private_pilot_checkride_20250223173333 Flashcards
1
Q
What is a METAR? What are the types?
Read the current METAR at KLAF
A
A Meteorological Aerodrome Report (METAR) is an hourly surface weather observation at an airport.
Types:
METAR = standard
SPECI = special report given at any time to report rapidly changing weather conditions
Type of report: METAR/SPECI
ICAO station identifier
Date and time of report (ZULU)
Modifier: AUTO
Wind: 5 digit group (6 if wind speed over 99 kts)
Visibility in SM
Runway visual length
Weather conditions
Sky/cloud conditions
Temp/Dew point
Altimeter
Remarks/NOTAMs
KLAF 021654Z 25004KT 9SM OVC008 05/03 A3000 RMK AO2 SLP162 T00500033
2
Q
What is a TAF? What are the forecast indicators?
Read the current TAF at KLAF.
A
A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is an expected weather forecast for a specified time within 5 SM of an airport. It can be issued 4 times a day, every 6 hours covering a period of 24 hours. It’s format is very similar to that of a METAR
Forecast Indicators
-FM = From a specific time frame
-TEMPO = temporary report lasting <1 hour
-PROB## = ##% probability of condition
-BECMG = gradual change during specified time period
3
Q
Define Vg
A
Vg is the best glide rate = 68 knots
It is not indicated on the airspeed indicator
4
Q
Define Vs0 and where it is indicated on the airspeed indicator
A
Vs0 is the stall speed in the full flap (dirty) configuration = 40 KIAS
Vs0 is the lowest point on the white arc
5
Q
Define Vs1 and where it is indicated on the airspeed indicator
A
Vs1 is the stall speed in the flaps up (clean) configuration = 48 KIAS Vs1 is the lowest point on the green arc
6
Q
Define Vr
A
Vr = is the rotate speed = 55 knots
It is not indicated on the airspeed indicator
7
Q
Define Vx
A
Vx is the best angle of climb speed, or most altitude in shortest horizontal distance = 62 knots
It is not indicated on the airspeed indicator
8
Q
Define Vy
A
Vy is the best rate of climb speed, or most altitude in the shortest amount of time = 74 knots
It is not indicated on the airspeed indicator
9
Q
Define Va
A
Va is the maximum maneuvering speed of the aircraft defined in a range = 90 - 105 knots.
The speed depends on the current weight of the aircraft, with lighter weights being closer to 90 and heavier weights being closer to 105 because a higher angle of attack is needed to generate equivalent lift.
10
Q
Define Vfe1
A
Vfe1 is the maximum speed in which you can operate with 10 degrees of flaps lowered = 110 knots.
11
Q
Define Vfe
A
Vfe is the maximum speed in which you can operate with 10 to 30 degrees of flaps lowered = 85 knots.
Vfe (85) is the highest point on the white arc
12
Q
Define Vno and where it is indicated on the airspeed indicator
A
Vno is the maximum normal operating speed = 129 knots.
Vno is highest point of the green arc
Going above Vno is only allowed in smooth air and is indicated by a yellow arc.
13
Q
Define Vne and where it is indicated on the airspeed indicator
A
Vne is the never exceed speed = 163 knots.
Vno is indicated by a red line and is never to be exceeded.
14
Q
Define a runway incursion
A
When an obstacle is incorrectly on a runway at an airport (without clearance).
15
Q
What would you do if you are on the ground at an unfamiliar airport but like to taxi?
A
Ask ATC for a progressive taxi
16
Q
Explain the C172S fuel system (use the POH graphic)
A
- Fuel flows by gravity from the two wing tanks to a three-position fuel selector valve, labeled BOTH, RIGHT and LEFT, and on to the fuel reservoir tank.
- From the fuel reservoir tank, the electrically-driven auxiliary fuel pump drives fuel , through the fuel shutoff valve, the fuel strainer, and to the engine-driven fuel pump.
- From the engine driven fuel pump, fuel is delivered to the fuel/air control unit on the bottom of the engine, which alters the ratio and quantity of the fuel/air mixture.
- After passing through the control unit, metered fuel goes to a fuel distribution valve (flow divider) located on the top of the engine.
- From the fuel distribution valve delivers the fuel/air mixture to the cylinders via individual fuel lines that are routing to injector nozzles on the intake chamber of each cylinder.
17
Q
Explain the C172S electrical system (use the POH graphic)
A
The airplane is equipped with a 28-volt belt-driven (by engine) 60-ampere alternator powers the system. A 24-volt main storage battery stores the electrical energy and sends it to the two electrical buses. The alternator and main battery are controlled through the MASTER switch.
Power is supplied to most electrical circuits through two primary buses (ELECTRICAL BUS 1 and ELECTRICAL BUS 2). They are connected to an avionics bus switch AVIONICS BUS 1&2 respectively.
The system is also equipped with a secondary or standby battery, The STBY BATT switch controls power to or from the standby battery. The standby battery can supply power to the essential bus if both the alternator and main battery power sources fail.
18
Q
Define Class A airspace and its rules
A
Class A (alpha) airspace extends from FL180 (18,000 feet) MSL up to FL600 (60,000 feet).
All operations must be conducted under instrument flight rules (IFR).
Requirements:
- IFR rated and flight plan
- Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out
- ATC clearance
- Maintain two way radio communication
- Altimeter set to 29.92
- Maintain an airspeed <Mach 1
19
Q
Define Class B airspace and its rules
A
Class B (bravo) airspace surrounds the busiest airports in the nation and is depicted on sectional charts with a solid blue line. The shape resembles a layered upside down wedding cake with the airspace extending from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL and 30 NM in diameter.
Requirements:
- ATC clearance before entering
- Mode C transponder and ADS-B out
- Maintain two way radio communication
- Maintain an airspeed below 250 knots in the airspace and 200 knots below the shelves.
- Private pilot certificate (unless special endorsement)
Weather minimums:
- 3 SM visibility
- Remain clear of clouds
20
Q
Define Class C airspace and its rules
A
Class C (charlie) airspace surrounds crowded airports and is depicted on sectional charts with a solid magenta line. The shape resembles a layered upside down wedding cake with the airspace extending from the surface to 4,000 feet MSL and 10 NM in radius.
Requirements:
- Establish two way radio communication with ATC prior to entry
- Mode C transponder and ADS-B out
- Maintain an airspeed below 200 knots within 4 miles and at or below 2,500 feet. Otherwise, 250 knots is the airspeed limit
Weather minimums:
- 3 SM visibility
- Remain 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal of clouds
21
Q
Define Class D and its rules
A
Class D (delta) surrounds tower controlled airports that are not large enough to be considered C or B and is depicted on sectional charts with a dashed blue line. The shape resembles a cylinder extending from the surface to 2,500 feet and 5 NM in diameter.
Requirements:
- Two way radio communication with ATC
- Maintain an airspeed below 200 knots within 4 miles and at or below 2,500 feet.
Weather Minimums:
- 3 SM visibility
- Remain 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal of clouds
22
Q
Define Class E and its rule
A
Class E (echo) is any controlled airspace that is not designated as A, B, C, or D. The floor depends on the underlying airspace but will always extend to 17,999 feet MSL.
On a sectional chart:
- Dashed magenta: surface to 17,999 feet MSL
- Gradient magenta: 700 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
- Outside of magenta: 1200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
- Above FL600
Requirements:
- Above 10,000 feet MSL: Mode C transponder and ADS-B out
- Maintain an airspeed <250 knots below 10,000 feet MSL
- Establish two way radio communication at an airport with a control tower in class E
Weather Minimums:
Above 10,000 feet MSL:
- 5 SM visibility
- 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 miles horizontal of clouds
Below 10,000 feet MSL:
- 3 SM visibility
- 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal
23
Q
Define Class G and its rules
A
Class G (golf) is the uncontrolled airspace outside of A, B, C, D, and E. Starts at surface and can extend up to 700, 1200, 10,000 or 14,500 feet
There are no requirements
Weather minimums:
Below 1,200 feet AGL:
Day:
- 1 SM visibility
- Remain clear of clouds
Night:
- 3 SM visibility
- 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal
Above 1,200 feet AGL up to 10,000 feet MSL:
Day:
- 1 SM visibility
- 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal
Night:
- 3 SM visibility
- 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal
Above 10,000 feet MSL:
- 5 SM visibility
- 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 1 SM horizontal
24
Q
What are the special use airspaces?
A
Military Operation Area (MOA): areas of high military activity
- VFR can enter without permission
Controlled Firing Area (CFA): areas with hazardous activities to nonparticipating aircrafts that should be ceased when an aircraft is spotted
- VFR can enter without permission
Warning Area: Areas with hazardous activity to aircrafts
- VFR can enter without permission
Restricted Area: Hazardous activity to aircrafts
- VFR can NOT enter without clearance
Alert Area: Areas with high volume of pilot training or similar activity
- VFR may enter without permission
Prohibited Areas: Areas designated to protect national security and welfare
- VFR may NOT enter
National Security: Areas designated to protect sensitive ground facilities
-VFR flight is discouraged but not prohibited
25
Max ramp weight?
2558 pounds
26
Max takeoff and landing weight?
2550 pounds
27
Maximum cargo weight and distribution?
Combined total: 120 pounds
Compartment A: up to 120 pounds or a maximum of 70 pounds if using B
Compartment B: maximum of 50 pounds
28
What kind of engine does the C172S have? How many cylinders does it have?
Lycoming IO-360-L2A
Lycoming = brand
I = fuel injected
O = opposing cylinders
360 = 360 in^3 surface area
L2A = accessory case
4 Cylinders
29
What is the maximum horsepower? What RPMs is it achieved at?
180 BHP @ 2700 RPM
30
What kind of propeller do the C172S have?
McCauley fixed pitch 2 blade propeller with a 76 inch diameter
31
How much fuel can the C172S hold? How much of it is usable? Where is it located? What kind of fuel can it use?
Max fuel capacity = 56 gallons
Max usable fuel = 53 gallons
Fuel is stored in both wings so divide those numbers by 2 for even distribution
Max fuel capacity per wing = 28 gallons
Max usable fuel per wing = 26.5 gallons
We primarily use 100LL (blue) but can use the next highest octane 100 (green)
32
What is the maximum oil capacity for the C172S?
Max oil capacity = 8 quarts
33
What kind of lighting is used for taxiways and runways?
Taxiways have green lighting in the center and blue lighting on the edges.
Runways have white lighting in the center and edges which will gradually change to yellow and then red as the available runway runs out.
34
What lights are necessary for night flight? Where are they located? What color are they?
- Nav (position) lights: red on left green on right
- anti collision (strobe) lights: white on wings and red on top of vertical stabilizer
- landing lights (white head lights) when operating for hire
35
When is the beacon light necessary? Where is it located? What color is it?
The beacon light is always needed when the engine is running. It is located on top of the vertical stabilizer and is a red strobe
36
What are the regulations to remain current as a private pilot?
- Satisfactorily completed a flight review in the preceding 24 calendar months
To carry passengers:
*Day:*
- 3 takeoffs and landing in the preceding 90 days
*Night (1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise) & Tailwheel:*
- 3 takeoffs and landing to a FULL STOP in the preceding 90 days
An approved flight simulator can be used for the takeoffs and landings.
37
What kind of inspections and maintenance are required per regulation? Do you check it for every plane you fly?
AAV1ATE
A - Annual inspection (every 12 calendar months)
A - Airworthiness directives
V - VOR inspection (every 30 days, only necessary for IFR)
1 - 100 hour inspection (annual can replace this but this cannot replace annual) when used for hire or flight instruction
A - Altimeter and pitot static inspection (every 24 calendar months)
T - Transponder inspection (every 24 calendar months)
E - ELT (emergency location transmitter) (Inspection of ELT every 12 calendar months, Battery replacement after 1 hour of continuous use, or 50% of useful battery lifetime) Can be tested in the first 5 minutes of every hour
Yes, checking the AV1ATE list for every plane you fly is essential
38
What is the required VFR day aircraft equipment? (91.205)
ATOMATOFLAMES F
A - Anti collision lights (strobes)
T - Tachometer
O - Oil pressure gauge
M - Manifold pressure gauge
A - Altimeter
T - Temperature gauge for engine
O - Oil temperature gauge
F - Fuel gauge
L - Landing gear position indicator
A - Airspeed indicator
M - Magnetic compass
E - ELT
S - Safety belts
F - floatation device outside of gliding distance to land
Then check the kinds of operating equipment list in POH, ADs, then type certificate data sheets
39
What is the required VFR night aircraft equipment? What is the acronym? (91.205)
FLAPS
F - Fuses (spare set)
L - Landing lights (when flying for hire)
A - Anti collision strobes
P - Position lights (nav)
S - Source of electricity
40
On run up, you notice a piece of equipment is inoperative, what do you do?
Taxi back and determine is equipment is necessary for flight with ATOMATOFLAMES & FLAPS. Then request maintenance for a fix or INOP placard
41
What aircraft documents are required on board for flight?
AR(R)OW
A - Airworthiness certificate (never expires), must be displayed and visible to passengers and crew
R - Registration certificate for aircraft (federal expires every 7 calendar years, state can vary but for Indiana it's 1 year)
R - Radio station license (international use)
O - Operating limits (airplane flight manual, POH)
W - Weight and balance data
42
What does a displaced threshold look like? What does it indicate?
White center line arrows point to a solid white bar prior to a runway. It indicates that an aircraft can taxi and takeoff in this area, but not land.
43
What does a blast pad / EMAS (engineered materials arresting system) look like? What does it indicate?
Yellow chevrons prior to a runway. It indicates a section of pavement at an airport that absorbs the force of jet blast from airplanes taking off and landing and a safety system at the end of a runway that helps stop an aircraft that has overrun the runway.
44
What is spatial disorientation? When does it most often occur? How do you avoid it?
Spatial disorientation is when a pilot loses their sense of orientation and position relative to the ground. It most often occurs when visual references are limited or absent. To avoid it, avoid IFR conditions.
45
What is the induction system? What are its components?
The induction system brings in air and mixes it with fuel to deliver it to a combustion chamber. Air comes through the front intake and is then passed through a filter before entering the fuel / air control unit.
46
What are the regulations regarding alcohol?
No person may act as a necessary crewmember within 8 hours of consumption of alcohol (12 for Purdue students), while have a BAC of 0.04, or under the influence of alcohol (includes hangover)
47
What is a spin? What is the procedure to recover? Acronym?
A spin is the result of stalling while uncoordinated
PARE
P - power idle
A - ailerons neutral
R - rudder opposite of turn
E - forward to break stall
48
What are stalls? How do you recover from one?
A stall is a rapid loss of lift after the critical angle of attack is exceeded. Key signs of an impending stall are decreased control effectiveness, stall horn, airframe buffeting, and nose up right before full stall.
Recovery:
- Maintain coordination
- nose down
- full power
49
What is the preflight risk management acronym?
IMSAFE
I - Illness
M - Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol
F - Fatigue
E - Eating
50
What are the primary flight surfaces on the C172S? How are they controlled?
Ailerons - controlled via turning the yoke which deflects ailerons upward/downward, altering the wing's camber
Elevator - controlled via pushing/pulling the yoke which deflects the elevator upward/downward, altering the tail wing's camber
Rudder - controlled via stepping the on pedals which moves the rudder right/left, altering how the air flows around the vertical stabilizer
51
What are the secondary flight surfaces on the C172S? How are they controlled?
Flaps - controlled via electrical switch which raises or lowers the flaps, altering the wing's camber (C172S has slotted flaps)
Trim - controlled via wheel which deflects the trim tab of the elevator, alleviating pressure on the yoke
52
What is the purpose of the pitot-static system? What is it made up of?
The pitot-static system provides RAM air and outside pressure data for Air Data Computer which then calculates and shows important flight data like airspeed, altitude, and rate of altitude change.
Components:
Pitot tube
Static port
Alternate static air port
53
What documents does a person need to act as a pilot crewmember?
Pilot certificate
Photo ID
Medical certificate
54
What are the private pilot certificate requirements?
- At least 17 years of age
- Read, speak, and write in English
- At least a 3rd class medical certificate
- 40 total hours of logged flight time, 20 of which with an instructor, 10 hours solo, 3 hours at night, 3 hours cross country, and 3 hours BAI
- Received necessary ground and flight training endorsements
- Pass a written and practical test
55
What is ground effect? When is it most pronounced?
Ground effect is a condition of improved aircraft performance (increased lift and reduced drag) when it is operating within a wingspan of the ground due to limited vortex rotation because of the ground.
During landing this can lead to excessing floatation (and ballooning) above the surface caused by excessive speed on final
During takeoff this can lead to liftoff before recommended rotation speed leading to insufficient climb performance once out of ground effect
56
What is a magneto? What is its purpose? How many does the C172S have?
A magneto is a magnet rotating inside of coil that produce a magnetic field, driven by the engine after startup thus operating independently of the electrical system. It's purpose in our engine is to provide electrical energy to the spark plugs (8 total, 2 per cylinder) in our engine. We have 2 magnetos for redundancy purposes in the C172S.
57
What are the ACS for private pilot traffic pattern?
1000 feet AGL
90 knots
Altitude: +/- 100 feet
Airspeed: +/- 10 knots
58
What are the ACS for private pilot normal takeoff and climb?
Rotate at 55 knots, climb out at 74 knots
Make departure turn 300 feet below pattern altitude
Airspeed: +10/-5 knots
59
What are the ACS for private pilot normal approach and landing?
Final approach speed = 61 knots + gust factor (Gust winds - current winds / 2)
Airspeed: +10/-5 knots
Runway distance: +400/-0
60
What are the ACS for private pilot soft field takeoff and climb?
Taxi with yoke fully aft and minimal braking
10 degrees of flaps
Lift off at lowest possible airspeed and ride ground effect until 62 knots
Climb out at Vx until 200 feet above field elevation, then raise flaps and pitch for 74
Make departure turn 300 feet below pattern altitude
Airspeed: +10/-5 knots
61
What are the ACS for private pilot soft field approach and landing?
Final approach speed = 61 knots + gust factor (Gust winds - current winds / 2)
Keep nose wheel off runway with aft yoke until it naturally settles
Airspeed: +10/-5 knots
62
What are the ACS for private pilot short field takeoff and climb?
Request short delay and full length of runway use
10 degrees of flaps
Apply brakes and smoothly add full power
Release brakes and accelerate to 51 knots then rotate
Climb out at 56 knots until 50 foot obstacle clear then pitch for Vx (62 knots)
200 feet above field elevation retract flaps and accelerate to Vy (74 knots) and continue normal climb out and departure turn
Airspeed: +10/-5
63
What are the ACS for private pilot short field approach and landing?
Final approach speed = 61 knots + gust factor (Gust winds - current winds / 2)
Land at your predetermined touchdown point
Airspeed: +10/-5 knots
Touchdown point distance: +200/-0 feet
64
What are the ACS for private pilot go around?
Power up
Pitch up
Clean up
Speak up
Apply full power and stop the descent
Accelerate to 74 then climb out and retract flaps in increments
Inform ATC of go around
Airspeed: +10/-5
65
What are the ACS for private pilot steep turns?
Perform clearing turns
Establish heading and altitude
Va range 90-105 knots (95 knots = ~2350 RPM)
Bank into 45 degree roll
Use aft yoke pressure to maintain altitude and power to maintain airspeed
Roll out of bank 20 degree prior
Repeat for opposite 45 degree bank
Altitude: +/- 100 feet
Airspeed: +/- 10 knots
Heading +/- 10 degrees
Bank +/- 5 degrees
66
What are the ACS for private pilot ground reference maneuvers?
Enter maneuvers downwind / 45 degree to downwind leg at 1000 feet AGL and Va range of 90-105 knots
Altitude: +/- 100 feet
Airspeed +/- 10 knots
67
What are the ACS for private pilot pilotage and dead reckoning?
Pilotage is a navigation method that relies on visually identifying landmarks and comparing them to a map to determine your position
Dead reckoning is a method of estimating your position by calculating distance and direction traveled from a known starting point using factors like time, airspeed, and heading
Altitude: +/- 200 feet
Heading +/- 15 degrees
Arrive at checkpoint within 5 minutes of planned ETA
68
What are the ACS for private pilot Nav systems and radar services?
Altitude +/- 200 feet
Heading +/- 15 degrees
69
What are the ACS for private pilot diversion?
Altitude: +/- 200 feet
Heading: +/- 15 degrees
70
What are the ACS for private pilot slow flight?
Perform clearing turns
Establish altitude (no lower than 1500 AGL) and heading
Pull power to 1500 RPM
Add flaps in increments while maintaining altitude and bleeding off airspeed
Call out airspeed after first indication of impending stall (stall horn)
Apply power necessary to maintain altitude and airspeed
Altitude: +/- 100 feet
Airspeed: +10/-0 knots of called out stall horn speed
Heading: +/- 10 degrees
Bank: +/- 10 degrees (if asked to maneuver)
71
What are the ACS for private pilot power off stall?
Perform clearing turns
Establish altitude (no lower than 1500 AGL) and heading
Pull power to 1500 RPM
Add flaps in increments while maintaining altitude and bleeding off airspeed
Level off and accelerate to 60 knots
Power to idle and apply aft yoke pressure to maintain altitude until stall
Maintain coordination
*Recover:*
Nose down
Full power
Retract flaps in increments
Heading: +/- 10 degrees
Bank: Max 20 +/-10 degrees
72
What are the ACS for private pilot power on (takeoff) stall?
Perform clearing turns
Establish altitude (no lower than 1500 AGL) and heading
Pull power to 1500 RPM
Add flaps to 10 degrees while maintaining altitude and bleeding off airspeed with aft yoke pressure
Once 55 knots is achieved, apply full power and full aft yoke pressure to induce stall
*Recover:*
Nose down
Ensure full power
Accelerate
Retract flaps
Heading: +/- 10 degrees
Bank: Max 20 +/-10 degrees
73
What are the ACS for private pilot power on (departure) stall?
Perform clearing turns
Establish altitude (no lower than 1500 AGL) and heading
Pull power to 1500 RPM
Maintaining altitude and bleed off airspeed with aft yoke pressure
Once 60 knots is achieved, apply full power and full aft yoke pressure to induce stall
*Recover:*
Nose down
Ensure full power
Accelerate
Heading: +/- 10 degrees
Bank: Max 20 +/-10 degrees
74
What are the ACS for private pilot emergency descent?
Altitude: Level off +/- 100 feet
Airspeed +0/-10
Bank: 30-45 degrees
75
What are the ACS for private pilot simulated engine failure?
Airspeed: Vg (68 KIAS) +/-10 knots
76
What are the ACS for private pilot for unusual attitude (BAI)?
Altitude: +/- 200 feet
Airspeed: +/- 10 knots
Heading: +/- 20 degrees (+/- 10 for turns to headings)
77
What is a category, class, and type in reference to aircrafts?
Category: broad classification of aircrafts
Class: a classification within a category of aircrafts that have similar operating characteristics
*Airplanes:*
- single engine land
- single engine sea
- multi engine land
- multi engine sea
Type: a specific make and model of an aircraft
- Cessna 172 Skyhawk
78
What is the principle behind the right of way rules?
Underlying principle:
The least maneuverable aircraft has the right of way
In order:
- Aircraft in distress
- BGAAR:
Balloon
Glider
Airship
Airplane
Rotorcraft
79
What is the emergency frequency? What are the emergency squawk codes?
Emergency Freq = 121.5
Hijacking = 7500
Communication Failure = 7600
General Emergency = 7700
80
What are the light gun signals meaning on the ground?
Green = cleared for takeoff
Flashing green = cleared for taxi
Red = stop
Flashing red = taxi clear of runway
Flashing white = return to ramp
Alternating red/green = exercise extreme caution
81
What are the light gun signals meaning in the air?
Green = cleared for landing
Flashing green = return for landing
Red = give way to traffic
Flashing red = do not land
Alternating red/green = exercise extreme caution
82
What is the course of action in a head on approach?
Both aircrafts alter course to the right
83
What is the course of action with converging aircrafts? Who has the right of way?
The rightmost aircraft has the right of way, thus the other aircraft must alter their course
84
What is the course of action with an aircraft overtaking another? Who has the right of way?
The aircraft being overtaken has the right of way, thus the aircraft that is doing the overtaking must pass to the right
85
What is the course of action with landing aircrafts? Who has the right of way?
The lowest altitude aircraft has the right of way, but this should not be used to cut or overtake another aircraft
86
What the 3 main medical certificates? When do they expire? What happens when they expire?
*First Class*
Under 40 years of age: 12 calendar months
40 years of age or more: 6 calendar months
*Second Class*
Under 40 years of age: 12 calendar months
40 years of age or more: 12 calendar months
*Third Class*
Under 40 years of age: 60 calendar months
40 years of age or more: 24 calendar months
When a medical certificate expires it will turn into a medical certificate one class lower if still in the valid timeframe.
Example: a 41 year old gets a 1st class medical, after 6 months it will roll over to a 2nd class medical for 6 more months, after that it will roll over to a 3rd class medical for 12 months and then expire.
87
What is BasicMed? What are the requirements? What are the limitations?
BasicMed is a program that allows for certain pilots to fly small aircrafts without needing an FAA medical certificate.
Requirements:
- Has a valid U.S. driver's license
- Has had at least one valid medical certificate any time after July 14, 2006
- Complete a medical examination every 48 calendar months, and online medical education every 24 calendar months
Limitations:
- Carry up to 5 passengers (total 6 including the PIC)
- Operate an aircraft weighing not more than 6,000 pounds
- Operate below 18,000 feet and below 250 knots
- Cannot operate for compensation or hire
88
What is the aeromedical factor known as hypoxia? What causes it? What are the symptoms? What are the remedies?
Hypoxia is the deprivation of oxygen in the body that leads to brain and body impairment. In aviation, can be caused by reduced atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes, since less dense air will mean there is less oxygen per breath.
*Symptoms:*
- Impaired cognitive function
- Drowsiness, dizziness, headache
- Euphoria
- Unconsciousness
*Remedy:*
- Supplemental oxygen at necessary altitudes
Types:
- Hypoxic hypoxia: reduced oxygen in the bloodstream
- Hypemic hypoxia: blood can't transport enough oxygen (carbon monoxide poisoning)
- Histotoxic hypoxia: drug induced hypoxia
- Stagnant hypoxia: blood is not flowing and thus not carrying oxygen
89
What are the regulations for supplemental oxygen?
- Pilots must use supplemental oxygen for flights above 12,500 ft MSL that last more than 30 minutes
- Pilots must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 14,000 ft MSL
- All occupants must use supplemental oxygen for flights above 15,000 ft MSL
90
What is the aeromedical factor known as carbon monoxide poisoning? What causes it? What are the symptoms? What are the remedies? Give an example when it is common to occur.
Carbon monoxide is the colorless, odorless, tasteless gas that is a byproduct of combustion engines. If inhaled, it inhibits the blood's ability to carry oxygen, known as carbon monoxide poisoning.
*Symptoms:*
- Drowsiness, dizziness, headache
*Remedy:*
- Turn off heat: Turn off the cabin heat completely
- Open windows: Open windows if it's safe to do so
- Increase ventilation: Turn on the maximum rate of fresh air ventilation
- Use supplemental oxygen: If available, use supplemental oxygen
- Land: Land the aircraft as soon as possible
*Likely Causes:*
In the winter, cabin heat is typically used to warm the cockpit. This process involves fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud is directed to the cabin via a series of ducts, if there is a leak in the exhaust, carbon monoxide will also be carried into the cabin.
91
What is the aeromedical factor known as hyperventilation? What causes it? What are the symptoms? What are the remedies? Give an example when it is common to occur.
Hyperventilation is the abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs resulting in a decrease in the carbon dioxide content of the blood needed to regulate the breathing process. It typically results from stress or anxiety inducing situations.
*Symptoms:*
- Drowsiness, dizziness, nausea, unconsciousness
*Remedy:*
- Control breathing rate by talking aloud
- Breath into paper bag to reintroduce carbon dioxide
92
What illusion may a runway that is narrower than usual create?
A runway that is narrower than usual will create the illusion of being higher on final approach, causing a lower flown approach and make mid air collision more likely.
93
What illusion may a runway that is wider than usual create?
A runway that is wider than usual will create the illusion of being lower on final approach, causing a higher flown approach and make overshooting the runway more likely.
94
What illusion may a runway that is upsloping create?
A runway that is upsloping will create the illusion of being higher on final approach, causing a lower flown approach and make mid air collision more likely.
95
What illusion may a runway that is downsloping create?
A runway that is downsloping will create the illusion of being lower on final approach, causing a higher flown approach and make overshooting the runway more likely.
96
What are the privileges of a private pilot?
*Privileges:*
- Act as PIC and carry passengers for pleasure or fly for charity, non-profit, or community events
97
What constitutes a high performance aircraft? What is required to act as PIC of one?
An airplane with an engine that can produce more than 200 horsepower
To act as PIC, you must have logged the required ground and flight training along with an endorsement from an authorized instructor.
98
What constitutes a complex aircraft? What is required to act as PIC of one?
An airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller.
To act as PIC, you must have logged the required ground and flight training along with an endorsement from an authorized instructor.
99
Besides a high-performance and complex aircraft, what other types of ASEL aircraft requires specific training and logbook endorsement?
High altitude and tailwheel
100
What is the PAPI?
A 4 light precision approach path indicator
101
What is the VASI?
A 2 bar visual approach slope indicator
102
What is a TFR? What are the conditions?
A TFR is a temporary flight restriction issued via NOTAMs, you can NOT enter without clearance.
V - VIP (president)
A - Airshow
N - National disaster
S - Sporting event
S - Space operations
103
What is a TRSA?
A TRSA is a terminal radar service area that provides sequencing, vectoring, and separation and is depicted by black circles around a designated airport.
104
What is a SFRA?
A SFRA is a special flight rules area, an example is Washington D.C as it requires special training for use. Blue lines on sectional chart
105
What are the VFR day and night fuel requirements?
Enough fuel to to your first point of intended landing plus 30 minutes in the day and 45 minutes at night.
106
What is magnetic variation?
The difference between true North and magnetic North, the variation in a number form is depicted on sectional charts as isogonic lines.
(east is least = subtract, west is best = add)
107
Are you required to log every single flight you go on?
No, you are only required to log training used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, currency or flight review
108
What is the difference between being current and proficient?
-Being current means the pilot has met the minimum regulatory standards within a specific time period to exercise the privileges associated with the certificate.
-Being proficient means the pilot is capable of conducting a flight with a a high degree of competence.
109
Why should you establish personal minimums?
It allows you to make a more informed go/no-go or diversion decision thus reducing risk.
110
What should you do if you are unfamiliar with a specific system of an airplane? For example, avionics
Recognize that this will add to workload and could contribute to a loss of situational awareness
111
If a pilot's permanent address changes, how long can they exercise private pilot privileges before notifying the FAA?
30 days after the date of the move
112
What can be logged as second-in-command flight time?
This time can be logged when the pilot occupies as a crewmember when they hold the required ratings for the aircraft being flown.
113
What are the limitations of a private pilot?
Limitations:
- May not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire
- Must not pay less than pro rata share (proportional amount) of operating expenses
114
Does pro rata share apply to long term operating costs of an airplane?
No, fixed or long terms operating expenses of an aircraft (inspections/maintenance) are the responsibility of the aircraft owner.
115
If requested, who are you obligated to show your required documents to as a pilot crewmember?
FAA administrator, NTSB representative, TSA representative, or law enforcement
116
What medical certificate is required for a private pilot certificate?
A 3rd class medical is required for a private pilot certificate, it expires 60 calendar months after the date of the examination if you are under 40 years old and 24 calendar months after the date of the examination if you are over 40 years old
117
Can you fly after taking medication?
The safest rule is to not fly while taking medication unless it is approved to do so by the FAA, the list can be found online
118
What is an airworthiness certificate?
A certificate issued by the FAA that an aircraft design meets the standards for safe operation and conforms to its type design
119
What is an experimental airworthiness certificate?
A certificate issued to operate an aircraft that does not have a type certificate
120
How can a pilot determine if an aircraft is airworthy?
- Check that maintenance standards are met
- Conduct thorough preflight to ensure in safe mechanical condition
121
What records should be checked to determine if an aircraft has complied with all required maintenance, inspections, and airworthiness directives?
Maintenance records
122
What is an airworthiness directive? What are the categories?
A notification from the FAA of a potentially unsafe condition that may exist in an aircraft.
Categories:
- Emergency: requires immediate compliance before further flight
- Standard (less urgent): requires compliance within a specified period of time
- Recurring
123
Who is responsible for ensuring an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition?
The owner/operator is primarily responsible.
However, it is the PIC that must determine every preflight if the aircraft is in an airworthy condition or not.
124
You need to fly your aircraft to a facility for inspections and maintenance, but it is not considered airworthy by regulations, what should you do?
Apply for a special flight (ferry) permit to your local FSDO
125
What is a type certificate data sheet?
A certificate that states an aircraft, engine, propeller, etc. is found to meet FAA safety standards
126
What is the main difference between an annual and 100 hour inspection?
The main difference is who is allowed to perform the inspection
127
Under what condition can an aircraft operate beyond the 100 hour point without a new inspection?
The 100 hour inspection point may be exceeded by no more than 10 hours while enroute to a place where the inspection will be performed after receiving a special flight permit from FSDO.
The following 100 hour inspection will be due 100 hours after the point when the original was due, example inspection due at 900 but goes up to 908 to get to inspection place, following inspection due at 1000
128
Can an aircraft overdue for inspection be operated in flight?
An aircraft overdue for inspection can be operated under a special flight (ferry) permit issued by the FAA for the purpose of flying to a location for the inspection to be performed
129
What is a special flight permit? When is it necessary? How is one obtained?
A special flight permit is issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness standards. Obtained from the local FSDO (flight standards district office)
It is necessary:
- Flying to get inspection/maintenance
- Delivering aircraft
- Production testing flight
- Evacuation
- Customer demonstration
130
Can you operate an aircraft that has had alterations or repairs that have substantially affected its operation in flight?
No person may operate or carry passengers in an aircraft that has undergone substantial maintenance until an appropriately rated pilot has flown and deemed that it is operational
131
You have inoperative equipment onboard, can you conduct flight operations?
Yes, as long as the aircraft operates with the specified minimum equipment list
132
What is preventative maintenance?
Simple or minor preservation operations
133
What kind of information is required to be logged for maintenance?
Description of work
Date of completion
Name of who performed it
Signature and certification number
134
If an aircraft has exceeded the recommended time between engine overhauls is it legal to fly?
Yes, since TBO is manufacturer recommended it is not mandatory maintenance requirement. However, it is recommended to ensure engine safety and reliability
135
What weather briefing service does the FAA provide pilots?
Flight Service Station (FSS) weather briefings at 1800WXBrief
136
What are the two main categories of sources for weather data?
Federal government: FAA and NWS
Commercial/Third Party (May not satisfy required preflight action)
137
What are the types of briefings available from FSS?
Standard brief: request when no previous briefing has been received
Abbreviated brief: request as a supplement to update a prior brief
Outlook brief: request to get a forecast when your proposed time of flight is 6 or more hours away
In flight brief: request when updates needed in flight
138
What information does a FAA weather briefing include?
Adverse weather conditions
Current conditions
Enroute/Destination forecast
Winds aloft
NOTAMs
139
What is FIS-B
Flight Information Services-Broadcast, a ground based broadcast service through the ADS-B network that can supply properly equipped aircraft with aeronautical information
140
How can a pilot obtain weather information while enroute?
ATIS/ASOS/AWOS
FIS-B data on cockpit display
ATC (work permitting)
141
What are an AWOS/ASOS?
Automated weather that use a computer generated voice and update on a minute to minute basis
142
What is a PIREP? What are the types? Find and decode a PIREP.
A PIREP is a pilot report that provides information regarding current conditions in flight.
Types:
UA: standard
UUA: urgent
143
What is a SIGMET? What are the types?
Significant Meteorological Information, and is a weather advisory that informs pilots of severe weather conditions that could be dangerous to aircraft.
Types:
- Convective SIGMET: Thunderstorms, Tornadoes, Hail, valid for 2 hours
- SIGMET (WS): Severe icing, Severe turbulence, Dust storms, Volcanic ash, valid for 4-6 hours
144
What is an AIRMET? What are the types?
Airmen’s Meteorological Information, reports issued for smaller general aviation aircrafts that define an area of adverse weather.
Types:
- AIRMET Sierra: Low visibility/IFR conditions (sierra MIST)
- AIRMET Tango: Turbulence
- AIRMET Zulu: Icing
145
What is a Winds/Temp aloft forecast? What is some critical information you can derive from it?
A forecast of the wind speed and direction along with temperature in a specific geographical area at a specific altitude.
- Most favorable altitude
- Possibly icing
- Temperature inversions
- Turbulence
146
Define the following:
LIFR
IFR
MVFR
VFR
Low instrument flight rules
Instrument flight rules
Marginal visual flight rules
Visual flight rules
147
What is Earth's atmosphere composed of?
78% Nitrogen
21% Oxygen
1% Other gases
148
Where does most of Earth's weather occur?
Within the troposphere (surface to 36,000 feet)
149
What is the standard temperature and pressure? What is the standard lapse rate for each?
Temp: 15 degrees C
Pressure: 29.92 in/Hg
Per 1000 feet of altitude gain (up to 10,000 ft):
Lapse rate of temp: -1 degree C
Lapse rate of pressure: -1 in/Hg
150
What does it mean for the atmosphere to be "stable"? What are indications of unstable air?
It means that the atmosphere has the ability to resist vertical motion.
Instability can lead to significant, adverse weather from small vertical movements of air.
Unstable air can be associated with:
- A rapid, uniform decrease in temperature as you gain altitude (3 degrees C per 1000 feet)
- Warm and moist air near the surface
151
What causes wind?
Wind is caused by differences in air density due to changes in temperature and pressure which creates vertical and horizontal motion of air in the atmosphere.
152
What are the 3 forces affecting wind?
- Pressure gradient force: the force that drives wind in an attempt to equalize pressure differences between high and low pressure areas
- Coriolis force: force that deflects wind to the right in the Northern Hemisphere cause by Earth's rotation
- Friction with the surface
153
What are isobars? What does their spacing indicate?
A line on a weather chart that connects areas of equal barometric pressure. Their spacing indicates how steep or shallow the pressure gradient is.
154
What is wind shear?
A sudden, drastic change in wind speed and/or direction over a small area.
155
What might a lens-shaped cloud over a mountain indicate?
An atmospheric disturbance formed when air flows over a mountain or ridge creating turbulence above it.
156
What is the amount of moisture in the air dependent on?
Temperature
157
What is relative humidity?
The ratio of water vapor in the air compared to the maximum amount the air could hold
158
What is dew point?
The temperature at which water vapor in the air must be cooled to become saturated (100% relative humidity) and thus condense into water
159
What are the 3 conditions necessary for precipitation to form?
- Water vapor
- Vertical motion sufficient to condense vapor into clouds
- Cloud growth and development (typically 4000 feet thick)
160
How do low and high pressure air move in the Northern hemisphere?
Air Movement:
Low pressure - inward, upward, counterclockwise (rising air) = bad weather
High pressure - outward, downward, clockwise (descending air) = good weather
161
What are the types of fronts?
Air mass = a large body of air with a consistent temperature and humidity
Cold front: A mass of cold, dense, and stable air mass advances and replaces a warm air mass (expect unstable air and bad weather)
Warm front: A mass of warm air mass advances and flows over a cooler air mass (expect low ceiling and poor visibility)
Stationary front: A boundary that separates two relatively equal air masses
Occluded front: A fast-moving cold front catches up to a slow-moving warm front
162
What is a trough in reference to aviation weather?
An elongated area of low pressure
163
What is a ridge in reference to aviation weather?
An elongated area of high pressure
164
What is a cloud made up of and why do they form?
A cloud is a visible aggregate of tiny water droplets attached to nuclei. They are formed as a result of the condensation and evaporation interacting with atmospheric stability.
165
What are the basic cloud forms?
Cirriform: thin, white high level clouds composed of ice crystals (20,000 ft)
Nimbo-form: precipitation clouds (7,000 - 15,000 ft)
Cumuliform: clouds that show vertical development dependent on humidity (up to 60,000 feet)
Stratiform: low level blanket like clouds (hundreds of feet)
166
What are the driving factors of turbulence? What are the types of intensities?
Convective current
Obstructions of wind flow
Wind shear
Types of Intensity:
Light
Moderate
Severe
Extreme
167
What is clear air turbulence?
Sudden, severe turbulence occurring in cloudless regions
168
What are factors necessary for the formation of thunderstorms? What are the three stages? What are the types?
Factors:
- Water vapor
- Unstable lapse rate of temperature
- Lifting force of air that creates vertical cloud development
Stages:
- Cumulus: strong updrafts of air
- Mature: precipitation falls from cloud base following a downdraft
- Dissipating: strong downdrafts as the storm rapidly dies out
Types:
- Single cell
- Multi cell
- Super cell
169
What are microbursts? Where are they common?
Small, intense downdrafts spreading outwards in all directions from convective activity
170
What are the main types of structural icing that may occur?
- Clear icing: A gloss, clear layer of ice caused by a relatively slow freezing rate
- Rime icing: A rough, milky ice formed by instantaneous freezing
- Mixed icing: both
171
What is the freezing level?
The lowest altitude at which the air temperature reaches 0 degrees C
172
What should a pilot do if they accidently encounter freezing conditions?
- Descend to an altitude where temperature is above freezing
- Use de-icing equipment
- Consider immediate landing
173
What is a temperature inversion?
A temperature inversion is an increase in temperature with and increase in altitude
174
How does fog form? What are the types?
Fog forms when the temperature and dew point meet
Types:
- Radiation fog: nighttime and small temp/dew point spread
- Advection fog: moist air moves over a colder surface
- Upslope fog: moist air being cooled as it moves up a vertical surface
- Front fog: warm, moist air lifted over a cold front
- Steam fog: when cold air moves across warm water
- Freezing fog
175
What is frost? Is it hazardous to flight?
Frost is ice crystals formed by sublimation (solid to gas) below freezing temperatures. Yes, frost and other icing can change the aerodynamic shape of the aircraft, spoiling the smooth flow of air over it.
176
What are some weather conditions that obstruct visbility?
Fog
Mist
Haze
Smoke
Precipitation
Dust/Sand Storm
Volcanic ASh
177
What preflight action is required for a flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport?
Remember NW KRAFT
N- NOTAMS
W- Weather reports and forecasts
K- Known ATC traffic delays
R- Runway lengths
A- Alternative airports
F- Fuel requirements
T- Takeoff and landing distance data
178
What are NOTAMS? Where can they be found?
Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs) provide pilots with time critical aeronautical information.
They are found on 1800WXBrief, FAA website, or on the FIS-B in flight
179
What are the most common ways of VFR XC navigation?
Pilotage - using visual references alongside a sectional chart
Dead reckoning - navigation based on computing data like time, airspeed, distance, and direction
Radio navigation - VORs
180
What would make good VFR checkpoints for an XC?
Anything that is easy-to-locate and along the route.
Ex:
large towns, lakes/rivers, highways, railroads, or a combination of them
181
What are considerations a pilot should have when planning a VFR XC route?
Airspace
Airports
Terrain and obstacle clearance
Navigation/Communication capability
182
What are considerations a pilot should have when planning a VFR XC cruise altitude?
Winds/Temp aloft
Aircraft performance (gliding distance)
Terrain and obstacles
Airspace
Weather
VFR cruising altitudes (above 3000 ft AGL: 0-179 degrees = odd thousand +500, 180-359 degrees = even thousand +500)
183
What is the lowest altitude an aircraft can operate over a park, wildlife refuge, or protected forest area?
2000 feet AGL
184
What are lines of latitude?
Also known as parallels, they measure North and South into degrees, minutes, and seconds
185
What are lines of longitude?
Also known as meridians, they measure east and West into degrees, minutes, and seconds
186
How do you convert our time zone (EST) into UTC (Zulu)?
add 5 hours to Eastern standard time for universal coordinated time
187
What is the difference between a course and a heading?
A course is the intended path of travel.
A heading is the direction in which the airplane's nose is pointing.
Sometimes, because of wind speed and direction, we need to fly a heading that differs from our intended course to arrive at our destination.
188
What is magnetic deviation?
The deflection of a compass needle due to the interference of magnets present in the aircraft. Deviation value can be found on a compass card in the cockpit.
189
What is a VOR or VORTAC?
VORs are very high frequency radio stations that project radials in all directions from the station.
A VORTAC does the same with include distance information
190
What is a radial?
A line of magnetic bearing extending from a VOR or similar
191
What is a limitation of VORs?
They are subject to line-of-sight restrictions
192
What is GPS?
Global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite based radio navigation system. It takes 4 satellites to measure an aircraft in 3 dimensions
193
What is a DME?
Distance measuring equipment (DME) is an ultra high frequency navigational aid used in conjunction with VOR/DME and VORTACs
194
What is RAIM?
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) ensures GPS integrity and notifies the pilot if it fails.
Without RAIM, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of GPS positioning.
5 satellites reception is necessary for aircrafts utilizing RAIM.
195
What is WAAS?
Wide area augmentation system (WAAS) located on the ground that corrects satellite navigational error
196
What is ADS-B?
Automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast is a system that allows an aircraft to broadcast its GPS-derived position along with other data to ground based receivers.
197
What is a transponder?
A transponder is a radar beacon receiver and transmitter which automatically receives and replies to radio signals
198
What are the differences between mode A, C, and S transponders?
Mode A: transmit a 4-digit identifying code only
Mode C: also transmits position and pressure altitude information
Mode S: all of the above and permits data exchange
199
What is the VFR squawk code?
1200
200
Why might a pilot need to divert?
Unexpected or deteriorating weather conditions
System malfunction
Passenger emergency
Closed airport/runway
201
What is an ARTCC?
Air route traffic control center (ARTCC) provides ATC service to aircraft operation on IFR flight plans
202
If you are lost on a XC flight, what should you do? (4 C's)
Climb
Communication
Confess
Comply
203
What is an ELT?
Emergency locator transmitter is a radio transmitter that aides in locating down aircrafts by sending an audio tone of the emergency frequency 121.5
204
What is the PIC's authority and responsibility in the event of an inflight emergency?
- PIC is directly responsible for and has the final authority in the event of an emergency.
- PIC may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency
- PIC shall send a written report of the deviation to the FAA upon request
205
Can you operate in close proximity to another aircraft?
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another as to create a collision hazard.
206
What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL?
250 knots
207
What is the minimum safe altitude an aircraft can operate over a congested/densely populated area?
Except for takeoff and landing, you should maintain at a minimum 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontal of the highest obstacle in a congested area
208
Besides congested areas, what is the minimum safe operating altitude?
Except for takeoff and landing, you should maintain at a minimum 500 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
209
What is minimum safe altitude?
An altitude that, in the event of engine failure, will allow for an emergency landing without hazard to people or property on the surface
210
When a control tower located at an airport in class D airspace ceases operations for the day, what happens to the airspace?
It will turn into a class E airspace or a combination of class E and G.
211
What does it mean for an airspace to be controlled?
Air traffic control offers service to aircrafts
212
What is special VFR clearance?
The clearance from ATC to operate below VFR weather minimums provided that the flight can remain clear of cloud with at least 1 SM ground visibility.
213
What is a military training route?
A flight route developed for low altitude, high speed military aircraft training
214
What are VFR routes?
Routes designed for VFR aircrafts to transition through complex airspace.
215
What is an ADIZ?
Air defense identification zone
216
What are the POH sections of the 172S?
1 - General
2 - Limitations
3 - Emergency procedures
4 - Normal procedures
5 - Performance
6 - Weight & Balance + Equipment List
7 - Airplane System Descriptions
8 - Maintenance
9 - Supplements
217
What length is necessary for a runway to depicted outside of a circle on a sectional chart?
8069 feet
218
What are the four forces acting on an airplane?
Lift
Weight
Thrust
Drag
219
How is straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight achieved?
The sum of opposing forces (lift + weight) (thrust + drag) equals zero.
220
What is an airfoil?
A device that generates lift from air moving over its surface
221
What is the angle of incidence?
The angle formed by the longitudinal axis axis of the plane and the chord line of the wing
222
What is relative wind?
The direction of airflow relative to the wing
223
What is the angle of attack?
The angle between the wing chord line and relative wind
224
What is Bernoulli's principle?
An increase in pressure of a fluid will decrease its flow rate and a decrease in pressure will increase its flow rate.
High pressure, low speed air flows over top the wing while low pressure, high speed air slows under the wing resulting in lift.
225
What is torque reaction? When is it most pronounced?
The left turning tendency of the nose as a result of a clockwise (when viewed from cockpit) rotating propeller that can be described by Newton’s 3rd law of motion (equal and opposite).
It is most pronounced at low airspeed, high power settings, and high angle of attack
226
What is gyroscopic precession? When is it most pronounced?
A force acting on a gyroscope will be exerted 90 degrees ahead in the direction of rotation.
This relates to our aircraft because the propeller acts as a gyroscope rotating right (when viewed from cockpit).
Thus, a downward force (forward yoke pressure) will be felt 90 degrees ahead of rotation, causing the aircraft to yaw left
227
What is corkscrew (slipstream) effect? When is it most pronounced?
Rotation of the propeller at high speeds results in a corkscrew rotation of air about the empennage of the aircraft.
At high power settings and low speeds (takeoff), this air will strike the vertical tail on the left, causing the nose to yaw to the left.
228
What is P-factor? When is it most pronounced?
The left turning tendency due to the asymmetrical loading of the propeller when flying at a high angle of attack leading to a larger "bite" of air being taken (and more thrust) by the downward moving propeller causing the nose to yaw to the left.
Most noticeable in high angle of attack and high power settings
229
What is centrifugal force?
The equal and opposite reaction of the airplane to the input of flight controls
230
What is load factor? Why is it important?
The ratio of total load supported by the wings to the actual weight of the airplane.
Load factor is measured in G's, or forces of gravity, 1 G equals the airplane's weight and 2 G's equals double the airplane's weight.
Understanding aircraft G limits will prevent overloading the airframe and causing structural damage.
231
What are the operational categories for an aircraft and what are their G limits?
Normal: +3.8 to -1.52
Utility: +4.4 to -1.76
Aerobatic: +6.0 to -3.0
232
What effect does an increase in load factor have on stall speeds?
An increase in load factor will increase stalling speed
233
What is adverse yaw?
The yaw of an aircraft opposite of the direction of a turn as a result of the deflected aileron opposite of the turn producing more lift and drag.
234
What is empty weight?
The weight of the airframe and all permanently installed systems and equipment along with unusable fuel
235
What is useful load?
The weigh of the pilot and copilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel, and drainable oil
236
What is the arm in reference to airplane weight and balance?
The horizontal distance in inches from the reference datum line to the center of gravity.
237
What is the moment in reference to airplane weight and balance?
The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm
238
What is an aircraft's center of gravity?
The point at which an aircraft would balance if suspended at that point
239
What is the reference datum?
The imaginary point where all measurements are taken
240
What is the formula for a weight shift?
weight shifted / total weight = change in CG / distance weight is shifted
241
What effect does a forward CG have on an aircraft?
-- Higher stall speed
- More aft elevator pressure required
242
What effect does a rearward CG have on an aircraft?
Less stability
243
How much does one gallon of gas weigh?
100LL AvGas = 6 pounds per gallon
244
How much does one gallon of oil weigh?
7.5 pounds per gallon
245
Should aircraft weight and balance be recorded anytime permanent equipment or systems are altered?
Yes, changes of fixed equipment may have a major effect upon the weight and balance of the aircraft.
246
What effects aircraft takeoff and landing performance?
Density altitude (air density)
Surface wind
Runway surface
Slope of runway
Weight
247
What is density altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
Density altitude is the vertical distance above sea level in the standard atmosphere at which a given air density is found.
248
What factors affect air density?
Temperature
Altitude
Humidity (more humid = less dense)
249
What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities?
Min = 6 quarts
Max = 8 quarts
250
What kind of landing gear does the C172S have?
Tricycle gear with 2 main wheels and a steerable nose wheel
251
Describe the braking system of the C172S
Hydraulically actuated disc type brakes on each main gear wheel
252
What are the four engine strokes?
Intake
Compression
Power
Exhaust
(remember suck, squeeze, bang, blow)
253
What is the purpose of throttle control?
Control the AMOUNT of fuel/air mixture entering the engine's cylinders
254
What is the purpose of mixture control?
Control the RATIO of fuel/air mixture
255
What is the purpose of dual ignition system (2 spark plugs per cylinder)?
Increased safety and efficiency
256
What is the purpose of the fuel tank vents?
Allows consumed fuel to be replaced by outside air, preventing a formation of a vacuum within the fuel tank
257
What does the ammeter indicate?
The flow of current, in amperes, from the alternator to the battery
258
Why is the alternator voltage output higher than the main storage battery voltage?
The alternator will have excess voltage enabling it to charge the main battery
259
How does cabin heat work?
Fresh air, heated by the exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin via a series of ducts
260
What are the main functions of engine oil?
Lubrication to moving parts
Sealing between cylinder walls and pistons
Cooling the engine and cylinders
Cleans and removes contaminants
261
What is detonation? What causes it? How to correct for it?
Uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder leading to excessive temperatures and pressure.
It is caused by:
- improper fuel grade use
- higher manifold pressure and low RPM
- high power setting and lean mixture
- not enough air flow
It is corrected by:
- ensure proper fuel grade
- enriching the mixture
- increase air flow
262
What is preignition?
When the fuel/air mixture ignites prior the engine's normal ignition/power stroke usually caused by residual hot spots on the combustion chamber.
To correct it:
- reduce power
- enriching the mixture
- increase airflow
263
On before takeoff run up during the mag check, you switch from both to the L or R position and notice no drop in RPM, what could this mean?
- fouled spark plugs
- damaged wiring
- improperly timed firing
Is not normal and aircraft should not be flown
264
What is a gyroscope? What flight instruments contain gyroscopes? What are the fundamental properties of a gyroscope?
A gyroscope is a device used for measuring or maintain orientation and angular velocity.
Instruments with a gyroscope:
- Turn coordinator
- Heading indicator
- Attitude indicator
Properties:
- Rigidity in space
- Precession
265
What are the dip errors associated with a magnetic compass?
Acceleration error: On an East or West heading, the compass will show a turn to the North while accelerating and it will show a turn the South while decelerating
ANDS
- Accelerate
- North
- Decelerate
- South
Turning error: The magnetic compass leads a turn in the South half and lags a turn in the North half
UNOS
- Undershoot
- North
- Overshoot
- South
266
Is it allowed for a pilot to carry a person who is obviously under the influence aboard an aircraft?
No, except in the case of a medical emergency
267
What is SRM?
Single pilot resource management, refers to the skill of managing all the resources available to a single pilot to ensure the successful outcome of a flight
268
What is the checklist associated with SRM?
The 5P checklist is based on the 5 variables that impact a pilot's environment and that should be considered in critical decision making.
The 5 P checklist:
- Plan: weather, route, ATC, fuel
- Plane
- Pilot: IMSAFE
- Passengers
- Programming: autopilot, GPS, MFD/PFD
269
What is ADM? What are the basic steps?
The term aeronautical decision making is the systematic approach used in determining the best course of action in response to a given circumstance.
Steps:
- Define the problem
- Choose a course of action
- Implement the decision
- Evaluate the outcome
270
What are the 5 hazardous attitudes and their remedy?
5 hazardous attitudes:
- Anti Authority
- Impulsivity
- Invulnerability
- Macho
- Resignation
Remedies:
- Follow the rules
- Think before you act
- It could happen to me
- Taking chances is foolish
- I am not helpless
271
What is risk management in relation to aviation?
The decision making process designed to systematically identify hazards, assess risk, and determine the best course of action.
272
What is the risk assessment checklist?
Gives a pilot framework for evaluating, identifying, and mitigating risks.
PAVE
- Pilot in command
- Aircraft
- enVironment
- External pressure
273
What is task management in relation to aviation?
The process pilots use to manage multiple, simultaneous tasks that must be performed to ensure safe and efficient flight.
274
What are factors that can reduce a pilot's ability to manage workload?
Environmental conditions
Physiological and Psychological stress
275
What is a way of prioritizing tasks to avoid workload overload?
Remember "aviate, communicate, navigate"
276
What is the point of checklists?
Aid to the completion of critical memory items necessary for safe operation of the aircraft.
Methods to completion:
- Do and Verify
- Question, Do, and Verify
277
What phases of flight should a checklist be used?
Preflight inspection
Before engine start
Engine start
Before taxi
Before takeoff
After takeoff
Cruise
Descent
Before landing
After landing
Engine shutdown and securing
278
What is situational awareness in relation to aviation? What reduces it?
The accurate perception and understanding of the current factors and conditions (5P's).
it is reduced by:
-fatigue
-distractions
-unusual or unexpected events
-complacency
-high workload
-inoperative equipment
279
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in airworthy condition for flight? What conditions must be met for the aircraft to be considered airworthy?
The PIC has the final responsibility for determining if the aircraft is in an airworthy condition.
They can determine this by confirming the aircraft conforms to its type design (includes maintenence and inspection standard) and is in safe mechanical condition.
280
How can a pilot determine if an aircraft conforms to its type design?
An aircraft conforms to its type design when all required inspections, maintenance, preventative maintenance, repairs, and alterations are performed and documents are in accordance with regulations.
281
Is a preflight safety briefing required prior to takeoff? What should the safety briefing include?
Yes, no pilot may move on the surface or takeoff until the passengers are briefed and been notified to use their seat belts and harness.
SAFETY
- Seatbelts
- Air vents
- Fire extinguisher
- Emergency Egress
- Talking / Traffic
- Your questions?
282
What are the sources of information a pilot can reference for current airport data and conditions?
Aeronautical Charts
Chart Supplements
NOTAMs
ATIS
GPS navigation database
283
What is an airport hotspot?
An area that has increased risk for potential surface incidents, expecially runway incursions.
284
When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross an runway that intersects your taxi route?
NO, you must hold short of the runway until a runway crossing clearance is received
285
What are the types of signs installed at an airport?
- Mandatory instruction signs: Red background and white letters/numbers
- Location signs: Black background and yellow letters/numbers
- Direction, Destination, & Information signs: Yellow background and black letters/numbers
- Runway distance remaining signs: Black background and white letters/numbers
286
What is a CTAF?
A Common Traffic Advisory Frequency is used for airport advisory practices at un-towered airports.
287
What is ATIS?
Automatic Terminal Information Service, continuous broadcast of human recorded information in a high activity airport.
Typically includes METAR, NOTAMs, etc.
288
What do you do if an airport has no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station?
Use 122.9 to announce your intentions and procedures
289
When may a pilot deviate from ATC clearance or instructions? What must the PIC do when deviating from ATC instruction?
- An amended clearance is obtained
- An emergency exists
- In response to traffic or collision avoidance
The PIC must inform ATC of deviation as soon as possible and submit a detailed report within 48 hours to the ATC facility.
290
When does the rotating airport beacon operate?
During the day: 3 miles of visibility or less and a ceiling less than 1000 feet AGL
At night: dusk to dawn
291
What are the colors of a rotating airport beacon and what do they mean?
Green/White: Civilian land airport
Yellow/White: Sea airport
Green/Yellow/White: Heliport
Green/White/White: Military airport
292
When is immediate notice of the NTSB required?
Flight control system malfunction
Crew member unable to perform duties
Inflight fire or collision
Property damage, other than the aircraft, exceeding $25,000
Overdue aircraft involved in incident
Substantial damage
Serious injury
Within 10 days
293
What is wake turbulence?
The counter rotating vortices trailing behind an aircraft as a result of it generating lift that causes turbulence when flown into.
294
How are wake vortices created?
Lift generation will create pressure differentials about the wind's upper and lower surfaces, when the air meets again aft of the wing, the pressure differential combines the airflow into a swirling air mass traveling outward, around, and downward
295
What factors affect wake vortex strength?
Any factors that also affect an aircrafts ability to produce lift:
- weight
- speed
- wingspan
- shape
Thus, the vortex strength increases proportional with factors that require an increase in lift.
The greatest vortex strength occurs when an aircraft is heavy, clean configuration, and slow
296
How do you as a pilot avoid wake turbulence from other aircrafts?
On landing, remain upwind and above the proceeding aircraft's final approach path
On takeoff, rotate prior to the proceeding aircraft's lift off point and remain above their flight path
Factor in when an aircraft's wake vortices may overlap with your flight path, like on intersecting runways, wind direction and speed blowing it into your path, etc.
297
About how long does it take for your vision to acclimate to night conditions? What resets this?
30 minutes
Bright light
298
How can a pilot avoid the night blind spot?
Off center viewing
299
When are position lights required for aircrafts?
Sunset to sunrise
300
What are the 3 definitions of night and when are they to be used?
Evening to morning civil twilight: used for logging night time
1 hour after sunset and before sunrise: used for currency to act as PIC carrying passengers
Sunset to sunrise: used to determine when to have lights on
301
How is VFR cruising altitude determined?
It is determined via MAGNETIC course since ATC can't see aircraft heading.
Above 3000 feet:
If 0 to 179: Odd thousand + 500 feet
If 180 to 359: Even thousand + 500 feet
