benefit in those + with P

89
Q

Key points ALPINE trial for Pseudomonas eradication in CF

A

“Aztreonam Lysine for Pseudomonas Infection Eradication”: 28 days of AZLI treatment in pediatric patients 3 months to b18 years of age is both effective and well tolerated in the treatment of early Pa pulmonary infection associated with CF

Results from ALPINE, ELITE, and EPIC support a short treatment course (28 days) as effective for initial eradication of Pa for most CF patients.

90
Q

Key points re: ELITE trial for Pseudomonas eradication in CF

A

28 days of inhaled tobramycin was as beneficial as 56 days in treating first of early pseudomonas

91
Q

Key points re: EPIC trial for Pseudomonas eradication in CF

A

EPIC: Inhaled tobramycin 300mg BID for 28 days and oral ciprofloxacin 14 days –>addition of cirpo didn’t make a difference to rate of eradication

92
Q

Lung malformations in Pseudoglandular phase

A

Tracheomalacia and bronchomalacia
Intralobar bronchopulmonary sequestration
CPAM
Acinar aplasia or dysplasia
ACD-MPV
Congenital pulmonary lymphangiectasia, and other pulmonary vascular malformations
Hypoplasia with CDH

93
Q

Lung malformations in Canalicular phase

A

Congenital alveolar dysplasia
Alveolar capillary dysplasia
Pulmonary hypoplasia

94
Q

Lung malformations in Canalicular phase

A

Congenital alveolar dysplasia
Alveolar capillary dysplasia
Pulmonary hypoplasia

95
Q

Clinical definition PBB

A
  • Chronic wet cough >4 weeks
    – Absence of symptoms or signs (i.e. specific cough pointers) of other causes of wet or productive cough
    – Resolution of cough within 2 weeks of an appropriate oral antibiotic (usually amoxicillin-clavulanate)

In a minority of children 4 weeks of antibiotics are required

96
Q

RSV prophylaxis

A

1) Children with hemodynamically significant CHD or CLD (defined as a need for oxygen at 36 weeks’ GA) who require ongoing diuretics, bronchodilators, steroids or supplemental oxygen, should receive palivizumab if they are <12 months of age at the start of RSV season.
2) In preterm infants without CLD born before 30 + 0 weeks’ GA who are <6 months of age at the start of RSV season, it is reasonable (but not essential) to offer palivizumab.
3) Infants in remote communities who would require air transportation for hospitalization born before 36 + 0 weeks’ GA and <6 months of age at the start of RSV season should be offered palivizumab.