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DCFD > Probation 121.13 > Flashcards

Probation 121.13 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. ______ is an oderless, tasteless, colorless gas produced from incomplete combustion?
A

CO

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2
Q
  1. Where do most CO Poisonings occur?
A

Fire Grounds

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3
Q
  1. Once carbon monoxide binds to the hemoglobin molecule, it can no longer do what?
A

Bind Oxygen

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4
Q
  1. What are the general indicators of carbon monoxide exposure?
A
  • Victems rescued from or whom had prolonged exposure to smoke
  • Victems exposed to other forms of incomplete combustion
  • Exposure/overexposure to comerical paint remover (Methylene Chloride)
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5
Q
  1. Whom should you contact if you need assistance in managing specific overdoses?
A

Poision Control (H11)

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6
Q
  1. Cyanide is a cellular toxin - it halts respiration at the ______.
A

Cellular level

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7
Q
  1. What are some early signs and symptoms of cyanide exposure?
A

Anxiety, vertigo, weakness, headache, tachpnea, nausea, dyspnea, vomiting, tachycardia.

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8
Q
  1. If you have a patient that has been bitten/stung by an insect, reptile, or animal that has caused injury to your patient should you bring it to the hospital with you?
A

Do not bring live animals to the hospital.

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9
Q
  1. if an anaphylactic reaction occurs as a result of a bite or sting you should?
A

Refer to the anaphylactic protocal - Epi

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10
Q
  1. With an OB patient that is in labor, with delivery of a newborn being imminent, what is the most important decision to make with this patient?
A

To attempt delivery or transport the patient.

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11
Q
  1. What is the first step in the birthing process once the head presents itself?
A

Suction the mouth then nose.

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12
Q
  1. Once deleivery is accomplished, clamp the cord at ____ and ____ from the navel and cut between the clamps.
A

6 and 8 Inches

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13
Q
  1. When should you score the APGAR score?
A

At 1 and 5 min.

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14
Q
  1. What is a prolapsed cord?
A

When the cord presents itself before the fetus.

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15
Q
  1. What position should you place the mother in that has a prolapsed cord?
A

Knee - Chest position

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16
Q
  1. In the event that the patient has experienced a miscarriage and if there is any question as to the approximate gestation of the fetus you should?
A

Provide rescuration measures

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17
Q
  1. If there is a question as to twhether the fetus is viable or not you should?
A

Contact Medical Control

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18
Q
  1. When does the protocol Trauma in Pregnancy apply to the pregnant patient?
A

20 weeks or greater in gestation.

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19
Q
  1. According to the protocol Trauma in Pregnancy, what are the 2 instances where you would not resuscitate the patient?
A

Dependent vivdity and rigor mortis

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20
Q
  1. Hperthermic reactions gennerally relate to _____, _____, or in severe cases, _____.
A
  • Heat Cramps
  • Heat exhustion
  • Heat Stroke
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21
Q
  1. What should you do if heat exhaustion or cramps are suspected?
A

Move patient to cool area and take tempature.

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22
Q
  1. If heat stroke is suspected where should you place cold packs on the patient?
A

Groin, axilla (under arm pits,) neck.

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23
Q
  1. What is hypothermia defined as?
A

A core tempature below 95 degrees.

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24
Q
  1. A patient with moderate to severe hypothermia may often present wit hsigns and symptoms of ?
A

Altered mental status,
Decressed HR
Decressed RR
Decressed BP

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25
Q
  1. Patients in cardiac arrest with suspected severe hypothermia shall not be considered dead untill?
A

The recieve rewarming at a medical factility.

26
Q
  1. What protocol applies to patients suffereing from an accidental or intentional submersion in any liquid?
A

Drowning / Near Drowning

27
Q
  1. When transporting a patient that has been restrained you must transport the patient in what position?
A

Supine on a longboard.

28
Q
  1. You should always make sure that the MPD is summoned to all responses involving potentially combative patients?
A

FALSE

29
Q
  1. When you have a violent psychiatric patient 15 years old or less, should they go to Children’s Hospital?
A

No

30
Q
  1. Criteria for determining a patient presumed dead on arrival shall include those that are pulseless and apneic with one or more of the following?
A

Rigior Mortis,
Dependant Lavidity,
Decomposion

31
Q

When you havea PDOA patient whom should you request to investigate the scene and assume responsibilit for the deceased person?

A

MPD

32
Q

Does the Distric of Columbia honor the reciproity DNR Order?

A

Yes

33
Q
  1. What are the following intervention that may be provided to a patient who is wearing a DNR-CCO that is intact and has not been defaced to provide comfort of our alleviate pain?
A

Palitive (comfort) care

34
Q

34, Who can revoke the comfort care order at anytime?

A

The paient or power of attourny

35
Q
  1. When ventilation a child whit hspecial needs if the child’s condition improves there may have been a problem with the ventilator.
A

TRUE

36
Q

36 A child with special healthcare needs will alway present wit hage appropriate mentalities?

A

False

37
Q
  1. What is the most common emergency with central lines in children?
A

Blockage/obstruction, removal, or laceration of the line

38
Q
  1. A good source of gettign a medical history of the child’s condition is to…
A

ask their caretaker

39
Q
  1. If an in-dwelling catheter becomes completely removed you shouldattempt to reinsert the catheter and transport to the nearest hospital?
A

False

40
Q
  1. You should always bring the line with you to the hospital?
A

True

41
Q
  1. Children with gastrostomy tubes will not have complication due to destruction or dislodgement of the tube?
A

False

42
Q
  1. Are FEMS personnel required to report cases of suspected child/elder abuse or neglect to the police agency responsible for the area which the call occurred?
A

Yes

43
Q
  1. Should you confront or become hostile to the parent or caregiver that you think ma be an abuser?
A

No

44
Q
  1. If you suspect that a patient is being neglected should you report the situation?
A

Yes

45
Q
  1. What is the purpose of having Mass Casualty Incident start and jumpstart triage protocol?
A

Provide structure to the triage/treatment of an MCI

46
Q
  1. What is the definition of a multiple or mass casualty incident?
A

A tempory scene that creates a number of PT’s sufficient enough to segnificantly overwhelm available resources.

47
Q
  1. What is considered a Multiple Casuality Incident?
A

Less then 9 PTs

48
Q
  1. How many patients do you have to have to declare a MCI?
A

9 or more

49
Q
  1. What is the deffinition of Triage?
A

The process of sorting and organizing patients based on the severity of their symptoms.

50
Q
  1. Patients will be catergorized into the four following groups; each group has a color designation to assist in the rapid sorting or triaged patients. What are the colors and the title of them?
A

RED- Immediate
YELLOW- Delayed
GREEN- Minor
BLACK- Dieceased

51
Q
  1. During a primary triage, providers should spend no more than _________ with each patient.
A

30 Seconds

52
Q
  1. After the intial evaluation of incident rehab, members will be reassessed after a _________ rest period.
A

20 minuntes

53
Q
  1. Can members return to incident operations if their vital signs return to normal?
A

Yes

54
Q
  1. What is the acronym that can be used for determining symptoms of a nerve agent poisoning?
A

SLUDGEM

55
Q
  1. What are two chemicals most widley used in pesticides today?
A

Organicphosphate

Carbanatt

56
Q
  1. What is the two-part antidote for emergent treatment for a nerve agent exposure?
A

Atropine and 2-PAM Chloride

57
Q
  1. What are the serious forms of human anthrax?
A

Inhalation, cutaneous, intestinal

58
Q
  1. What poisoning symptoms may mimic pneumonia or food poisoning depending on the rate of transmission?
A

Ricin

59
Q
  1. With Acute Radiation Syndrome, can you use available radiation detection equipment ot determine the presence of significant amounts of contamination on an individual?
A

Yes

60
Q
  1. If soapy water is readily available or easy to make, can you use it to decontaminate a victim?
A

The IC shall make the decision

DCFD (8 decks)

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